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CCNA Malware Incidents Questions

59 questions · Malware Incidents topic · All types, answers revealed

1
MCQmedium

A user reports their Windows 10 workstation is running very slowly and displaying unexpected pop-up ads in the browser. The incident handler suspects an adware infection. After isolating the machine, which Windows tool should the handler use to identify the malicious process consuming CPU and its associated network connections?

A.Resource Monitor
B.Task Manager
C.Performance Monitor
D.Event Viewer
AnswerA

Resource Monitor provides detailed real-time information about CPU, memory, disk, and network usage per process. It shows network connections and which process is using them, allowing the handler to identify the adware process and its communication. This is more comprehensive than Task Manager for correlating resource consumption with network activity, directly addressing the slow performance and pop-ups.

Why this answer

Resource Monitor offers a granular view of per-process resource utilization and network activity, enabling the handler to pinpoint the adware process causing high CPU usage and pop-ups. It shows which process is making network connections, which is critical for understanding the adware's behavior. Task Manager lacks network details, Event Viewer lacks real-time process data, and Performance Monitor is not designed for quick per-process network correlation.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that Task Manager provides sufficient network connection details to identify the malicious process, when it actually lacks per-process network mapping.

2
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are considered 'behavioral' indicators of a malware infection?

Select 3 answers
A.Unexplained outbound network connections to unknown IP addresses
B.A valid digital signature on a system file
C.High CPU utilization by an unknown background process
D.Frequent modifications to system-protected files
E.Presence of a file with a .txt extension
AnswersA, C, D

Unexplained outbound connections to unknown IP addresses indicate command-and-control beaconing or data exfiltration, a runtime behaviour rather than a static file signature. This makes it a behavioural indicator, distinguishing it from artefact-based detection such as file hashes or signatures.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because unexplained outbound network connections to unknown IP addresses are a behavioral indicator—they reflect the malware's runtime activity, such as command-and-control (C2) beaconing or data exfiltration, rather than a static artifact. Option C is correct because high CPU utilization by an unknown background process is behavioral: sustained resource consumption by an unrecognized process often signals cryptomining, worm propagation, or other malicious execution. Option D is correct because frequent modifications to system-protected files are behavioral, indicating ongoing tampering such as persistence mechanisms, rootkit installation, or system file replacement.

Option B does not belong because a valid digital signature on a system file is a static integrity attribute, not an observed behavior, and it actually suggests the file is legitimate. Option E does not belong because the mere presence of a .txt file is a static file attribute with no behavioral context and is not indicative of malware.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests the distinction between static artifacts (file extensions, signatures) and dynamic behaviors, and candidates mistakenly select static attributes as behavioral indicators.

3
MCQhard

You are reviewing logs from an EDR and see an indicator of 'Living off the Land' (LotL). Which tool usage would be considered an LotL attack?

A.Running a commercial vulnerability scanner
B.Installing a custom rootkit driver
C.Downloading an EXE from an unknown site
D.Executing encoded PowerShell scripts
AnswerD

Encoded PowerShell executes malicious instructions through a trusted, signed system binary, hiding intent in base64 and evading signature-based detection. This typifies Living off the Land, which abuses legitimate built-in tools rather than dropping custom malware, matching the EDR indicator described in the stem.

Why this answer

Using 'PowerShell.exe' to execute base64-encoded scripts directly from memory is a quintessential LotL technique.

4
MCQmedium

A healthcare organization's endpoint detection tool alerts on a workstation that is repeatedly connecting to a domain generated by a domain generation algorithm (DGA). The incident handler wants to proactively block future DGA domains before they are weaponized. Which containment strategy is most effective?

A.Add the specific DGA domain observed in the alert to the firewall's blocklist.
B.Disable outbound DNS traffic from all workstations except through an approved proxy.
C.Implement network segmentation to isolate the infected workstation from the rest of the network.
D.Configure the DNS resolver to block domains with high entropy and low reputation scores.
AnswerD

DGA domains are algorithmically generated and typically exhibit high entropy and poor reputation. Blocking such domains at the DNS resolver prevents resolution of future DGA domains without needing to know them in advance, effectively disrupting command-and-control communication. This is a proactive, scalable containment measure that does not rely on static blocklists and is appropriate for this scenario where the attacker rotates domains frequently.

Why this answer

DGA malware relies on generating many domain names to evade static blocklists. The most effective containment is to block domains based on characteristics like high entropy and low reputation at the DNS resolver, which can preemptively stop resolution of future DGA domains. This proactive approach disrupts C2 communication without requiring knowledge of specific domains.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that adding the observed DGA domain to a blocklist is sufficient, when in fact DGA generates many domains and only dynamic, behavior-based blocking can be effective.

5
MCQeasy

A user reports that their Windows 10 workstation is displaying a message claiming that all files have been encrypted and demanding payment in Bitcoin. The incident handler suspects ransomware. Which immediate action should the handler take first to prevent further encryption?

A.Restore the workstation from the most recent backup.
B.Disconnect the workstation from the network.
C.Run a full antivirus scan on the workstation.
D.Pay the ransom to obtain the decryption key.
AnswerB

Disconnecting the workstation from the network immediately stops the ransomware from communicating with its C2 server and prevents it from encrypting files on network shares or spreading to other systems. This is the first containment step to limit the scope of the incident. It also preserves the state for forensic analysis and potential decryption.

Why this answer

The immediate priority in a ransomware incident is to contain the threat by disconnecting the infected system from the network. This prevents further encryption of local and network files, stops communication with command-and-control servers, and limits lateral movement. Other actions like antivirus scans or restoration should follow after containment.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that running antivirus or restoring backups is the first step, when in fact network isolation is critical to prevent the ransomware from spreading and causing more damage.

6
Multi-Selecthard

During a malware incident investigation, you observe a Windows host establishing periodic outbound HTTPS connections to an unknown IP address every 60 seconds, with small, uniform packet sizes. Which two characteristics most strongly indicate this is command-and-control (C2) beaconing rather than legitimate traffic? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The host has a valid digital certificate for the destination domain.
B.The connections occur at regular, fixed intervals with consistent timing.
C.The traffic uses HTTPS on port 443 to blend with normal web traffic.
D.The packet payload sizes are small and uniform across each connection.
E.The destination IP address belongs to a cloud hosting provider.
AnswersB, D

Fixed-interval connections with low jitter are a hallmark of automated beaconing, where malware sleeps for a set period before checking in with its C2 server. Legitimate applications typically exhibit variable timing driven by user activity or event-driven updates. Consistent periodicity, especially combined with other anomalies, strongly supports a C2 beaconing determination during network forensic analysis.

Why this answer

C2 beaconing is characterized by automated, periodic check-ins with consistent timing and small, uniform payloads. These behavioral patterns reflect the malware's sleep-and-callback logic rather than user-driven traffic. Neither the use of HTTPS, the cloud hosting provider, nor the presence of a valid certificate distinguishes malicious beaconing from legitimate encrypted web traffic, so those characteristics must not be treated as indicators on their own.

Exam trap

The trap here is treating encrypted HTTPS traffic or cloud-hosted destinations as inherently malicious, when those are common traits of legitimate services and only timing and payload consistency reveal beaconing behavior.

7
MCQhard

You are analyzing a malware sample that uses 'API Hooking'. What is the goal of this technique?

A.Increasing CPU priority
B.Bypassing network authentication
C.Interception and manipulation of system calls
D.Preventing the system from hibernating
AnswerC

API hooking intercepts calls to system or library functions and redirects them to attacker-controlled code, letting malware hide files, registry keys or network activity while returning fabricated results. This manipulation of system calls defeats monitoring tools that rely on those APIs.

