Courseiva

CCNA Network Incidents Questions

38 questions · Network Incidents topic · All types, answers revealed

1
MCQhard

During a network incident, you observe that an internal host is communicating with an external IP address on TCP port 8080. The traffic is HTTP and contains periodic GET requests to '/update.php' with a custom User-Agent string 'Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 10.0; Win64; x64) AppleWebKit/537.36' but the response body is encrypted binary data. You suspect this is command-and-control (C2) communication. Which network forensic artifact would most directly reveal the C2 protocol structure and commands being sent?

A.The HTTP request headers and URI parameters in the packet capture.
B.The decrypted payload of the HTTP response body after applying the malware's decryption routine.
C.The DNS queries made by the host to resolve the external IP address.
D.The TCP sequence numbers and window sizes in the packet capture.
AnswerB

The response body is encrypted binary data, which likely contains the actual C2 commands. To understand the protocol structure and extract commands, you must decrypt the payload using the malware's decryption algorithm. This requires reverse engineering the malware or knowing the key. Once decrypted, the structure and commands become visible, providing direct insight into the C2 communication.

Why this answer

The correct answer is to decrypt the HTTP response body using the malware's decryption routine. Since the C2 commands are transmitted in an encrypted binary payload, only decryption can reveal the protocol structure and commands. Other artifacts like headers, TCP metadata, or DNS queries do not contain the encrypted command data and thus cannot provide the necessary insight.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on easily visible HTTP headers or metadata, which may show the C2 server but not the encrypted commands that define the protocol.

2
MCQhard

During a network incident, your IDS alerts on a series of TCP packets with the SYN flag set and a source IP of 10.20.5.14, but packet captures on the internal switch show that the actual Ethernet source MAC address belongs to a workstation in the finance VLAN, while the IP 10.20.5.14 is assigned to a server in the DMZ. The workstation's ARP cache lists the DMZ server's IP as being at the workstation's own MAC address. Which network-based attack technique is the workstation most likely performing?

A.MAC flooding
B.ARP cache poisoning
C.VLAN hopping
D.DHCP starvation
AnswerB

The workstation is sending forged ARP replies to associate the DMZ server's IP with its own MAC address, causing traffic destined for the server to be redirected to the attacker. The mismatch between the Ethernet source MAC and the IP source in captured packets confirms this Layer 2 redirection, which is the defining behavior of ARP cache poisoning in a switched network.

Why this answer

The workstation is poisoning ARP caches to redirect traffic intended for the DMZ server to itself. The telltale sign is that the Ethernet source MAC belongs to the finance workstation while the IP source is the DMZ server's address, and the workstation's ARP cache incorrectly maps that IP to its own MAC. This man-in-the-middle positioning allows the attacker to intercept or alter traffic before forwarding it.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing ARP cache poisoning with MAC flooding, because both manipulate Layer 2 addressing; the distinguishing evidence is that ARP poisoning creates specific IP-to-MAC mismatches, whereas MAC flooding overwhelms the switch CAM table.

3
MCQhard

During network forensics, you need to reconstruct an HTTP file transfer from a PCAP. Which Wireshark feature allows you to extract the file object directly from the stream?

A.Statistics > HTTP > Reassemble
B.File > Export Objects > HTTP
C.Edit > Follow > Stream Extract
D.Analyze > Extract File
AnswerB

Export Objects reconstructs transferred files by reassembling the HTTP response body from the TCP stream, giving the analyst the original object. This directly satisfies the requirement to extract a file from a PCAP without manually following and decoding each stream.

Why this answer

Wireshark's File > Export Objects > HTTP feature reconstructs and extracts files transferred over HTTP by reassembling TCP streams and parsing HTTP headers (Content-Type, Content-Length, Content-Disposition). It presents a list of all objects seen in the capture and allows saving them directly to disk, which is the standard method for recovering files from a PCAP during network forensics.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates know the exact Wireshark menu path for object extraction, and candidates confuse 'Follow TCP Stream' (which displays but doesn't save files) with 'Export Objects' (which reconstructs and saves files).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because there is no 'Statistics > HTTP > Reassemble' menu path in Wireshark; Statistics > HTTP shows request/response statistics, not file extraction. Option C is wrong because 'Edit > Follow > Stream Extract' does not exist — Follow TCP Stream is under Analyze, and it displays stream content but does not extract file objects. Option D is wrong because 'Analyze > Extract File' is not a Wireshark feature; file extraction is done via Export Objects.

4
Multi-Selectmedium

A network incident responder is analyzing a suspected ARP poisoning attack on a local subnet. Which two indicators would most likely be observed in the network traffic or ARP cache? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Frequent ICMP redirect messages from the default gateway
B.A sudden increase in DNS query failures
C.A high volume of TCP SYN packets from a single host
D.Gratuitous ARP replies claiming an IP address already in use
E.Multiple IP addresses mapped to the same MAC address in the ARP cache
AnswersD, E

Gratuitous ARP replies are sent without a request to update ARP caches. In ARP poisoning, the attacker sends gratuitous ARP replies to overwrite legitimate entries, claiming that their MAC address corresponds to an IP like the gateway. This is a direct indicator of ARP spoofing and is often observed in packet captures.

Why this answer

ARP poisoning involves manipulating ARP caches to redirect traffic. Two key indicators are multiple IP addresses mapping to the same MAC address (often the attacker's) and gratuitous ARP replies that overwrite legitimate mappings. These directly reflect the attack mechanism.

Other indicators like DNS failures, ICMP redirects, or TCP SYN floods are not specific to ARP poisoning and would mislead the investigation.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing ARP poisoning with other network attacks like DNS or TCP-based attacks, and overlooking the layer 2 specifics of ARP cache manipulation.

5
MCQeasy

When segmenting a network to contain an incident, what is the best practice for a 'Jump Server' in a DMZ to limit the attack surface?

