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EC-Council Certified Network Defender (CND, 312-38, Blueprint v4.0) (CND) (CND) — Questions 301323

323 questions total · 5pages · All types, answers revealed

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301
MCQeasy

An enterprise network uses VLANs to separate departments. Users in the Marketing VLAN need to access a printer located in the Sales VLAN. Which network device is strictly required to route traffic between these two distinct VLANs?

A.Layer 2 unmanaged switch
B.Layer 3 router or multilayer switch
C.Hub
D.Wireless range extender
AnswerB

A Layer 3 routing device provides inter-vlan routing capabilities across distinct subnet boundaries.

Why this answer

VLANs represent separate broadcast domains and subnets. Inter-VLAN routing performed by a Layer 3 switch or router is required for communication between them.

302
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO components are standard elements of a well-designed enterprise DMZ architecture? (Choose TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Perimeter firewalls controlling traffic entering and leaving the zone
B.Unprotected hubs connecting all corporate workstations
C.Internal active directory domain controllers serving workstation logins
D.Public-facing web or mail servers
E.Unrestricted direct fiber connections to employee home routers
AnswersA, D

Firewalls isolate and protect the DMZ from both the internet and internal network.

Why this answer

A DMZ typically hosts public-facing servers (like web or mail servers) and relies on perimeter firewalls to control traffic flow.

303
MCQmedium

An organization wants to protect its internal network against unauthorized DHCP servers (DHCP spoofing and rogue DHCP starvation attacks). Which switch security feature should be enabled on all untrusted access switch ports?

A.Enable DHCP Snooping globally and configure untrusted user access ports as untrusted.
B.Activate IP Source Guard with static binding entries on all edge switch ports.
C.Configure Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) on all trunk ports connecting to core switches.
D.Enable Port Security with maximum MAC address limits and restrict violation actions.
AnswerA

DHCP snooping blocks rogue DHCP servers on untrusted ports and tracks IP-to-MAC bindings.

Why this answer

DHCP snooping acts as a firewall between trusted and untrusted DHCP servers. It drops DHCP offer/ack messages coming from untrusted ports while building a trusted DHCP binding database.

304
MCQeasy

An administrator needs to secure SNMP traffic on enterprise network switches so that management queries and responses are both encrypted and authenticated. Which version of SNMP must be configured?

A.SNMPv3
B.SNMPv2c
C.SNMPv1
D.SNMPv2u
AnswerA

SNMPv3 introduces robust user-based security with support for authentication and encryption.

Why this answer

SNMPv3 provides essential security features including message confidentiality (encryption via DES or AES), integrity (via HMAC-MD5 or SHA), and authentication (usm user-based security model). SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c lack encryption.

305
Multi-Selecthard

A security engineer is performing a security audit of an enterprise firewall and discovers several misconfigurations. Which THREE of the following practices represent severe security vulnerabilities in firewall deployment? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Configuring a default 'any-any-allow' rule at the bottom of the security policy rulebase without logging
B.Exposing the firewall management GUI/SSH interface directly to the public internet without a VPN or source IP restriction
C.Enabling stateful inspection on all internal DMZ interfaces
D.Implementing strict reverse path forwarding (RPF) checks on external interfaces
E.Leaving default factory administrator usernames and passwords active on the device
AnswersA, B, E

An unmonitored 'any-any-allow' rule bypasses intent-based security filtering and masks unauthorized traffic flows.

Why this answer

Placing administrative interfaces on the public internet, using 'any-any-allow' rules, and leaving default management credentials enabled are critical firewall misconfigurations that introduce severe security risks.

306
MCQhard

An organization's security policy states that all Windows 10/11 endpoints must enforce AppLocker rules to block unauthorized executables. An administrator creates an Executable Rule allowing signed applications from a trusted software publisher, but users are still able to run unsigned tools from user-writable directories like C:\Users\Public. What is the most likely reason?

A.Windows Defender Real-time Protection is enabled
B.The Application Identity service (AppIDSvc) is stopped or disabled
C.BitLocker encryption is not enabled on the system drive
D.Fast Startup is enabled in the BIOS
AnswerB

AppLocker depends entirely on the Application Identity service running to perform rule evaluations.

Why this answer

AppLocker requires the Application Identity (AppIDSvc) service to be running to evaluate rule collections. If stopped or disabled, AppLocker rules are not enforced.