Why this answer

API hooking is a technique where malware intercepts calls to system or library functions (APIs) by redirecting execution to attacker-controlled code, allowing it to monitor, modify, or block the original function's behavior. The goal is interception and manipulation of system calls — for example, hiding files, suppressing AV alerts, or stealing credentials passed to APIs. This is a core evasion and data-theft mechanism.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates understand that API hooking is about intercepting and altering function calls — not about performance, networking, or power management, which are the obvious throwaway distractors.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because increasing CPU priority is a scheduling manipulation (e.g., SetPriorityClass) unrelated to hooking APIs. Option B is wrong because bypassing network authentication involves credential theft or protocol exploitation, not API interception. Option D is wrong because preventing hibernation is a power-management setting with no relationship to API hooking.

8
MCQmedium

You have identified a malicious DLL that is being loaded by a legitimate process. Which tool allows you to view which DLLs are loaded by a specific process?

A.Task Scheduler
B.Disk Cleanup
C.Device Manager
D.Process Explorer
AnswerD

Process Explorer displays a process's loaded modules, including the DLL path, version and digital signature, directly satisfying the requirement to identify which DLLs a legitimate process has loaded. Its lower pane lists all DLLs and memory-mapped files, exposing the malicious DLL's location for removal or analysis.

Why this answer

Process Explorer's lower pane (when configured for DLLs) provides a clear list of all loaded modules/DLLs for any selected process.

9
MCQhard

You are analyzing a malware sample that uses Domain Generation Algorithms (DGA). What is the primary purpose of DGA in malware?

A.Evading static C2 blocklists
B.Spreading via local network shares
C.Encrypting the malware payload
D.Hiding processes from Task Manager
AnswerA

DGA generates large volumes of pseudo-random domain names, so the malware cycles through many candidates until one resolves to a live command-and-control server. This defeats static blocklists, which can only enumerate known domains, directly satisfying the scenario's constraint of evading pre-compiled C2 blocklists.

Why this answer

DGA is used to generate a large number of domain names daily, making it difficult for defenders to block the command-and-control server effectively.

10
MCQmedium

A malware infection has encrypted several network shares. You decide to restore from backups. What is the most critical step to perform before restoring data to the production environment?

A.Scan the backup media with the same AV used previously
B.Reboot the domain controllers
C.Restore data to a sandbox or isolated VLAN
D.Change all user passwords
AnswerC

Restoring to a sandbox or isolated VLAN lets you verify backup integrity and confirm malware is absent before production reconnection. This prevents reintroducing the infection or overwriting clean data, directly satisfying the stem's requirement for the most critical pre-restoration step.

Why this answer

Restoring data to a sandbox or isolated VLAN before production is the most critical step because it verifies the backups are clean and free of the ransomware or its persistence mechanisms. Ransomware frequently targets or encrypts backup repositories, and restoring directly to production risks reinfecting the environment. Testing in isolation confirms data integrity and allows scanning without exposing production systems.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming that having backups is sufficient — candidates pick AV scanning or password changes, but the exam wants the validation-in-isolation step that prevents reinfection during recovery.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because scanning backup media with the same AV that failed to detect the original infection provides false assurance — the malware may be a new variant or use evasion techniques the AV misses. Option B is wrong because rebooting domain controllers does not address the integrity of the backup data and may disrupt authentication services needed for recovery. Option D is wrong because changing user passwords, while a good post-incident hardening step, does not validate that the backups are clean and does not prevent reinfection from compromised data.

11
Multi-Selectmedium

When eradicating malware, which TWO of the following steps are essential to ensure the host is fully cleaned and the entry point is secured?

Select 2 answers
A.Change the background wallpaper to a default image
B.Identify and patch the vulnerability that allowed entry
C.Install a new browser plugin
D.Delete all identified malicious artifacts
E.Clear the browser cache
AnswersB, D

Patching the exploited vulnerability closes the initial access vector, preventing immediate reinfection after cleaning. Eradication is incomplete if the entry point remains open, so remediation must include identifying the specific flaw and applying the vendor fix. This satisfies the stem's requirement to secure the entry point, not merely remove malware artefacts.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because identifying and patching the vulnerability that allowed entry closes the initial access vector, preventing reinfection or re-exploitation by the same malware or attacker. Option D is correct because deleting all identified malicious artifacts—such as malicious executables, registry keys, scheduled tasks, and persistence mechanisms—ensures the host is actually cleaned and no residual malware remains. Option A is not relevant, as changing the wallpaper has no security impact on malware eradication.

Option C is not relevant, since installing a new browser plugin does not address the infection or its entry point. Option E is insufficient on its own, as clearing the browser cache may remove some traces but does not eliminate malware or secure the vulnerability.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates understand that eradication includes root cause remediation — the trap is selecting only artifact deletion and forgetting that patching the entry vulnerability is equally essential to prevent reinfection.

12
MCQeasy

An analyst is reviewing logs from an EDR solution. They see a 'process hollowing' event. What is the primary purpose of this malware technique?

A.Brute-forcing system credentials
B.Hiding malicious code inside a legitimate process
C.Encrypting local user files
D.Creating a hidden user account
AnswerB

Process hollowing unmounts a legitimate executable's memory and injects malicious code into that reserved space, so the payload executes under a trusted process identity. This satisfies the scenario's requirement to conceal activity from the EDR solution, since monitoring sees a signed, benign parent rather than an unknown binary.

Why this answer

Process hollowing is a code-injection technique in which malware creates a legitimate process in a suspended state, unmaps its original code from memory, and replaces it with malicious code, then resumes execution. The primary purpose is to hide malicious activity inside a trusted, legitimate process so that it evades detection by security tools that trust known executables. This is why EDR solutions flag it as a high-severity event.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates can distinguish malware techniques by objective — the trap is confusing process hollowing (defense evasion via injection) with ransomware encryption or persistence techniques because all three appear in the same incident.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because brute-forcing credentials is a credential-access technique (e.g., password spraying, credential stuffing) and is unrelated to process hollowing, which is a defense-evasion/injection technique. Option C is wrong because encrypting local user files describes ransomware behavior, not process hollowing — although ransomware may use process hollowing as a delivery mechanism, encryption is not its purpose. Option D is wrong because creating a hidden user account is a persistence technique (e.g., via net user or registry manipulation), not the objective of process hollowing.

13
MCQmedium

You are analyzing a malware sample using Cuckoo Sandbox. The report shows the malware is attempting to modify the 'HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run' registry key. What is the intent of this activity?

A.Injecting code into explorer.exe
B.Escalating user privileges
C.Establishing system persistence
D.Disabling the Windows Firewall
AnswerC

Writing to the Run key causes Windows to execute the listed program automatically at every user logon, so the malware survives reboots without any user action. This satisfies the persistence objective by embedding an autostart entry in the registry.

Why this answer

The Windows Run registry key is a well-known autostart location that causes programs to execute automatically when a user logs in. Malware modifying this key is attempting to ensure it runs every time the system starts, which is the definition of establishing persistence. This technique is catalogued in MITRE ATT&CK as T1547.001 (Registry Run Keys / Startup Folder).

Exam trap

212-89 often tests the confusion between persistence and other malware objectives — candidates may pick privilege escalation or code injection when the specific registry key clearly indicates autostart persistence.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because code injection into explorer.exe involves process manipulation (e.g., via CreateRemoteThread), not registry modification. Option B is wrong because privilege escalation typically involves exploiting vulnerabilities or misconfigured permissions, not writing to a user-level Run key. Option D is wrong because disabling the Windows Firewall would involve modifying firewall-specific registry keys or service settings, not the Run key.