A.Whitelisting source IPs that can access the jump server
B.Enabling telnet for administrative flexibility
C.Disabling all logging to save space
D.Assigning the jump server a public IP address
AnswerA

Whitelisting permitted source IP addresses on the jump server ensures only authorised administrative hosts can initiate connections, sharply reducing exposed services in the DMZ. This directly limits the attack surface, satisfying the stem's segmentation best-practise requirement for containing an incident.

Why this answer

Restricting access to the jump server to only known source IPs significantly reduces the risk of unauthorized access.

6
MCQeasy

An incident responder notices that a workstation is communicating with an external IP address on port 4444, and the traffic is encrypted. The workstation's user reports that the computer is running slowly. Which type of network incident is most likely indicated?

A.Peer-to-peer file sharing
B.Command and control (C2) communication
C.Legitimate remote desktop access
D.DNS tunneling
AnswerB

Port 4444 is commonly associated with Metasploit and other penetration testing tools, and encrypted traffic to an external IP on this port is a strong indicator of command and control communication. The slow performance could be due to the malware's activities, such as data exfiltration or resource consumption. This combination of factors points to a compromised host communicating with an attacker-controlled server.

Why this answer

The workstation is communicating with an external IP on port 4444 with encrypted traffic, and the user reports slow performance. Port 4444 is a default port for Metasploit and other attack tools, and encrypted C2 channels are common in malware. The slow performance could be due to the malware's operations.

This is a classic sign of a compromised host under command and control.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that encrypted traffic on a non-standard port is always benign or that slow performance is unrelated to network activity.

7
MCQhard

You are using NetFlow to identify lateral movement. You see a high volume of connections from a web server to an internal database server on port 3306. What is the most appropriate next step in the investigation?

A.Examine the process list on the web server to identify the source of the connection
B.Reset the database server credentials
C.Block the web server access entirely
D.Increase the flow timeout settings
AnswerA

Examining the web server's process list identifies which executable initiated the MySQL connections, distinguishing legitimate application traffic from attacker tooling. NetFlow alone confirms volume and endpoints but not the originating process, so this step satisfies the need to attribute the port 3306 traffic before escalating or containing.

Why this answer

A high volume of connections from a web server to an internal database on port 3306 is suspicious because web servers typically connect to databases, but a sudden spike or unusual pattern may indicate lateral movement or data exfiltration. The most appropriate next step is to examine the process list on the web server to identify which process is initiating the connections — this could reveal a compromised web application, a malicious script, or an attacker's tool. This action is non-disruptive and directly identifies the source.

Exam trap

The trap is jumping to remediation (blocking, resetting credentials) instead of investigation — the exam tests whether you follow the incident response process of identification before containment, and whether you know that NetFlow alone cannot identify the process, requiring host-level analysis.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because resetting database credentials is a disruptive remediation step that should only be taken after confirming a breach; it does not help identify the cause and may break legitimate applications. Option C is wrong because blocking the web server entirely is a drastic containment measure that could cause an outage; it should be a last resort after investigation, not the next step. Option D is wrong because increasing flow timeout settings only affects how long NetFlow records are aggregated; it does not help identify the source of the connections and is irrelevant to the investigation.

8
MCQhard

During a network incident, you observe a large volume of ARP replies from a single MAC address claiming to be the default gateway. Which containment action should you take first to mitigate the immediate threat while preserving evidence for forensic analysis?

A.Shut down the switch port where the malicious MAC address is connected
B.Capture network traffic and ARP tables, then isolate the affected VLAN
C.Configure a static ARP entry for the default gateway on critical hosts
D.Enable Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) on all access ports
AnswerB

Capturing network traffic and ARP tables preserves volatile evidence such as the attacker's MAC address, IP, and the frequency of spoofed ARP replies. Isolating the affected VLAN (e.g., by moving it to a quarantine VLAN or applying an ACL) contains the threat by preventing the attacker from reaching other segments, while still allowing forensic investigation. This approach balances immediate mitigation with evidence preservation, which is critical for incident response.

Why this answer

The immediate threat is ARP spoofing, which can lead to man-in-the-middle attacks. The best first action is to capture volatile evidence (network traffic, ARP caches) before taking containment steps, then isolate the affected VLAN to prevent lateral movement. This preserves forensic artifacts while stopping the attack from spreading.

Other options either disrupt evidence, are not immediate, or do not contain the threat at the network level.

Exam trap

The trap here is opting for a quick technical fix like shutting down a port or enabling DAI, which may destroy evidence or cause collateral damage, instead of prioritizing evidence capture followed by network isolation.

9
MCQeasy

A network incident responder is analyzing a packet capture and notices a large number of TCP SYN packets sent from various source IP addresses to a single destination IP address on port 80, but no corresponding SYN-ACK packets. The destination server is unresponsive. Which type of network incident is most likely occurring?

A.A SYN flood denial-of-service attack.
B.A brute-force attack against a web application.
C.A distributed denial-of-service attack using UDP amplification.
D.A port scan using TCP SYN packets.
AnswerA

The pattern of many SYN packets to a single destination without SYN-ACK responses is classic for a SYN flood. The attacker sends numerous SYN requests, exhausting the server's connection table, causing it to become unresponsive. The lack of SYN-ACKs indicates the server is overwhelmed or the source IPs are spoofed. This is a denial-of-service attack aimed at making the service unavailable.

Why this answer

The correct answer is a SYN flood denial-of-service attack. The key indicators are the high volume of TCP SYN packets to a single destination port, the absence of SYN-ACK responses, and the server becoming unresponsive. This exhausts the server's resources, preventing legitimate connections.

Other options like port scanning, brute-forcing, or UDP amplification do not match the observed TCP SYN pattern and lack of responses.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing a SYN flood with a port scan because both use SYN packets, but a port scan targets multiple ports and expects responses, while a SYN flood targets one service and overwhelms it.

10
MCQmedium

During a network incident, you observe a compromised host repeatedly connecting to an external IP on TCP port 443. The traffic is encrypted, but the connection duration is unusually short and the bytes transferred are small and consistent. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for this traffic pattern?