307
Multi-Selectmedium

A security operations center (SOC) analyst is investigating a compromised Linux web server. Which TWO log files and forensic artifacts should the analyst examine to determine the initial access vector and persistence mechanisms used by the attacker? (Choose TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Cron job tables and spool directories (/etc/crontab and /var/spool/cron) to check for unauthorized scheduled tasks.
B.Active Directory SYSVOL replication logs for Group Policy object modifications.
C.Master Boot Record (MBR) partition table geometry and cylinder sector metrics.
D.Windows Registry hives (SAM, SYSTEM, SOFTWARE) for user credential artifacts.
E.Authentication logs (/var/log/auth.log or /var/log/secure) to inspect login attempts and sudo usage.
AnswersA, E

Attackers frequently establish persistence on Linux by creating unauthorized cron jobs.

Why this answer

Investigating Linux compromises involves reviewing authentication logs (/var/log/auth.log) for logins and cron job schedules (/var/spool/cron or /etc/crontab) for persistence mechanisms.

308
MCQmedium

A network security analyst is reviewing NetFlow records and notices an unusually high volume of small UDP packets originating from a single internal host destined to various random external IP addresses on ephemeral ports. What type of network attack or anomaly does this signature indicate?

A.ARP cache poisoning spoofing attack
B.UDP flood Denial of Service attack
C.TCP SYN flood attack against internal servers
D.DNS zone transfer enumeration (AXFR)
AnswerB

Flooding random external ports with UDP packets is characteristic of a UDP flood attack.

Why this answer

A high volume of small UDP packets sent to random high ports indicates a UDP flood Denial of Service (DoS) attack originating from the compromised internal host.

309
MCQeasy

A security analyst is hardening a Linux-based web server and wants to implement mandatory access control (MAC) to restrict processes to only the resources necessary for their function. Which built-in Linux kernel security module should the analyst configure?

A.Configure Security-Enhanced Linux (SELinux) or AppArmor in enforcing mode.
B.Modify standard Linux file permission bits (chmod and chown) for all application binaries.
C.Enable the Linux audit daemon (auditd) to log all system call activities.
D.Install and configure a host-based firewall using iptables or nftables.
AnswerA

SELinux and AppArmor provide Mandatory Access Control to restrict process permissions.

Why this answer

SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux) and AppArmor are Linux Security Modules (LSM) that provide Mandatory Access Control (MAC) policies. SELinux uses security contexts and policies to constrain process privileges.

310
Multi-Selectmedium

A network defense manager is preparing for a SOC 2 Type II audit. Which THREE operational practices must the organization demonstrate to prove ongoing compliance with Security Trust Services criteria? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Public exposure of all internal router passwords on corporate websites
B.Periodic review of user access privileges and removal of terminated employee accounts
C.Disabling all system auditing and log generation to maximize server CPU performance
D.Formal change management ticket tracking with documented approval workflows
E.Continuous vulnerability scanning and documented patch management lifecycles
AnswersB, D, E

Access reviews ensure only authorized personnel retain system access.

Why this answer

SOC 2 Type II audits evaluate operational effectiveness over time through continuous monitoring, access reviews, and change management.

311
MCQeasy

An organization is implementing database activity monitoring (DAM) to detect unauthorized data access and SQL injection attempts against their enterprise SQL Server databases. Where should the DAM sensor ideally be placed to capture all database queries accurately without relying solely on database logs?

A.Network tap / SPAN port capturing database protocol traffic or host-based driver interceptors
B.On the perimeter firewall inspecting ICMP echo requests
C.At the corporate DNS resolver cache
D.As an SMTP email gateway relay filter
AnswerA

Network taps or host interceptors capture all SQL traffic directly, bypassing database log tampering.

Why this answer

Database Activity Monitoring (DAM) appliances often use network sniffing (passive tap/SPAN port) or lightweight software agents installed on the database host to inspect queries independently of database transaction logs.

312
Multi-Selecthard

A network engineer is configuring an enterprise DMZ and needs to ensure proper network isolation and protection between the internet, the DMZ, and the internal corporate network. Which THREE best practices should be implemented in this architecture? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Implement a 'three-legged' firewall configuration or a dual-firewall DMZ architecture to separate zones.
B.Store primary enterprise Active Directory domain controllers directly inside the DMZ zone for faster authentication.
C.Deploy strict firewall access control lists (ACLs) blocking all unnecessary inbound and outbound ports on the DMZ perimeter.
D.Allow DMZ servers to establish unrestricted initiating connections directly into the internal corporate database servers.
E.Disable all non-essential services, accounts, and management daemons on servers deployed within the DMZ.
AnswersA, C, E

True. Using a three-legged firewall or dual-firewall architecture provides clear separation between external, DMZ, and internal zones.