14
MCQmedium

A malware incident has been detected on a Windows server. The incident handler needs to identify the persistence mechanism used by the malware. The handler runs the 'Autoruns' tool and observes an entry in the 'Scheduled Tasks' tab that points to a suspicious executable in the user's AppData folder. Which Windows feature is being abused for persistence?

A.Task Scheduler
B.Startup folder
C.Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) event subscription
D.Registry Run keys
AnswerA

Task Scheduler allows programs to be executed at specific times or in response to events. Malware often creates scheduled tasks to maintain persistence. The presence of a suspicious executable in the Scheduled Tasks tab of Autoruns indicates that the malware is using Task Scheduler for persistence.

Why this answer

The Scheduled Tasks tab in Autoruns displays tasks that are configured to run automatically. Malware can create scheduled tasks to ensure it executes after reboots or at specific intervals. Identifying the task and its associated executable is crucial for eradication.

The other options are different persistence mechanisms that would appear in other tabs of Autoruns.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing different persistence mechanisms that Autoruns can display, such as Registry Run keys or WMI subscriptions, with Scheduled Tasks. The key is to note the specific tab mentioned in the scenario.

15
MCQmedium

During a malware incident on a Windows 10 workstation, you observe that a scheduled task named "UpdaterSvc" executes a binary in C:\Users\Public\svchost.exe every 15 minutes and re-creates its own registry Run key if deleted. The user reports the malware reappears after each cleanup. Which containment action BEST addresses this persistence while preserving forensic evidence?

A.Run a full antivirus scan on the workstation while it remains connected so the vendor cloud can identify the malware family.
B.Immediately reimage the workstation without collecting volatile data, because the malware will otherwise return.
C.Disconnect the workstation from the network, capture a memory image, then delete the scheduled task and quarantine the binary.
D.Disable the user account, delete the C:\Users\Public\svchost.exe file, and reboot the workstation to clear the infection.
AnswerC

Isolating the host stops any lateral movement or command-and-control traffic, and capturing memory first preserves volatile artifacts such as injected code and running processes. Removing the scheduled task and quarantining the binary addresses the self-healing persistence mechanism that re-creates the Run key, so the malware cannot respawn after cleanup.

Why this answer

Effective containment for self-healing malware requires isolating the host to stop external communication and preserving volatile evidence before making changes. Capturing memory first retains injected code and process artifacts, then removing the scheduled task and quarantining the binary eliminates the persistence that re-creates the Run key, preventing reinfection after cleanup.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that deleting the visible malicious file or disabling the user account removes the infection, when scheduled tasks and Run keys can silently restore the malware.

16
MCQhard

You are analyzing a malware sample in a lab. You notice the malware uses the 'CreateRemoteThread' API. What is the objective of this malware activity?

A.Opening a network socket
B.Deleting files on disk
C.Injecting a thread into another process
D.Modifying system time
AnswerC

CreateRemoteThread starts a new thread inside another process's address space, typically after allocating and writing shellcode there, so the injected code executes under the target process's context — the classic mechanism for process injection and defence evasion.

Why this answer

CreateRemoteThread is a Windows API used to start a thread in the virtual address space of another process. Malware uses it for process injection — typically after allocating memory in the target with VirtualAllocEx and writing shellcode with WriteProcessMemory, it calls CreateRemoteThread to execute the payload inside a legitimate process, evading detection and inheriting that process's privileges.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing CreateRemoteThread with generic 'malware does bad things' options — candidates must map the specific API to its precise function (thread injection), not just pick any malicious-sounding behaviour.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because opening a network socket uses APIs like socket, connect, or WinINet/WinHTTP functions, not CreateRemoteThread. Option B is wrong because file deletion uses DeleteFile or NtDeleteFile; CreateRemoteThread has no file-system semantics. Option D is wrong because modifying system time uses SetSystemTime or NtSetSystemTime; CreateRemoteThread does not touch the clock.

17
MCQmedium

A company's security team detects that a server is communicating with a known malicious IP address every hour. The traffic is encrypted and small in size. The incident handler suspects a malware infection with a beaconing mechanism. Which type of malware is most likely responsible for this behavior?

A.Ransomware
B.Worm
C.Remote Access Trojan (RAT)
D.Adware
AnswerC

A RAT is designed to maintain persistent, stealthy access to a compromised system, often using periodic beacons to a command-and-control server to check for instructions. The small, encrypted, hourly communication is a classic beaconing pattern used by RATs to avoid detection while maintaining control. This allows the attacker to issue commands or exfiltrate data on demand.

Why this answer

A Remote Access Trojan (RAT) is designed for stealthy, persistent access, often using regular beaconing to a command-and-control server. The small, encrypted, hourly traffic matches this pattern, allowing the attacker to maintain control without attracting attention. Ransomware, worms, and adware have different primary behaviors that do not align with the described stealthy beaconing.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing any command-and-control communication with ransomware or worms, when the specific pattern of small, regular encrypted beacons is characteristic of a RAT.

18
MCQmedium

You are using Wireshark to analyze traffic from an infected host. You notice consistent beaconing activity to an external IP on port 443. How do you isolate this traffic in your capture?

A.ip.addr == [IP_ADDRESS]
B.tcp.port == 80
C.frame.len > 1000
D.http.request
AnswerA

Filtering on ip.addr matches packets where the beaconing IP appears as either source or destination, isolating the command-and-control conversation from unrelated traffic. This display filter satisfies the need to narrow the capture to the infected host's external communications on port 443, letting you inspect beacon timing and payloads.

Why this answer

The question asks how to isolate traffic to a specific external IP observed during beaconing. In Wireshark, the display filter 'ip.addr == [IP_ADDRESS]' matches all packets where the source OR destination IP equals the given address, which is exactly what is needed to isolate the C2 channel. This works regardless of port or protocol, making it the most reliable filter for a known malicious IP.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing port-based filtering with host-based filtering: candidates see 'port 443' in the scenario and instinctively reach for a port filter, but the question asks to isolate traffic by the external IP, not by service port.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'tcp.port == 80' filters only HTTP traffic on port 80, but the beaconing was observed on port 443, so it would exclude the relevant traffic entirely. Option C is wrong because 'frame.len > 1000' filters by packet size, which is unrelated to identifying traffic to a specific IP and would return unrelated large packets. Option D is wrong because 'http.request' only matches HTTP request methods, and beaconing on port 443 is typically TLS-encrypted, so no HTTP request would be visible.

19
MCQmedium

During a malware incident on a Windows Server 2019 host, an incident handler discovers that a scheduled task named 'MicrosoftEdgeUpdateTaskMachineUA' has been modified to run a binary from C:\Users\Public\svchost.exe every 15 minutes. The handler needs to preserve volatile evidence of this persistence mechanism before remediation. Which action should the handler take first?

A.Restart the Windows Task Scheduler service to clear any injected code and reset the task to its default state.
B.Run the binary C:\Users\Public\svchost.exe in a sandbox to observe its behavior before deleting the task.
C.Export the task definition using schtasks /query /tn "MicrosoftEdgeUpdateTaskMachineUA" /xml > task.xml
D.Delete the scheduled task immediately using schtasks /delete to stop the persistence.
AnswerC

Exporting the scheduled task definition with schtasks /query /tn ... /xml captures the exact trigger, action, and run-as account configured by the attacker, which is volatile because the task may be deleted or altered during remediation. This preserves the persistence mechanism's configuration for later analysis and legal purposes without executing the malicious binary.

Why this answer

The scheduled task's XML definition is volatile because it can be changed or removed during remediation, so the handler must export it before taking any disruptive action. Capturing the exact trigger, action, and run-as account documents the attacker's persistence mechanism and supports scope analysis and legal evidence handling.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that simply stopping or restarting the Task Scheduler service neutralizes a malicious task without preserving its configuration.