A.The host is downloading a large file over HTTPS.
B.The host is performing a vulnerability scan against the external IP.
C.The host is using a peer-to-peer file sharing application.
D.The host is communicating with a command-and-control server using HTTPS beaconing.
AnswerD

Short, periodic connections to an external IP on TCP port 443 with small, consistent data transfers are characteristic of beaconing behavior. Malware often uses HTTPS to blend in with normal traffic, and the regular intervals and small payloads are designed to check for commands without attracting attention. This pattern strongly suggests command-and-control communication.

Why this answer

The correct answer is the one describing command-and-control beaconing. The scenario describes short, periodic connections with small, consistent data transfers to an external IP on TCP port 443. This is a classic indicator of malware beaconing, where the compromised host checks in with a C2 server at regular intervals.

The use of HTTPS helps the traffic evade detection by blending with legitimate encrypted traffic.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any encrypted traffic on port 443 is benign web browsing, when in fact attackers frequently use HTTPS for command-and-control to evade detection.

11
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following characterize potential lateral movement using RDP in a domain environment?

Select 3 answers
A.Unusual use of NTLM for RDP authentication
B.Increased usage of SNMP
C.High volume of HTTPS traffic
D.Usage of 'mstsc.exe' with unusual command-line flags
E.Unexpected RDP logins from workstations to servers
AnswersA, D, E

RDP normally negotiates Kerberos in a domain, so NTLM authentication indicates fallback credentials, misconfiguration or an attacker lacking a valid ticket. This deviation from expected Kerberos behaviour is the anomaly that signals possible lateral movement.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because in a domain environment RDP authentication normally uses Kerberos, so a shift to NTLM for RDP (e.g., via Restricted Admin mode or credential-based attacks) is a strong indicator of lateral movement attempts. Option D is correct because mstsc.exe is the native RDP client, and its use with unusual flags (such as /admin, /restrictedAdmin, or /v to non-standard hosts) can signal an attacker pivoting between systems. Option E is correct because RDP logins originating from workstations to servers are atypical in most domain environments, where administrative RDP typically flows from jump hosts or management stations, making such connections a hallmark of lateral movement.

Option B is incorrect because SNMP is a network management protocol unrelated to RDP session behavior. Option C is incorrect because HTTPS traffic is encrypted web traffic and does not characterize RDP-based lateral movement.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates can distinguish RDP-specific lateral movement indicators from generic network noise — picking SNMP or HTTPS volume is the common error because they sound like traffic anomalies.

12
MCQmedium

A security analyst is reviewing a packet capture from a suspected compromised workstation. The analyst notices a series of DNS queries for random-looking subdomains such as 'a1b2c3d4.evil.com', 'e5f6g7h8.evil.com', and 'i9j0k1l2.evil.com'. Each query is followed by a TXT record response containing long base64-encoded strings. The analyst suspects data exfiltration. Which network forensic technique would best confirm and extract the exfiltrated data from this traffic?

A.Use a DNS sinkhole to redirect the malicious domain to a controlled server and observe subsequent connections.
B.Reconstruct the DNS TXT record responses and decode the base64 payloads to recover the exfiltrated data.
C.Analyze the frequency and timing of DNS queries to determine if they match a known exfiltration pattern.
D.Correlate the DNS queries with NetFlow records to identify the volume of data transferred.
AnswerB

This approach directly targets the suspected exfiltration channel. By reassembling the TXT record responses and decoding the base64 content, the analyst can extract the actual data being sent out. It leverages the fact that DNS TXT records can carry arbitrary data, and the base64 encoding suggests deliberate obfuscation. This method is precise and provides evidence of the exfiltrated content.

Why this answer

The correct answer is to reconstruct the DNS TXT record responses and decode the base64 payloads. DNS tunneling for data exfiltration often uses TXT records to carry encoded data. By extracting and decoding these records from the packet capture, the analyst can recover the exfiltrated information and confirm the incident.

Other methods either do not extract data or are not forensic analysis techniques for existing captures.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any DNS analysis technique can extract data, when only payload reassembly and decoding reveals the exfiltrated content.

13
MCQeasy

What is the purpose of 'Network Segmentation' during an active network incident?

A.Eliminating the need for firewalls
B.Automatic removal of malware
C.Containment of the attack by limiting communication paths
D.Increasing network throughput
AnswerC

Segmentation splits the network into isolated zones through VLANs, ACLs or firewall policies, restricting lateral movement so the attacker cannot reach other systems. This directly delivers containment during an active incident by cutting communication paths, rather than merely detecting or documenting the intrusion.

Why this answer

Network segmentation during an active incident isolates affected segments from the rest of the environment, limiting the attacker's ability to move laterally, exfiltrate data, or reach command-and-control infrastructure. By restricting communication paths (via VLANs, ACLs, firewall rules, or microsegmentation), responders contain the blast radius while preserving critical business traffic. This is a core containment tactic in incident response frameworks like NIST SP 800-61.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates confuse containment with eradication or prevention — the trap is picking an answer that describes removing malware or replacing firewalls instead of the specific goal of limiting attacker movement during an active incident.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because segmentation does not eliminate the need for firewalls — it typically relies on firewalls, ACLs, and routing controls to enforce the boundaries. Option B is wrong because segmentation does not remove malware; it only limits its spread, and eradication still requires endpoint remediation. Option D is wrong because segmentation generally reduces or does not affect throughput — its purpose is security containment, not performance improvement.

14
Multi-Selectmedium

A network incident has been declared due to a suspected data exfiltration. You are reviewing network flow data to identify the exfiltration channel. Which TWO of the following characteristics are most indicative of data exfiltration over a covert channel? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.High volume of inbound traffic from multiple external IPs
B.Regular, small outbound DNS queries to a single external domain
C.Outbound traffic to a known patch management server
D.Large outbound data transfers to an external IP during non-business hours
E.Inbound email with large attachments from an unknown sender
AnswersB, D

Regular, small DNS queries to a single external domain can indicate DNS tunneling for data exfiltration. Attackers encode data in DNS queries and responses, often at regular intervals to avoid detection. The small size and regularity are designed to blend with normal DNS traffic. Incident handlers should analyze the DNS query patterns and payload sizes for anomalies.