Why this answer

DMZ best practices include using a 3-interface firewall or multiple firewalls, avoiding direct routing between the DMZ and internal network, and disabling unnecessary services on DMZ hosts.

313
MCQmedium

An administrator needs to harden an IoT gateway running Linux by disabling core dumps globally to prevent sensitive application memory from being written to disk if a process crashes. Which configuration should be applied?

A.Running chmod 000 /bin/sh
B.Setting ProcessCoreDump=false in /etc/systemd/coredump.conf
C.Editing /etc/fstab to mount /tmp as read-only
D.Modifying /etc/resolv.conf to block DNS queries
AnswerB

Configuring systemd-coredump to disable core dumps prevents memory contents from being persisted to disk upon crashes.

Why this answer

Core dumps are disabled globally by configuring limits in /etc/security/limits.conf or via systemd's coredump.conf.

314
MCQhard

An enterprise application developer is implementing JSON Web Tokens (JWT) for stateless session authentication. Which implementation flaw represents the highest risk of signature forgery and unauthorized privilege escalation?

A.Setting an expiration time (exp claim) of 15 minutes
B.Failing to strictly validate the JWT algorithm header, allowing 'none' or asymmetric-to-symmetric key confusion (RS256 to HS256)
C.Storing the JWT inside an HTTP-only Secure cookie instead of localStorage
D.Including the user's role claim inside the public payload section
AnswerB

Allowing 'none' algorithms or key confusion attacks enables attackers to forge valid signatures for any administrative user ID.

Why this answer

Accepting 'none' as a valid algorithm or failing to verify the cryptographic signature (e.g., confusing RS256 with HS256 where the public key is treated as the HMAC secret) allows attackers to forge arbitrary JWT payloads.

315
MCQeasy

An enterprise security administrator needs to isolate a compromised AWS EC2 instance for forensic investigation without terminating the instance or losing its volatile memory state. Which action should the administrator take?

A.Terminate the EC2 instance and restore from the latest snapshot
B.Modify the instance state to 'stopped' via AWS CLI
C.Delete the attached Elastic Network Interface (ENI)
D.Remove all current security groups and attach an isolation security group with deny-all rules
AnswerD

Attaching a security group with no inbound or outbound rules isolates the instance on the network while preserving RAM.

Why this answer

Detaching existing security groups and attaching a strict isolation security group that blocks all inbound and outbound traffic allows forensic analysis while preventing network lateral movement.

316
MCQeasy

During network defense lifecycle management, a security team identifies an end-of-life operating system that no longer receives vendor security patches. Which mitigation strategy represents best practice when immediate replacement is impossible?

A.Exposing the legacy host directly to the public internet for easier monitoring
B.Disabling the system logging service to prevent disk space exhaustion
C.Implementing strict network segmentation and firewall micro-perimeter isolation around the legacy host
D.Granting full local administrator privileges to all domain users
AnswerC

Micro-segmentation restricts lateral movement to and from vulnerable legacy systems.

Why this answer

When legacy systems cannot be replaced, compensating controls such as network micro-segmentation and strict firewall filtering must be applied.

317
MCQmedium

A security analyst is investigating a suspected malware outbreak on a domain controller. To ensure forensic integrity and maintain a proper chain of custody before powering down the machine, what is the correct sequence of volatility when acquiring volatile evidence using live response tools such as FTK Imager or LiME?

A.Running processes, hard disk storage, system memory (RAM), CPU registers
B.CPU registers and cache, routing tables and network connections, system memory (RAM), hard disk storage
C.Hard disk image, system memory (RAM), network connections, running processes
D.System memory (RAM), hard disk storage, running processes, CPU registers
AnswerB

CPU registers and cache are the most volatile, followed by network connections/routing tables, system memory, and finally non-volatile hard disk storage.

Why this answer

When collecting volatile digital evidence, Order of Volatility dictates that analysts must capture data from the most volatile storage locations to the least volatile. RAM and CPU registers disappear upon power down, whereas disk storage persists. Therefore, network connections and running processes must be captured before system memory dumps, and physical disk storage is collected last.