20
MCQhard

You are analyzing a Windows malware sample and observe that it creates a new service with an ImagePath pointing to a file in the user's AppData folder. The service is configured with a generic display name resembling a legitimate Windows component. What is the primary purpose of this behavior?

A.To establish persistence so the malware executes automatically at system startup.
B.To escalate privileges by exploiting a vulnerable driver.
C.To encrypt files on the local system for ransomware impact.
D.To exfiltrate data to an external command-and-control server.
AnswerA

Creating a Windows service with an ImagePath in a user-writable directory allows the malware to run automatically when the system boots, achieving persistence. The deceptive display name helps it blend with legitimate services. This is a common persistence technique that survives reboots and often runs with SYSTEM privileges if the service is configured accordingly, making it a high-value indicator for incident handlers.

Why this answer

Registering a Windows service whose binary resides in a user-writable path such as AppData is a classic persistence technique. Services start automatically at boot and often run under SYSTEM, so the malware survives reboots and gains elevated execution. The use of a legitimate-looking display name is a defense evasion tactic to avoid notice by casual administrators.

Recognizing this helps handlers remove the service during eradication.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing persistence with privilege escalation or impact, when service creation with a user-path binary is specifically about surviving reboots rather than exploiting vulnerabilities or encrypting data.

21
MCQhard

An incident handler is analyzing a malware sample that uses process hollowing. The handler observes that a legitimate process, such as svchost.exe, is running but its memory contains malicious code. Which Windows API sequence is most characteristic of process hollowing?

A.SetWindowsHookEx, CallNextHookEx, UnhookWindowsHookEx
B.CreateProcess, WriteProcessMemory, CreateRemoteThread, ResumeThread
C.CreateProcess, ZwUnmapViewOfSection, VirtualAllocEx, WriteProcessMemory, SetThreadContext, ResumeThread
D.OpenProcess, VirtualAllocEx, WriteProcessMemory, CreateRemoteThread
AnswerC

Process hollowing involves creating a new process in a suspended state, unmapping its original code (ZwUnmapViewOfSection), allocating new memory, writing malicious code, setting the thread context to point to the new code, and resuming the thread. This sequence is the hallmark of process hollowing, allowing the malware to masquerade as a legitimate process.

Why this answer

Process hollowing is a technique where a legitimate process is created in a suspended state, its memory is unmapped, malicious code is written into the freed space, and the thread context is updated to execute the malicious code. The API sequence involving ZwUnmapViewOfSection, VirtualAllocEx, WriteProcessMemory, SetThreadContext, and ResumeThread is highly indicative of this technique.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing process hollowing with simple DLL injection or remote thread creation, which do not involve unmapping the original process memory.

22
Multi-Selecthard

When analyzing a potentially malicious script, which THREE of the following techniques help in deobfuscating the code?

Select 3 answers
A.Renaming the file extension to .txt
B.Running the script as an administrator
C.Decrypting embedded strings
D.Using an emulator for script execution
E.Manual code tracing in a debugger
AnswersC, D, E

Malicious scripts frequently store payloads as encrypted or encoded strings that are decrypted at runtime. Identifying the decryption routine and extracting the embedded strings reveals the concealed commands, exposing the script's true behaviour without executing it.

Why this answer

Option C (Decrypting embedded strings) is correct because obfuscated scripts frequently hide payloads, URLs, or commands inside encoded or encrypted string literals (e.g., Base64, XOR, ROT13), and extracting/decoding those strings reveals the script's true intent. Option D (Using an emulator for script execution) is correct because sandboxed emulators and instrumented interpreters let you execute the script in a controlled environment while logging API calls, string decryptions, and network activity, exposing behavior that static reading alone would miss. Option E (Manual code tracing in a debugger) is correct because stepping through the script line by line in a debugger lets you observe variable values, follow control flow through junk code and conditional obfuscation, and reconstruct the original logic.

Option A (Renaming the file extension to .txt) is not a deobfuscation technique; changing the extension only affects how the OS associates the file and does not alter or reveal the code's obfuscation. Option B (Running the script as an administrator) is not a deobfuscation technique and is actually dangerous, since executing unknown malicious code with elevated privileges increases the risk of system compromise rather than helping to analyze the code.

23
MCQmedium

You have identified an infected machine and need to perform a memory dump before it is wiped. Which tool is the industry standard for acquiring a full memory dump on a Windows machine for incident response?

A.Wireshark
B.Magnet RAM Capture
C.Windows Task Manager
D.Event Viewer
AnswerB

Magnet RAM Capture is a free Windows tool that acquires a full physical memory image, capturing volatile artefacts such as running processes, network connections and injected code. It satisfies the requirement to dump memory on the infected Windows host before the machine is wiped.

Why this answer

Magnet RAM Capture or WinPmem are standard tools for acquiring full memory dumps in a forensic-sound manner.

24
MCQmedium

A malware sample was found to use a 'Mutex' to ensure only one instance of the malware runs at a time. What tool would you use to find the Mutex name on an infected host?

A.TCPView
B.Procmon
C.Autoruns
D.Handle
AnswerD

Handle, from Sysinternals, enumerates open handles per process, including named mutexes. Running handle.exe with a search string reveals which process holds the mutex, satisfying the requirement to identify the mutex name on the infected host.

Why this answer

Handle (Sysinternals Handle) is the correct tool because it enumerates open handles — including named mutexes — held by processes on a Windows system. Running 'handle.exe -a' lists all handle types, and you can search for the mutex name associated with the malware, confirming infection and enabling detection signatures. Mutexes are kernel objects, and Handle is purpose-built to display them per process.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming Procmon is the universal malware analysis tool — candidates pick it because it 'shows everything,' but the question asks specifically about enumerating a mutex, which requires Handle's kernel-object view.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because TCPView shows TCP/UDP endpoints and owning processes — it has no visibility into kernel objects like mutexes. Option B is wrong because Procmon (Process Monitor) monitors file system, registry, and process/thread activity in real time; while it can capture mutex operations, it is not the tool designed to enumerate existing mutex handles on a live host. Option C is wrong because Autoruns lists autostart extensibility points (Run keys, services, scheduled tasks) — it does not enumerate mutexes or other kernel handles.

25
MCQeasy

A helpdesk technician reports that multiple users received an email with an attached PDF that, when opened, prompted them to enable macros. One user enabled macros and their workstation is now showing unusual outbound connections. As the incident handler, which action should you take FIRST according to the incident response lifecycle?

A.Contain the incident by isolating the affected workstation from the network and preserving its current state.
B.Eradicate the malware by running a full antivirus scan and removing the PDF from the email server.
C.Recover operations by restoring the user's files from the most recent backup and reconnecting the workstation.
D.Identify the malware family by submitting the PDF to a public sandbox and wait for the report.
AnswerA

Isolating the workstation is the immediate containment step that stops any further command-and-control traffic, lateral movement, or data exfiltration while preserving volatile evidence. This aligns with the incident response lifecycle, where containment follows detection and precedes eradication, and it protects other systems before deeper analysis begins.

Why this answer

The incident response lifecycle places containment immediately after detection to limit damage and preserve evidence. Isolating the affected workstation stops outbound malicious traffic and prevents lateral spread, while preserving the system state allows investigators to determine scope and root cause before moving to eradication and recovery.

Exam trap

The trap here is jumping to eradication or recovery actions before containing the host, which lets active malware continue communicating and spreading.

26
MCQeasy

A system has been infected by a worm that is spreading across the network. What is the most immediate action to stop the spread?