Why this answer

Data exfiltration over covert channels often manifests as large outbound transfers during off-hours or as regular, small DNS queries to a single external domain, which may indicate DNS tunneling. Both patterns deviate from normal business traffic and are designed to avoid detection. Incident handlers should prioritize these anomalies when analyzing flow data to identify the exfiltration channel.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing inbound malicious traffic, such as phishing emails or DDoS, with outbound data exfiltration indicators.

15
MCQmedium

A security analyst is reviewing network traffic and observes a high volume of TCP SYN packets from various spoofed source IP addresses to a single destination server, with no corresponding SYN-ACK replies. The server's connection table is nearly full. Which type of network incident is most likely occurring?

A.UDP amplification attack
B.DNS tunneling
C.TCP SYN flood
D.Smurf attack
AnswerC

A TCP SYN flood sends numerous SYN packets with spoofed source addresses to a target, causing the server to allocate resources for half-open connections. The server's connection table fills up, preventing legitimate connections. The observed high volume of SYNs without SYN-ACK replies and the full connection table are classic indicators of a SYN flood.

Why this answer

The scenario describes a high volume of TCP SYN packets from spoofed sources to a single server, with no SYN-ACK replies and a nearly full connection table. This matches the behavior of a TCP SYN flood, where the attacker exhausts the server's resources by initiating many half-open connections. Other attacks like UDP amplification, Smurf, or DNS tunneling do not produce this specific pattern.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any flood of packets is a UDP-based attack, overlooking the TCP-specific indicators like SYN packets and connection table exhaustion.

16
MCQmedium

When reviewing firewall logs, you see many 'deny' events from an internal host to an external IP. What is the most likely cause?

A.IP address conflict
B.Normal user browsing activity
C.Hardware failure on the firewall
D.Malware attempting to reach a C2 server
AnswerD

Repeated deny events from one internal host toward a single external IP indicate beaconing behaviour typical of malware contacting its command-and-control server. The firewall blocks each attempt, satisfying the stem's scenario of many denies to an external address.

Why this answer

Internal hosts attempting to reach external IPs blocked by the egress policy are a common indicator of a malware beaconing attempt or an infected host trying to reach a C2.

17
MCQeasy

You are identifying a compromised host by checking for beaconing behavior. Which network metric is most indicative of heartbeat-style beaconing?

A.High-speed connection speed
B.Consistent interval between connections
C.Use of HTTPS
D.Randomized packet size
AnswerB

Consistent interval between connections exposes the periodic timing that heartbeat-style beaconing depends on: malware must check in at regular intervals to receive commands. This regularity distinguishes it from bursty legitimate traffic, satisfying the stem's requirement for the metric most indicative of beaconing behaviour.

Why this answer

Heartbeat-style beaconing is characterized by malware 'calling home' at regular, predictable intervals (e.g., every 60 seconds) to receive commands or exfiltrate data. This consistent timing creates a recognizable pattern in network flow data that distinguishes C2 traffic from normal user-driven traffic, which is bursty and irregular. Connection speed, encryption, and packet size can all be manipulated or are common in legitimate traffic, so they are far weaker indicators.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing beaconing indicators with general malicious traffic characteristics — candidates often pick encryption (HTTPS) or packet size because those 'feel' suspicious, but the exam is testing whether you know that timing regularity is the defining signature of heartbeat beaconing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because high-speed connection speed is a normal characteristic of legitimate traffic and does not indicate malicious beaconing; malware often uses slow, low-profile connections to avoid detection. Option C is wrong because HTTPS is used by the vast majority of legitimate web traffic and is not by itself indicative of beaconing — attackers may use it, but so does everyone else. Option D is wrong because randomized packet size is actually an evasion technique that obscures patterns; beaconing is detected by timing regularity, not packet size variation.

18
MCQmedium

An attacker is using ICMP tunneling to exfiltrate data. What field in an ICMP echo request packet would contain the unauthorized data?

A.Checksum field
B.Data field
C.Sequence number
D.TTL field
AnswerB

ICMP echo requests carry arbitrary payload in the data field, which tunnelling tools abuse to smuggle exfiltrated content inside packets that firewalls often permit. The type, code and checksum fields hold fixed protocol values and cannot carry the unauthorised data.

Why this answer

In ICMP tunneling, attackers encapsulate data within the payload of ICMP echo request packets, which is the Data field. This field can carry arbitrary data, allowing covert exfiltration. The other fields are used for control and routing, not for carrying variable payloads.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming that control fields like checksum or sequence number can carry data, when only the Data field has variable payload capacity.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Checksum field is used for error detection, not for carrying data. Option C is wrong because the Sequence number is used to match echo requests with replies, not for data transport. Option D is wrong because the TTL field limits packet lifetime and is not used for data payload.

19
MCQmedium

A security analyst is reviewing firewall logs and notices a large number of 'deny' events from an internal host to various external IP addresses on different ports. The internal host is a user workstation that should only access a limited set of external services. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of these deny events?

A.The workstation's firewall rules are misconfigured, blocking legitimate traffic.
B.The workstation is attempting to update its software from multiple sources.
C.The workstation is infected with malware performing port scanning.
D.The workstation is running a legitimate peer-to-peer application.
AnswerC

A large number of deny events from an internal host to various external IPs on different ports is indicative of port scanning activity. Malware often performs port scanning to discover vulnerable services on remote hosts. Since the workstation should only access a limited set of services, this behavior is anomalous and suggests compromise. The deny events are the firewall blocking the unauthorized scanning attempts.

Why this answer

The correct answer is malware performing port scanning. The workstation, which should only access a limited set of services, is generating a large number of deny events to various external IPs on different ports. This is a classic sign of port scanning, often performed by malware to find vulnerable targets.