318
Multi-Selecteasy

An enterprise is updating its email security controls to prevent phishing, credential harvesting, and spoofing attacks. Which THREE protocols and DNS records should be implemented and strictly enforced? (Choose THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) to cryptographically sign outbound emails and verify integrity.
B.Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) snooping for IP-to-MAC address allocation tracking.
C.Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) to specify handling policies for failed SPF/DKIM checks.
D.Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (uRPF) for IP routing packet verification on routers.
E.Sender Policy Framework (SPF) to define authorized sending mail servers for the domain.
AnswersA, C, E

DKIM adds cryptographic signatures to validate email integrity and sender domain.

Why this answer

Modern email authentication and hardening rely on Sender Policy Framework (SPF), DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM), and Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC).

319
Multi-Selectmedium

A security administrator is hardening Linux servers against local privilege escalation and unauthorized access. Which TWO of the following configurations should be implemented? (Choose TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Disabling SELinux or AppArmor enforcement
B.Setting a restrictive default umask (such as 027) in shell profiles
C.Configuring PermitRootLogin no in /etc/ssh/sshd_config
D.Enabling password authentication with zero minimum length in PAM
E.Mounting all filesystems with read-write and suid privileges
AnswersB, C

A strict umask ensures newly created files are not readable or writable by group and others by default.

Why this answer

Disabling root SSH login and enforcing strict file permissions (umask) are standard Linux hardening best practices.

320
MCQeasy

An organization's Security Operations Center (SOC) receives an alert regarding an unusual outbound connection to a known command-and-control (C2) IP address. According to the NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2 incident response lifecycle, which phase immediately follows the Containment, Eradication, and Recovery phase?

A.Preparation
B.Detection and Analysis
C.Post-Incident Activity
D.Threat Hunting
AnswerC

Post-Incident Activity (Lessons Learned) is the final phase, occurring after containment, eradication, and recovery to evaluate the response and improve future security.

Why this answer

According to NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2, the incident response lifecycle consists of four main phases: 1. Preparation, 2. Detection and Analysis, 3.

Containment, Eradication, and Recovery, and 4. Post-Incident Activity (Lessons Learned). Therefore, the phase immediately following Containment, Eradication, and Recovery is Post-Incident Activity.

321
MCQmedium

A network engineer is configuring an enterprise wireless network and wants to prevent clients from connecting to unauthorized rogue access points that broadcast the corporate SSID. Which client-side and infrastructure technology should be deployed?

A.Static WEP encryption keys
B.MAC address filtering on access points
C.Protected Management Frames (PMF / 802.11w)
D.Disabling SSID broadcast (closed network)
AnswerC

PMF (802.11w) protects wireless management frames such as deauthentication and disassociation frames against spoofing and rogue attacks.

Why this answer

802.11r (Fast BSS Transition) along with WIPS and 802.1X authentication helps secure connections, but specific rogue AP countermeasures involve infrastructure-generated deauthentication frames and client protection profiles.

322
MCQmedium

An organization is conducting a security audit of its wireless network infrastructure. The auditor verifies that WPA3-Enterprise is deployed with Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol (PEAP). Which governance objective is primarily achieved by this configuration?

A.Strong mutual authentication and cryptographic protection of wireless user sessions
B.Automated patching of endpoint operating system kernels
C.Prevention of physical layer cable tapping and electromagnetic emissions
D.Enforcement of BGP route validation and origin autonomy
AnswerA

Enterprise wireless authentication prevents rogue access points and eavesdropping.

Why this answer

WPA3-Enterprise with 192-bit security and robust authentication ensures strong mutual authentication and encryption, satisfying enterprise access control governance.

323
MCQhard

An organization is implementing enterprise wireless security using WPA3-Enterprise. To ensure maximum cryptographic strength and protection against downgrade attacks, which security mode and key derivation function must be enforced?

A.WPA2-Enterprise with AES-CCMP and TKIP fallback
B.Enhanced Open (OWE) with opportunistic encryption
C.WPA3-Enterprise 192-bit mode (Suite B compliance)
D.WPA3-Personal with SAE and transition mode enabled
AnswerC

WPA3-Enterprise 192-bit mode enforces robust cryptography such as 384-bit hash functions and 256-bit encryption for high-security environments.

Why this answer

WPA3-Enterprise 192-bit mode enforces Suite B cryptographic algorithms, including a 192-bit CNSA security suite, SHA-384, and GCMP-256.

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