A.Update the BIOS on all machines
B.Block propagation ports at the network level
C.Disable the internet gateway
D.Email all users to reboot
AnswerB

Blocking propagation ports at the firewall severs the worm's transmission vector, halting lateral spread across the network. This containment action directly satisfies the stem's demand for the most immediate step, since the worm relies on open ports to reach new hosts. Patching or scanning takes longer and lets the infection continue.

Why this answer

Isolating the affected segments or blocking the ports used for the worm's propagation (e.g., SMB/445) is essential to stop lateral movement.

27
Multi-Selectmedium

You are triaging a Windows workstation suspected of a malware infection. Several indicators suggest the malware is using the Windows Registry for persistence. Which TWO registry locations should you examine first to identify autostart entries created by the malware? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Office\16.0\Word\Recent
B.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Services
C.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run
D.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows NT\CurrentVersion\Print\Printers
E.HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT\Installer\Products
AnswersB, C

The Services key stores configuration for Windows services, and malware often installs a malicious service here to gain persistence and run with SYSTEM privileges at boot. Reviewing service entries for unusual ImagePath values or recently created services helps identify this common and stealthy persistence mechanism.

Why this answer

Malware commonly establishes persistence on Windows through autostart registry locations. The Run key under CurrentVersion launches programs at user logon, while the Services key under CurrentControlSet configures services that start at boot, often with high privileges. Both are high-priority locations to inspect when hunting for registry-based persistence during malware triage.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing registry keys that merely record user activity or installed software with true autostart locations that execute code automatically.

28
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are effective methods for protecting backup systems from being encrypted by ransomware?

Select 3 answers
A.Restricting backup service account permissions
B.Storing backups on the same server as the primary data
C.Using immutable storage solutions
D.Using an easy-to-guess password for the backup drive
E.Implementing air-gapped backup storage
AnswersA, C, E

Restricting the backup service account's permissions limits what that account can reach, so ransomware running under it cannot delete or encrypt backup repositories. This least-privilege control satisfies the stem's requirement to protect backups from ransomware encryption.

Why this answer

Option A (Restricting backup service account permissions) is correct because applying least-privilege to the backup service account prevents ransomware that has compromised a user or admin context from using those credentials to delete or overwrite backup repositories, since the backup process only needs write access to its target and not broad domain or filesystem rights. Option C (Using immutable storage solutions) is correct because immutability features such as S3 Object Lock in compliance mode, WORM storage, or immutable snapshots prevent any modification or deletion of backup data for a defined retention period, even if an attacker obtains administrative credentials. Option E (Implementing air-gapped backup storage) is correct because physically or logically isolating backups from the production network, such as offline tape, removable media, or a disconnected vault, means ransomware cannot reach the backup copies to encrypt them.

Option B is incorrect because storing backups on the same server as the primary data exposes them to the same compromise and encryption event, defeating the purpose of a separate backup. Option D is incorrect because an easy-to-guess password weakens access control and makes it trivial for ransomware or an attacker to access and encrypt the backup drive.

Exam trap

The trap is selecting 'same server' or 'easy password' options because they sound convenient — the exam tests whether you recognize that convenience options directly undermine ransomware resilience.

29
Multi-Selectmedium

A financial institution's incident response team is investigating a malware outbreak that encrypts files and demands payment. The team needs to identify the malware family to determine if a decryption tool is available. Which two characteristics should the team analyze to identify the ransomware family? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The hash of the ransomware executable.
B.The encryption algorithm used.
C.The IP address of the command-and-control server.
D.The file extension appended to encrypted files.
E.The ransom note filename and content.
AnswersD, E

Ransomware families often use specific file extensions for encrypted files, such as .locky, .cerber, or .ryk. These extensions are a key indicator for identifying the family. By examining the extension, the team can quickly narrow down the ransomware variant and check if a known decryption tool exists. This is a standard first step in ransomware identification.

Why this answer

To identify a ransomware family, analysts should focus on observable artifacts like the file extension appended to encrypted files and the ransom note's filename and content. These are often unique to specific families and can be used to quickly determine the variant. Other indicators like hashes or encryption algorithms are less reliable for family identification.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that the hash or encryption algorithm is a reliable family identifier, when in fact behavioral artifacts like file extensions and ransom notes are more consistent across variants.

30
MCQeasy

During an incident, you need to isolate a compromised workstation from the network immediately. Which action is the most effective containment strategy while preserving volatile memory?

A.Shut down the computer immediately
B.Disconnect the network cable
C.Delete the suspicious files
D.Run a full antivirus scan
AnswerB

Physically unplugging the cable severs all network communication instantly, satisfying immediate isolation, while the workstation stays powered so volatile memory and running processes remain intact for later forensic capture. Wireless or software-based blocking risks missing alternate paths or triggering shutdown.

Why this answer

Disconnecting the network cable is the correct containment action because it immediately severs the workstation's communication with the network (stopping lateral movement, C2 beaconing, and data exfiltration) while leaving the system powered on. This preserves volatile evidence such as RAM contents, running processes, network connections, and encryption keys that would be lost on shutdown. It is the least destructive way to isolate a host during the containment phase of incident response.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing containment with eradication — candidates pick shutdown or AV scanning because those feel like 'taking action,' but the question explicitly requires preserving volatile memory, which only the cable-pull option satisfies.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because shutting down the computer destroys volatile memory (RAM), running process state, active network connections, and potentially encryption keys — violating the order of volatility and forensics best practice. Option C is wrong because deleting suspicious files is a destructive action that alters evidence, may trigger malware self-defense mechanisms, and does nothing to stop ongoing network communication. Option D is wrong because running a full antivirus scan is a remediation/eradication step, not containment — it takes time during which the attacker retains network access, and it modifies the system state.

31
MCQhard

You are investigating a suspected fileless malware incident on a Windows server. EDR telemetry shows that powershell.exe was spawned by winword.exe and executed an encoded command that downloaded a script from a remote host. The process has already exited. Which artifact is MOST likely to contain the decoded command and the URL contacted?

A.The Sysmon event ID 1 log, which records process creation with hashes and parent process information.
B.The Windows Security event log, event ID 4688, which records process creation with full command lines.
C.The PowerShell operational log, event ID 4104, which records script block content including the decoded command.
D.The Windows Prefetch file for powershell.exe, which stores the last executed command line and remote URLs.
AnswerC

When script block logging is enabled, PowerShell writes event ID 4104 to the Microsoft-Windows-PowerShell/Operational log, capturing the actual script text after decoding. This reveals the deobfuscated command and any embedded URL, even though the process has exited, making it the most reliable artifact for reconstructing the fileless execution chain.

Why this answer

For fileless attacks using encoded PowerShell, the decoded script content is captured by PowerShell script block logging in event ID 4104 when that feature is enabled. Unlike process creation logs that preserve the obfuscated Base64 string, this event records the actual script text executed, exposing embedded URLs and commands even after the process has terminated.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that process creation logs alone reveal the full attack, when encoded PowerShell hides the real command until script block logging decodes it.

32
MCQeasy

A helpdesk technician reports that a user's browser is redirecting searches to an unfamiliar site and displaying pop-up advertisements even when no browser is open. You suspect a potentially unwanted program or adware infection. Which initial step is most appropriate for an incident handler?

A.Ask the user to clear browser cache and reset browser settings to default
B.Immediately reimage the workstation to guarantee complete removal
C.Run a full antivirus scan and delete everything it flags as malicious
D.Capture volatile data such as running processes, network connections, and browser extensions before making changes
AnswerD

Capturing volatile data first preserves process lists, network connections, loaded modules, and browser extension details that disappear on reboot or cleanup. This evidence lets the handler identify the adware family, its persistence mechanism, and any command-and-control endpoints, which informs scoping and ensures eradication is complete rather than superficial.