The firewall is blocking these unauthorized attempts, resulting in the deny events.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that deny events are always due to misconfigured firewall rules, when they can actually indicate malicious scanning activity from a compromised host.

20
MCQmedium

Which technique should an incident responder use to prevent an infected host from spreading ransomware via SMB to other segments in the network?

A.Disable DNS resolution on the host
B.Enable DHCP snooping
C.Flush the ARP cache
D.Implement ACLs to block TCP 445 between segments
AnswerD

SMB ransomware propagation uses TCP 445, so ACLs blocking that port between segments halt lateral spread while leaving other traffic intact. This directly satisfies the containment constraint by severing the specific channel the infected host exploits.

Why this answer

Blocking TCP 445 (SMB) at the boundary between network segments is the most effective way to stop worm-like lateral movement.

21
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are common signs of a compromised switch in a local area network?

Select 2 answers
A.Unrecognized trunk ports enabled
B.Normal spanning-tree convergence
C.Decreased CPU usage on the switch
D.Unexpected MAC address table growth (MAC flooding)
E.Stable port security status
AnswersA, D

Trunk ports carry traffic for multiple VLANs, so an unrecognised trunk enabled on an access switch lets an attacker reach other VLANs, bypassing segmentation. This unauthorised configuration change is a strong indicator that the switch has been compromised.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because an unrecognized or unauthorized trunk port enabled on a switch is a classic indicator of compromise—attackers configure trunk links (e.g., 802.1Q) to carry traffic for multiple VLANs and perform VLAN hopping or intercept traffic that should remain segmented. Option D is correct because unexpected MAC address table growth indicates MAC flooding, where an attacker overwhelms the switch's CAM table with spoofed source MACs, forcing it into fail-open hub behavior so traffic is flooded to all ports for sniffing. The unmarked options do not belong: normal spanning-tree convergence (B) is expected healthy behavior, decreased CPU usage (C) is not a compromise sign (attacks typically raise CPU load), and a stable port security status (E) reflects normal, secure operation rather than an indicator of compromise.

22
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are key components of a network-based containment strategy?

Select 3 answers
A.Isolation of the compromised segment from the rest of the network
B.Forced termination of active sessions
C.Implementation of egress filtering at the perimeter
D.Increasing the DHCP lease time
E.Installing new hardware across the network
AnswersA, B, C

Isolation severs the compromised segment's Layer 2 and Layer 3 connectivity, preventing lateral movement to healthy subnets while the incident is investigated. This directly satisfies the containment requirement by limiting blast radius, and is a recognised key component alongside traffic filtering and endpoint quarantine in network-based containment strategies.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because isolating the compromised network segment (for example, by moving it to a quarantine VLAN or applying ACLs on the switch/router) prevents lateral movement of the attacker to other hosts while containment is underway. Option B is correct because forcibly terminating active sessions (resetting TCP connections, killing authenticated sessions, or invalidating tokens) cuts off the attacker's existing foothold and command-and-control channels. Option C is correct because egress filtering at the perimeter blocks outbound traffic to known malicious IPs/domains, stopping data exfiltration and C2 callbacks, which is a core part of containing a network-based incident.

Option D is not a containment measure; extending DHCP lease times only affects address assignment duration and does nothing to stop an active intrusion. Option E is not a containment action either, since wholesale hardware replacement is a costly remediation/recovery step, not a strategy for limiting the spread of an ongoing network-based attack.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing containment with remediation or unrelated network management tasks; candidates might select options that seem helpful but do not directly limit the spread or impact of an active incident.

23
MCQeasy

A network administrator notices a sudden spike in ICMP echo requests from an internal host to an external IP address. The payload size of these ICMP packets is consistently larger than normal ping requests. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this activity?

A.The host is experiencing a denial-of-service attack from the external IP.
B.The host is using a legitimate application that relies on ICMP for keep-alive messages.
C.The host is infected with malware using ICMP tunneling for data exfiltration.
D.The host is performing a network performance test using ping.
AnswerC

ICMP tunneling involves encapsulating data within ICMP echo requests and replies, often using oversized payloads to carry stolen data. A sudden spike in ICMP traffic with consistently large payloads to an external IP is a strong indicator of this technique. Attackers use ICMP tunneling to bypass firewalls that allow ping, making it a stealthy exfiltration method.

Why this answer

The correct answer is malware using ICMP tunneling. The scenario describes a sudden spike in ICMP echo requests with consistently large payloads to an external IP, which is a classic sign of ICMP tunneling. Attackers use this technique to exfiltrate data by embedding it in ICMP packets, often bypassing firewall restrictions that allow ping.

This allows stealthy data transfer out of the network.

Exam trap

The trap here is dismissing large ICMP packets as normal ping traffic, when in fact attackers can abuse ICMP for covert data transfer.

24
MCQmedium

A security analyst is investigating lateral movement using PowerShell Remoting (WinRM). Which Windows Event Log should be prioritized to confirm the execution of remote commands?

A.Application Log
B.Security Log
C.System Log
D.Microsoft-Windows-PowerShell/Operational
AnswerD

PowerShell Remoting executes commands through the PowerShell engine, which writes script block and command invocation events to the Microsoft-Windows-PowerShell/Operational log. Event ID 4104 records the actual script content executed remotely, confirming command execution that WinRM transport logs alone cannot show.

Why this answer

The Microsoft-Windows-PowerShell/Operational log records detailed PowerShell activity, including remote command execution via WinRM (PowerShell Remoting). When an analyst runs Invoke-Command or Enter-PSSession against a remote host, the remote endpoint writes events such as Event ID 4103 (module logging) and 4104 (script block logging) to this log, providing the actual command content executed. The Security log records authentication (4624/4625) but not the payload of remote commands, making the PowerShell Operational log the priority source for confirming execution.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing authentication evidence (Security Log 4624/4648) with execution evidence, causing candidates to pick the Security Log when the question asks specifically about confirming remote command execution.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Application Log only captures events written by applications using the Windows Event Log API and does not record PowerShell script block or module activity. Option B is wrong because the Security Log captures logon events, process creation (4688), and object access, but not the actual PowerShell command text or script blocks executed remotely. Option C is wrong because the System Log records kernel, driver, and service events, not user-level PowerShell execution telemetry.

25
Multi-Selectmedium

A financial institution's SOC detects anomalous SMB traffic from a workstation to multiple servers, including attempts to access ADMIN$ shares. Which TWO of the following artifacts should an incident responder prioritize to confirm lateral movement via SMB? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Windows Security Event ID 5140 for network share access
B.Windows Security Event ID 4776 for credential validation
C.Windows Security Event ID 4688 with process name psexec.exe
D.Windows Security Event ID 4624 with Logon Type 3
E.Windows Security Event ID 5156 for Windows Filtering Platform connection
AnswersA, D

Event ID 5140 is generated when a network share is accessed. It records the share name, the account used, and the source IP address. In the context of suspected SMB lateral movement, a burst of 5140 events for administrative shares like ADMIN$ or C$ from a single workstation to multiple servers is a direct indicator of an attacker enumerating and accessing remote shares. This event provides concrete evidence of the lateral movement attempt.

Why this answer

To confirm SMB lateral movement, focus on events that show network logons and share access. Event ID 4624 with Logon Type 3 records network logons, which are used when connecting to SMB shares. Event ID 5140 logs access to network shares, including administrative shares.

Together, they provide evidence of an attacker using compromised credentials to access remote systems via SMB. Other events either lack specificity or do not directly indicate SMB share access.

Exam trap

The trap here is choosing process creation events like psexec.exe or credential validation events, which are often associated with lateral movement but do not specifically confirm SMB share access and network logon patterns.

26
MCQhard

A security analyst is investigating a suspected data exfiltration incident. The analyst reviews NetFlow records and notices a large outbound data transfer from an internal server to an external IP address over TCP port 53. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for this activity?

A.The server is using DNS tunneling to exfiltrate data.
B.The server is updating its DNS records dynamically.
C.The server is querying a large number of DNS records for a legitimate application.
D.The server is performing a legitimate DNS zone transfer.
AnswerA

DNS tunneling involves encoding data within DNS queries and responses, often using TCP port 53 for larger transfers. A large outbound data transfer to an external IP over TCP port 53 is a strong indicator of DNS tunneling, as legitimate DNS traffic is typically small and uses UDP. Attackers use this method to bypass firewalls that allow DNS traffic.

Why this answer

The correct answer is DNS tunneling. A large outbound data transfer over TCP port 53 from an internal server to an external IP is highly suspicious because normal DNS traffic is small and usually UDP-based. Attackers use DNS tunneling to encode stolen data in DNS queries, exploiting the fact that DNS is often allowed through firewalls.

This allows them to exfiltrate data stealthily.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any traffic on port 53 is benign DNS, overlooking that attackers can abuse DNS for tunneling and data exfiltration.

27
MCQmedium

During an investigation into lateral movement, you notice an unusual RDP connection from a workstation to a domain controller. Which Wireshark filter would be most effective in isolating only the RDP traffic associated with that specific source IP to identify potential credential dumping activity?

A.tcp.flags.syn == 1 && ip.src == 192.168.1.50
B.data.data == 3389
C.rdp.data && ip.dst == 192.168.1.50
D.tcp.port == 3389 && ip.src == 192.168.1.50
AnswerD

Combining tcp.port == 3389 with ip.src == 192.168.1.50 restricts capture to RDP sessions originating from the suspect workstation, filtering out unrelated port 3389 traffic. This isolates the lateral-movement flow toward the domain controller for credential-dumping analysis.

Why this answer

The filter 'tcp.port == 3389 && ip.src == 192.168.1.50' is correct because RDP operates over TCP port 3389, and the ip.src clause restricts capture to traffic originating from the specific workstation under investigation. This isolates the RDP session from that source to the domain controller, allowing the analyst to inspect the session for credential dumping artifacts or unusual keystroke patterns.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing source and destination IP filters or using non-existent display filters like 'rdp.data' — candidates must remember that RDP is TCP 3389 and that ip.src identifies the originating workstation, not the target server.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'tcp.flags.syn == 1 && ip.src == 192.168.1.50' captures only SYN packets from that source — it shows connection attempts but not the RDP session data needed to analyze credential dumping. Option B is wrong because 'data.data == 3389' matches payload bytes equal to 3389, which is not how RDP port filtering works and would miss the actual session traffic. Option C is wrong because 'rdp.data && ip.dst == 192.168.1.50' filters on destination IP (the workstation) rather than source, and the 'rdp.data' field is not a standard reliable Wireshark filter for isolating RDP sessions.

28
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are common network-based indicators of a compromised host attempting to perform network discovery?

Select 2 answers
A.Increase in DHCP release messages
B.High volume of TCP SYN packets to multiple ports
C.High volume of ARP requests to the entire subnet
D.Multiple HTTP 404 errors
E.Frequent DNS queries for internal hostnames
AnswersB, C

A high volume of TCP SYN packets across many ports indicates port scanning, the primary network-discovery technique. The half-open SYN sweep maps listening services without completing handshakes, directly satisfying the stem's requirement for a network-based indicator of discovery activity.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because a compromised host performing port scanning typically sends a high volume of TCP SYN packets to many ports on one or more targets, which is the classic signature of a SYN scan used for network discovery. Option C is correct because ARP scanning tools (e.g., arp-scan, nmap -PR) flood the local subnet with ARP requests to enumerate live hosts, producing a high volume of ARP traffic that is a common indicator of internal discovery activity. Option A is not a discovery indicator, since DHCP release messages simply relinquish an existing lease and are not associated with host enumeration.