Why this answer

Capturing volatile data before any remediation preserves running processes, network connections, and browser extension details that would otherwise be lost. This evidence is essential for identifying the adware family, its persistence, and any broader compromise, enabling accurate scoping and complete eradication rather than a superficial cleanup.

Exam trap

The trap here is jumping to remediation such as reimaging or scanning before collecting volatile evidence, which destroys the artifacts needed to understand and fully remove the infection.

33
MCQmedium

During a malware incident response, you identify a suspicious process with PID 4452 using Sysinternals Process Explorer. You need to verify the file's reputation before isolation. Which action allows you to do this directly within the tool?

A.Use the 'Find Handle or DLL' search bar for the file name
B.Select the process and click Options > Check VirusTotal
C.Right-click the process and select 'Verify Signature'
D.Navigate to View > Lower Pane View > Handles
AnswerB

Process Explorer integrates a VirusTotal lookup: selecting the process and choosing Options > Check VirusTotal submits the executable's hash to the service and returns its reputation, letting you assess the file before isolating the host.

Why this answer

Sysinternals Process Explorer integrates directly with VirusTotal via Options > Check VirusTotal, which submits the selected process's file hash to VirusTotal and displays the multi-engine detection ratio in a new column. This lets an analyst assess file reputation without leaving the tool or manually uploading the binary. It is the fastest way to triage a suspicious PID during live malware response.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests tool-specific feature knowledge — the trap is confusing Process Explorer's handle/DLL search or signature verification with reputation checking, when only the VirusTotal option actually queries external threat intelligence.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'Find Handle or DLL' searches for which processes hold a given handle or DLL — it is a dependency/handle investigation feature, not a reputation lookup. Option C is wrong because 'Verify Signature' only checks whether the binary is digitally signed by a trusted publisher; malware can be unsigned or abusively signed, so signature verification does not provide reputation data. Option D is wrong because the Lower Pane Handles view shows open handles (files, registry keys, mutexes) for the selected process — useful for behavioral analysis but not for querying file reputation.

34
MCQhard

You are performing forensic analysis on a suspicious file. You need to determine if it is a packed executable. Which tool is most effective for viewing the file's section headers to identify anomalies?

A.PEview
B.Wireshark
C.Process Explorer
D.Regedit
AnswerA

PEview parses the Portable Executable structure and displays section headers, letting the analyst spot anomalies such as non-standard section names, high entropy, or unusual raw sizes that indicate packing. It directly addresses the need to inspect section headers.

Why this answer

PEview is a Windows tool that parses the Portable Executable (PE) format and displays section headers, the import table, export table, and other structural metadata. Packed executables typically show anomalies such as section names like UPX0/UPX1, unusually high entropy, a tiny import table, or a section with raw size much larger than virtual size — all visible in PEview's section header view.

Exam trap

The trap is picking a runtime or network tool (Process Explorer, Wireshark) for a static file-structure question — the exam tests whether you know which tool operates at which layer of analysis.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer; it captures and dissects packets and has no ability to parse PE file structure. Option C is wrong because Process Explorer monitors running processes, handles, and DLLs at runtime; it does not statically analyze a file's section headers. Option D is wrong because Regedit is the Windows Registry editor and has nothing to do with PE file analysis.

35
MCQhard

You are using YARA to detect a specific strain of ransomware. You want to match a file if it contains a specific hex string OR a specific string value. How do you construct this in your rule?

A.condition: $a + $b
B.condition: $a != $b
C.condition: $a && $b
D.condition: $a or $b
AnswerD

The condition section with the OR operator evaluates both string identifiers, matching the file when either $a or $b is found. This satisfies the requirement to detect files containing the hex string or the string value.

Why this answer

YARA uses the 'or' operator within the condition section to evaluate multiple criteria, allowing a match if either condition is met.

36
MCQmedium

A finance workstation running Windows 10 begins displaying a full-screen message demanding Bitcoin payment and encrypts files with the .locky extension. The user reports the machine is still powered on and connected to the corporate network. As the incident handler, which action should you take FIRST to preserve volatile evidence?

A.Run a full antivirus scan and quarantine all detected files.
B.Capture a forensic image of the physical hard drive using a write blocker.
C.Immediately disconnect the workstation from the network and power it off.
D.Acquire a live memory dump using a tool such as Magnet RAM Capture or WinPmem.
AnswerD

Volatile data in RAM, including running processes, network connections, and possibly encryption keys, will be lost on shutdown or reboot. Capturing a live memory dump first preserves this evidence while the machine is still powered on. This aligns with the order of volatility principle and supports later malware analysis and potential decryption.

Why this answer

Because the workstation is still powered on, volatile data in RAM, including process lists, network connections, and potential encryption keys, remains available. The order of volatility dictates that this evidence be captured before any shutdown, disconnection, or remediation action. Acquiring a live memory dump first preserves the most perishable evidence and supports subsequent malware analysis and containment decisions.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that isolating the machine by powering it off is always the correct first step, when doing so destroys volatile evidence that cannot be recovered later.

37
MCQeasy

During the 'Recovery' phase of the malware incident, what must be done to ensure the environment is safe before reconnecting the restored systems?

A.Perform a vulnerability scan
B.Delete all user profiles
C.Upgrade the OS to the latest version
D.Reformat all external hard drives
AnswerA

A vulnerability scan verifies that the restored systems contain no residual exploitable weaknesses, such as unpatched software the malware leveraged, before they are reconnected to production. This confirms the environment is safe and prevents immediate reinfection during recovery.

Why this answer

Vulnerability scanning confirms that the original entry points or vulnerabilities used by the malware have been patched or mitigated.

38
MCQhard

A user reports that Microsoft Word documents on a shared drive are suddenly opening with a prompt to enable macros, and a new file named '~$invoice.docx' appears in the same directory. Analysis shows the macro contains the string 'AutoOpen' and references a remote template URL. Which malware category and delivery technique best describe this incident?

A.Fileless malware delivered via PowerShell stager
B.Macro-based malware using remote template injection
C.Ransomware delivered through a malicious PDF reader exploit
D.Worm spreading via SMB by copying itself to shared directories
AnswerB

The AutoOpen macro combined with a remote template URL is the signature of remote template injection, where a benign-looking document loads a malicious template from an attacker-controlled server, delivering macro code without embedding it in the original file. The '~$' lock file confirms an active Word session and is consistent with this document-based delivery technique.

Why this answer

An AutoOpen macro that references a remote template URL is the hallmark of remote template injection, a document-based malware delivery technique. The macro executes when the document is opened, and the remote template pulls the malicious payload from an external server, evading static detection that only inspects the original file.

Exam trap

The trap here is classifying the incident as fileless malware because no obvious executable was dropped, when the AutoOpen macro and remote template URL are the defining artifacts of a document-based delivery technique.

39
MCQeasy

A user reports their system is running slowly, and you observe a suspicious file in 'C:\Users\[User]\AppData\Local\Temp'. What is the most appropriate first step in your investigation?

A.Re-image the computer
B.Delete the file immediately
C.Execute the file in a debugger
D.Calculate the file hash
AnswerD

Calculating the hash preserves volatile evidence before the suspicious file in the Temp folder is altered or deleted, satisfying the need to establish integrity for later comparison against threat intelligence. Hashing is non-destructive, so it captures a unique fingerprint without modifying the artefact, unlike opening or executing it.