Option D is unrelated, as HTTP 404 errors reflect web content requests rather than network discovery. Option E is not a network-based discovery indicator in the same sense, because DNS queries for internal hostnames are normal resolver behavior and do not by themselves indicate scanning or enumeration of the network.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates can distinguish network-layer discovery indicators (SYN scans, ARP sweeps) from application-layer noise (404s, DNS queries) — picking plausible but non-network indicators is the common mistake.

29
MCQmedium

During a network incident, you capture traffic and notice a workstation repeatedly sending TCP SYN packets to a single external IP on port 443, but the external host never responds. The workstation then sends the same SYN to a different external IP on port 443. Which network artifact best characterizes this behavior?

A.TCP session hijacking attempt
B.TCP SYN scan targeting a single port across multiple hosts
C.Slowloris denial-of-service attack
D.UDP flood denial-of-service attack
AnswerB

The repeated SYN packets to a single port on multiple external IPs, with no completed handshake, is classic TCP SYN scanning behavior. An incident handler identifies this as reconnaissance or an attempt to find an open service. The lack of response is expected because the scanner is probing many hosts, and the consistent destination port suggests a targeted service discovery.

Why this answer

The workstation is sending TCP SYN packets to a single port on multiple external IP addresses without completing the three-way handshake. This is characteristic of a TCP SYN scan, often used for reconnaissance to identify live hosts and open ports. The incident handler should recognize this as scanning activity, which may precede an attack and warrants further investigation.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that because the destination port is 443, the traffic is legitimate HTTPS and not a scan.

30
MCQeasy

A security analyst notices that an internal web server is receiving a large number of HTTP requests with unusually long and complex query strings, causing the server's CPU usage to spike. The requests appear to be targeting a search function. Which type of network incident is most likely occurring?

A.SQL injection
B.Cross-site scripting (XSS)
C.Directory traversal
D.HTTP flood
AnswerD

An HTTP flood is a type of denial-of-service attack where the attacker sends many HTTP requests to overwhelm the server. The requests often target resource-intensive functions like search, with complex query strings to maximize CPU usage. The observed CPU spike and high volume of requests to a search function are classic signs of an HTTP flood.

Why this answer

The scenario describes a high volume of HTTP requests with complex query strings targeting a search function, leading to CPU exhaustion. This matches an HTTP flood, a layer 7 denial-of-service attack that exploits resource-intensive operations. Other attacks like XSS, SQL injection, or directory traversal do not primarily cause CPU spikes through such requests.

Exam trap

The trap here is misinterpreting the complex query strings as an injection attack rather than recognizing the volumetric nature of a denial-of-service flood.

31
MCQhard

You suspect a DNS tunneling attack for data exfiltration. In your DNS server logs, which characteristic is the strongest indicator of a tunnel rather than standard recursive lookups?

A.High volume of A records
B.Requests for PTR records
C.Unusually long, high-entropy subdomains
D.Queries to root hints
AnswerC

DNS tunnelling encodes exfiltrated data into query names, producing subdomains far longer than legitimate hostnames and with high entropy from base64 or hex encoding. This pattern distinguishes tunnelling from normal recursive lookups, which resolve short, dictionary-like names.

Why this answer

DNS tunneling encodes data in the subdomain portion of DNS queries, and because DNS labels are limited to 63 characters, attackers pack them with long, random-looking (high-entropy) strings to maximize data throughput. Standard recursive lookups use short, human-readable domain names, so unusually long, high-entropy subdomains are the strongest indicator of a tunnel. Tools like iodine and dnscat2 produce exactly this pattern.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates confuse volume-based indicators with content-based indicators — the trap is picking 'high volume of A records' when the real signal is the entropy and length of the subdomain labels.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a high volume of A records is normal for busy recursive resolvers and CDNs — volume alone does not distinguish tunneling from legitimate traffic. Option B is wrong because PTR record requests are routine reverse-DNS lookups performed by mail servers, monitoring tools, and security scanners; they are not characteristic of tunneling. Option D is wrong because queries to root hints are a normal part of recursive resolution when a resolver starts cold or has an empty cache — they indicate standard DNS operation, not exfiltration.

32
MCQmedium

You are performing log correlation in a SIEM. You want to match Windows Event ID 4624 (Logon) with network traffic. Which field is the primary 'join key' to correlate the event with a specific network flow?

A.Source IP Address
B.Target Username
C.Process Name
D.Event Correlation ID
AnswerA

Event ID 4624 records the originating workstation's IP address in its network information fields. That address is the shared identifier matching the corresponding network flow records in the SIEM, letting the analyst join authentication events to specific traffic.

Why this answer

Source IP address is the common attribute between a Windows logon log and a network flow record.

33
MCQmedium

You are investigating a compromised Linux host. Using 'tcpdump' to capture traffic on interface eth0 to analyze C2 communication on port 443, which command is most efficient for saving the output to a file for later analysis in Wireshark?

A.tcpdump -c eth0 port 443
B.tcpdump -i eth0 port 443 > capture.txt
C.tcpdump -r capture.pcap port 443
D.tcpdump -i eth0 port 443 -w capture.pcap
AnswerD

The -w flag correctly writes the captured traffic to a file.

Why this answer

The -w flag is used in tcpdump to write raw packets to a .pcap file.

34
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following represent critical log sources that should be correlated when investigating a potential network-based exfiltration incident?

Select 3 answers
A.NTP server logs
B.DNS query logs for destination domain lookup
C.Print server logs
D.Firewall logs for denied/allowed outbound connections
E.NetFlow records for byte count analysis
AnswersB, D, E

DNS query logs reveal domain lookups made by internal hosts, exposing contact with command-and-control or exfiltration domains. Correlating them with flow and proxy logs identifies which host resolved a suspicious destination, a critical pivot during network exfiltration investigations.

Why this answer

DNS query logs (B) are critical because exfiltration often relies on DNS tunneling or resolving attacker-controlled domains, and these logs reveal the queried names, record types, and client IPs involved in the lookup. Firewall logs (D) are essential since they record allowed and denied outbound connections, showing which internal hosts attempted to reach external IPs and ports during the incident window. NetFlow records (E) provide flow-level metadata such as source/destination IPs, ports, protocol, and byte/packet counts, enabling analysts to spot abnormally large or long-duration outbound transfers indicative of data exfiltration.

NTP server logs (A) only show time synchronization activity and do not capture payload, connection, or transfer details relevant to exfiltration. Print server logs (C) relate to printing/spooling events and have no bearing on network-based data movement to external destinations.

35
Multi-Selectmedium

A financial institution's incident response team is investigating a suspected network intrusion. They observe anomalous traffic from an internal database server to an unknown external IP address. Which TWO of the following actions are appropriate for network-based containment in this scenario? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Block the external IP address at the perimeter firewall.
B.Run a full malware scan on the database server.
C.Disconnect the database server from the network immediately.
D.Shut down the database service to prevent further data leakage.
E.Apply an access control list (ACL) on the internal router to block traffic from the database server to the external IP.
AnswersA, E

Blocking the external IP at the perimeter firewall severs the connection to the suspected malicious endpoint, preventing further data exfiltration or command-and-control. This is a targeted containment measure that can be implemented quickly without disrupting the internal network. It also allows the responder to continue monitoring the internal server for other outbound connections.

Why this answer

Blocking the external IP at the firewall and applying an ACL on the internal router are both network-based containment actions that disrupt the malicious traffic while preserving the server's functionality and evidence. They are targeted and reversible, unlike disconnecting or shutting down the server, which cause unnecessary disruption.

Exam trap

The trap here is choosing overly disruptive actions like disconnecting or shutting down the server, which may halt the attack but at the cost of business continuity and evidence preservation.

36
MCQeasy

Which syslog facility would typically be configured on a network device to send audit logs to a central server?

A.kernel
B.local0
C.cron
D.mail
AnswerB

Network devices commonly use the local0 through local7 facilities for custom log destinations, since these are reserved for local use and avoid clashing with system facilities like auth or daemon. Configuring local0 lets the device forward audit logs to the central syslog server without conflicting with standard facility assignments.

Why this answer

Syslog facilities local0 through local7 are reserved for local or custom use, and network devices (routers, switches, firewalls) conventionally use local0 (or another local facility) to tag audit and event logs sent to a central syslog server. This lets administrators separate device-generated audit logs from system daemons like kernel, cron, or mail in the central collector's configuration. Using local0 ensures the logs are routed and stored according to the organization's audit retention policy.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates confuse syslog facilities with severity levels, or assume that 'kernel' or 'daemon' is the default for device logs — the trap is not knowing that local0–local7 are the designated custom-use facilities for network device audit forwarding.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the kernel facility is used by the operating system kernel for its own messages, not by network devices forwarding audit logs. Option C is wrong because the cron facility is reserved for the cron daemon's scheduling messages on Unix-like systems. Option D is wrong because the mail facility is used by mail transfer agents and related mail subsystems, not for network device audit logging.

37
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following steps are considered best practices when performing network forensics on a live environment?

Select 2 answers
A.Maintain a strict chain of custody for all PCAP files
B.Disable all logging to prioritize bandwidth
C.Capture traffic using a SPAN port or network tap
D.Reboot the network devices to clear the buffer
E.Modify the firewall rule to allow all traffic for analysis
AnswersA, C

A documented chain of custody records who handled each PCAP, when, and how, preserving evidential integrity so findings remain admissible. This satisfies the live-forensics requirement that collected packet captures be verifiable and untampered throughout investigation and any subsequent legal proceedings.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because maintaining a strict chain of custody for all PCAP files ensures that captured evidence remains admissible and its integrity is verifiable in legal or disciplinary proceedings, documenting who handled the files, when, and how. Option C is correct because capturing traffic via a SPAN port or a network tap provides a non-intrusive, passive copy of live traffic without disrupting production flows or altering the packets, which is essential for accurate forensic analysis. Options B, D, and E are not best practices: disabling logging destroys valuable evidence and does not meaningfully prioritize bandwidth, rebooting network devices clears volatile buffers and loses forensic artifacts, and modifying firewall rules to allow all traffic contaminates the environment and changes the very conditions being investigated.

Exam trap

The trap is selecting options that seem to 'help' analysis (like allowing all traffic or rebooting to clear buffers) but actually destroy evidence or violate forensic integrity — the exam tests whether you prioritize preservation and non-interference over convenience.

38
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are effective network forensics techniques for identifying an attacker's C2 server infrastructure?

Select 3 answers
A.Enabling SNMP on all edge hosts
B.Disabling ICMP echo responses
C.Reverse DNS (PTR) lookup of destination IPs
D.WHOIS registration data analysis
E.Threat intelligence reputation checks
AnswersC, D, E

Reverse DNS maps a destination IP back to a registered hostname via PTR records, often exposing provider-assigned names or compromised domains tied to C2 infrastructure. This satisfies the stem's identification goal by correlating observed traffic destinations with naming that direct forward lookups would miss.

Why this answer

Reverse DNS (PTR) lookup of destination IPs (C) is effective because resolving suspicious destination addresses to hostnames can reveal attacker-controlled domains, VPS providers, or naming patterns tied to C2 infrastructure. WHOIS registration data analysis (D) is effective because it exposes registrant details, registrar, creation dates, and name servers that can link multiple malicious domains or IP ranges to the same threat actor or campaign. Threat intelligence reputation checks (E) are effective because querying destination IPs/domains against feeds, sandboxes, and IOC databases can flag known C2 servers, malware families, or adversary infrastructure.

Enabling SNMP on all edge hosts (A) is not a forensics technique for identifying C2; it expands the attack surface and exposes device management data. Disabling ICMP echo responses (B) is a hardening/stealth measure, not an investigative method, and it does not reveal C2 endpoints.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates pick hardening or monitoring actions (SNMP, ICMP) instead of actual forensic pivoting techniques like PTR, WHOIS, and threat intel.

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