Why this answer

Calculating the file hash is the correct first step because it preserves the integrity of the evidence and allows the file to be identified against known malware databases (e.g., VirusTotal, NIST NSRL) without altering or executing it. Hashing is non-destructive, produces a unique fingerprint (MD5/SHA-256), and maintains chain-of-custody for any subsequent forensic or legal action. This aligns with the order of volatility and standard incident response handling procedures.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates understand that evidence preservation (hashing) precedes any destructive or analytical action, and many candidates incorrectly choose 'delete immediately' as a containment step.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because re-imaging destroys volatile evidence and any forensic artifacts before analysis, which is a drastic remediation step, not a first investigative action. Option B is wrong because deleting the file immediately destroys potential evidence and prevents attribution or scope determination. Option C is wrong because executing the file in a debugger, even in a controlled environment, risks infecting the host and is not a safe first step on a production system without proper sandboxing.

40
Multi-Selecthard

When reviewing network traffic for C2 communication, which THREE of the following indicators are commonly observed?

Select 3 answers
A.Connections from local users to a printer
B.Periodic connections (beaconing) to a specific IP
C.Traffic on non-standard ports (e.g., HTTPS on port 8080)
D.High volume of legitimate DNS traffic
E.Connections to recently registered domains
AnswersB, C, E

Beaconing is a hallmark of command-and-control traffic: compromised hosts contact the same external IP at regular intervals to poll for instructions. The predictable periodicity distinguishes it from ordinary browsing and satisfies the stem's request for commonly observed C2 indicators.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because beaconing — repeated, evenly spaced outbound connections to the same IP or host — is a hallmark of malware checking in with its command-and-control server, often using fixed sleep/jitter intervals. Option C is correct because C2 channels frequently abuse non-standard ports (for example, running HTTPS on 8080, 8443, or 443 on an unexpected host) to blend in or bypass egress filtering that only permits common ports. Option E is correct because threat actors often stand up C2 infrastructure on newly registered or short-lived domains, so connections to domains with very recent registration dates are a strong indicator of compromise.

Option A does not belong because local users printing to a printer is normal internal business traffic with no C2 relevance. Option D does not belong because a high volume of legitimate DNS traffic is ordinary network activity; only anomalous DNS patterns such as long TXT queries, high-entropy subdomains, or excessive NXDOMAIN responses would suggest C2 tunneling.

Exam trap

The trap is treating any unusual-looking traffic as C2 — candidates may pick DNS volume or printer traffic, but the exam wants the three specific patterns (beaconing, non-standard ports, new domains) that map to known C2 behaviors.

41
Multi-Selectmedium

You are handling a malware incident on a Windows server and need to determine whether the malware has established persistence. Which two registry locations should you inspect first because they are the most common autostart points used by malware? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run
B.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows NT\CurrentVersion\Winlogon\Shell
C.HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run
D.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Services\Tcpip\Parameters
E.HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT\Installer\Products
AnswersA, C

The HKLM Run key is one of the most frequently abused autostart locations because entries here execute at system startup for all users, giving malware high-privilege persistence without requiring a scheduled task or service. Inspecting it early reveals obvious load points and often identifies the dropped binary path, which then guides broader scoping and eradication efforts.

Why this answer

The HKLM and HKCU Run keys are the most commonly abused registry autostart locations because they execute code at logon for all users or the current user respectively, require minimal effort to modify, and are widely used by commodity and targeted malware alike. Inspecting both ensures coverage of system-wide and per-user persistence.

Exam trap

The trap here is overlooking the per-user Run key and focusing only on the HKLM Run key, which misses user-level persistence that does not require administrative privileges.

42
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following tools would be most effective for performing live memory forensics on a compromised Windows workstation?

Select 3 answers
A.CCleaner
B.WinPmem
C.Magnet RAM Capture
D.Windows Update
E.Volatility 3
AnswersB, C, E

WinPmem is a Windows-compatible memory acquisition driver that captures physical RAM to a forensic image without altering running processes. It satisfies the live forensics constraint by preserving volatile evidence on an active workstation before shutdown destroys it.

Why this answer

WinPmem (B) is a purpose-built, open-source memory acquisition driver for Windows that captures physical RAM to a raw image while preserving volatile evidence such as running processes, network connections, and injected code. Magnet RAM Capture (C) is a free forensic acquisition tool from Magnet Forensics that dumps physical memory on Windows systems into a .raw/.mem image suitable for later analysis. Volatility 3 (E) is the leading memory forensics framework that parses those acquired images to extract processes, handles, DLLs, registry hives, and malware artifacts, making it essential for the analysis phase of live memory forensics.

CCleaner (A) is a system-cleaning utility that deletes temporary files and traces, which would destroy volatile evidence rather than preserve it. Windows Update (D) is a patching service with no forensic acquisition or analysis capability and is irrelevant to memory forensics.

43
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following sources of information are most helpful for building an Indicators of Compromise (IoC) list during an investigation?

Select 2 answers
A.EDR security event logs
B.HR handbook
C.Office printer logs
D.Firewall logs
E.Cafeteria menus
AnswersA, D

EDR logs capture endpoint process, file and network telemetry, giving concrete artefacts such as hashes, command lines and C2 addresses for IoC extraction. This satisfies the need for host-level evidence tied to observed malicious activity, unlike policy documents or asset inventories.

Why this answer

EDR security event logs (A) are a primary IoC source because endpoint detection and response tools record process executions, command lines, file hashes, registry modifications, network connections, and persistence mechanisms that directly yield host-based indicators such as malicious file names, hashes, and parent-child process relationships. Firewall logs (D) are equally valuable for network-based IoCs, capturing source/destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, and connection timestamps that reveal command-and-control traffic and lateral movement. Together, endpoint and network telemetry provide the host and network indicators needed to construct a usable IoC list.

The HR handbook (B) and cafeteria menus (E) contain no security telemetry and are irrelevant to threat detection, while office printer logs (C) are too narrow and rarely expose adversary activity beyond isolated print jobs, making them far less helpful than EDR and firewall data.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests whether candidates can distinguish security telemetry from administrative or operational data — the distractor options are obviously irrelevant, but candidates sometimes overthink and pick printer logs as 'network devices.'

44
Multi-Selectmedium

A malware incident has been identified on a corporate workstation. The incident response team is following the containment, eradication, and recovery phases. Which TWO of the following actions are considered part of the eradication phase? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Applying security patches to the operating system
B.Deleting malicious files and registry keys created by the malware
C.Monitoring network traffic for signs of re-infection
D.Restoring the system from a known good backup
E.Disconnecting the infected workstation from the network
AnswersA, B

Applying security patches can be part of eradication if the malware exploited a vulnerability. Patching the vulnerability removes the initial infection vector and prevents re-infection. It is a proactive step to eliminate the root cause and harden the system against the same attack.

Why this answer

Eradication involves removing the malware and its components from the infected system. Deleting malicious files and registry keys eliminates the malware's presence and persistence. Applying security patches addresses the vulnerability that allowed the infection, preventing future occurrences.

Containment (disconnecting from network) and recovery (restoring from backup, monitoring) are separate phases.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing containment actions like disconnecting from the network with eradication, or considering recovery steps like restoring from backup as eradication.

45
MCQmedium

A user's Windows 10 workstation is suspected of being infected with fileless malware that resides only in memory and executes PowerShell commands. The incident handler needs to capture volatile evidence from the system before it is powered off. Which tool is specifically designed for acquiring a memory dump from a Windows system?

A.Nmap
B.FTK Imager
C.WinPmem
D.Wireshark
AnswerC

WinPmem is a memory acquisition tool specifically designed for Windows systems. It can capture physical memory (RAM) to a file, preserving volatile data such as running processes and injected code. This makes it ideal for capturing evidence of fileless malware that exists only in memory before the system is shut down.

Why this answer

Fileless malware operates in memory, leaving little to no artifacts on disk. Capturing a memory dump is critical to preserve evidence such as injected code, running processes, and network connections. WinPmem is a dedicated memory acquisition tool for Windows, ensuring a forensically sound capture of volatile data before the system is powered off or rebooted.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing network capture tools like Wireshark with memory acquisition tools, or assuming disk imaging tools like FTK Imager are sufficient for volatile memory capture.

46
MCQeasy

An incident handler is reviewing a suspicious executable found on a compromised Windows system. The file has a double extension, such as 'invoice.pdf.exe'. Which type of malware delivery technique is this most likely an example of?

A.Masquerading
B.Social engineering
C.Rootkit
D.Phishing
AnswerA

Masquerading involves disguising a malicious file as a legitimate or benign one. Using a double extension like 'invoice.pdf.exe' exploits the default Windows setting that hides known file extensions, making the file appear as a PDF document. This is a classic masquerading technique to trick users into executing malware. It is a specific type of deception focused on file appearance.

Why this answer

Masquerading is the technique of making a malicious file appear benign, such as using a double extension to disguise an executable as a PDF. This exploits hidden file extensions in Windows to trick users. Phishing is a delivery vector, social engineering is a broader category, and rootkits are a different type of malware.

The double extension is a direct example of masquerading.

Exam trap

The trap here is selecting phishing or social engineering because they are related to user deception, but the specific technique of double extension is masquerading.

47
MCQhard

During a malware incident, you observe that a compromised system is communicating with a known command-and-control (C2) server at 203.0.113.45 over TCP port 443. You need to block this communication at the network perimeter to prevent further data exfiltration. Which action should you take?

A.Create an outbound firewall rule to block traffic to 203.0.113.45 on port 443
B.Add a static route to null0 for 203.0.113.45 on the internal router
C.Enable deep packet inspection (DPI) to block all HTTPS traffic
D.Create an inbound firewall rule to block traffic from 203.0.113.45
AnswerA

Blocking outbound traffic to the C2 server's IP address on the specific port prevents the compromised system from communicating with the C2 server. This effectively stops data exfiltration and further command execution. It is the most direct and immediate action to sever the connection at the network perimeter.

Why this answer

The compromised system initiates outbound connections to the C2 server, so blocking outbound traffic to that specific IP and port is the most effective way to sever communication. This action prevents data exfiltration and further instructions from the attacker. It is targeted and minimizes disruption to legitimate traffic.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that blocking inbound traffic from the C2 server is sufficient, when in fact the infected host initiates outbound connections, so outbound blocking is required.

48
MCQeasy

An employee's Windows workstation is suspected of being infected with malware after clicking a link in a spam email. You need to identify which process is making outbound network connections to an external IP address. Which built-in Windows tool should you use to correlate active network connections with their owning processes?

A.Performance Monitor
B.netstat -ano
C.Task Manager
D.Event Viewer
AnswerB

The netstat -ano command lists all active connections with their numeric addresses, ports, and owning process IDs (PIDs). By matching the PID to a process in Task Manager or tasklist, the handler can identify which executable is connecting to the external IP. This is a fast, built-in method for correlating network activity with processes during a live malware investigation.

Why this answer

Correlating active network connections to the responsible processes requires a tool that exposes both the connection details and the owning process ID. The netstat -ano command provides numeric addresses, ports, and PIDs, which can then be matched to process names. This built-in utility is a standard first step in live malware investigations on Windows for identifying suspicious outbound communication.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming Task Manager alone reveals network connections by process, when it does not display remote IP addresses or owning PIDs for active connections.

49
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following activities are considered 'Eradication' steps in the incident response lifecycle?

Select 2 answers
A.Writing an incident report
B.Re-imaging infected workstations
C.Removing malicious files and registry keys
D.Conducting a post-incident meeting
E.Notifying the news media
AnswersB, C

Re-imaging infected workstations removes the root cause by rebuilding the compromised host from a trusted image, eliminating malware, persistence mechanisms and unauthorised changes. This satisfies eradication's goal of eliminating the threat before recovery, rather than merely containing or documenting the incident.

Why this answer

In the incident response lifecycle, Eradication focuses on eliminating the threat from the environment, so option B (Re-imaging infected workstations) is correct because rebuilding a compromised host from a known-good image removes any residual malware, backdoors, or persistence mechanisms that cannot be reliably cleaned. Option C (Removing malicious files and registry keys) is also correct because deleting identified malware artifacts and associated persistence entries (e.g., Run keys, services, scheduled tasks) directly eliminates the adversary's foothold. Option A (Writing an incident report) belongs to the post-incident/lessons-learned phase, not eradication.

Option D (Conducting a post-incident meeting) is part of the post-incident activity/lessons-learned stage. Option E (Notifying the news media) is a communications/PR action and is not an eradication step.

50
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following indicators are found in email-based malware delivery?

Select 3 answers
A.Hidden links pointing to malicious domains
B.Sender address mismatching the organization's domain
C.The email has a standard company footer
D.The email was sent during business hours
E.Suspicious attachments (e.g., .zip, .docm)
AnswersA, B, E

Embedded hyperlinks whose anchor text or display differs from the actual href target conceal the true destination, directing recipients to attacker-controlled domains. This obfuscation is a hallmark of phishing and malware delivery, satisfying the question's requirement for an email-based delivery indicator.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because email-based malware delivery commonly relies on hidden or obfuscated hyperlinks (e.g., HTML anchor text or URL shorteners) that redirect victims to malicious domains hosting exploit kits or credential-phishing pages. Option B is correct because a sender address that does not match the organization's legitimate domain is a classic spoofing/impersonation indicator, often revealed by failed SPF, DKIM, or DMARC alignment checks. Option E is correct because suspicious attachments such as .zip archives or macro-enabled .docm files are frequent malware carriers used to deliver droppers, ransomware, or trojans when opened.

Option C does not belong because a standard company footer is a normal, legitimate branding element and is not by itself an indicator of malicious delivery. Option D does not belong because the time of day an email is sent (business hours) is not a reliable technical indicator of malware delivery, since attackers can send messages at any time.

51
MCQmedium

After eradicating a malware infection, you need to ensure the system is hardened against future occurrences. Which action is most effective against fileless malware?

A.Implement PowerShell Constrained Language Mode
B.Enable auto-updates for all applications
C.Install an extra antivirus
D.Enable full disk encryption
AnswerA

Constrained Language Mode restricts PowerShell to a safe subset, blocking the .NET reflection and dynamic invocation APIs that fileless malware abuses to run in memory. This hardening prevents script-based payloads from executing without touching disk.

Why this answer

Disabling PowerShell for non-administrative users or implementing Constrained Language Mode is a key defense against fileless script-based attacks.

52
MCQmedium

You suspect a file on a Linux server is malicious. What command can you use to obtain the MD5 hash of the file?

A.checkhash [filename]
B.hash -md5 [filename]
C.md5sum [filename]
D.echo md5 [filename]
AnswerC

md5sum computes the MD5 message digest of the specified file and prints the 128-bit hash alongside the filename, giving an integrity value for comparison against known-good or threat-intelligence hashes. It is a standard coreutils utility present on virtually all Linux distributions.

Why this answer

The md5sum utility is the standard Linux command-line tool for computing and verifying MD5 message digests. Running 'md5sum [filename]' outputs the 128-bit MD5 hash followed by the filename, which is exactly what an incident responder needs to fingerprint a suspected malicious file. It is part of GNU coreutils and is present on virtually every Linux distribution by default.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse the shell builtin 'hash' (which caches command locations) with actual hashing utilities, or assume a generic 'hash -md5' syntax exists when Linux uses per-algorithm binaries like md5sum, sha1sum, and sha256sum.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'checkhash' is not a standard Linux command — no such utility exists in coreutils or common security toolkits, making it a fabricated distractor. Option B is wrong because 'hash' is a shell builtin used to look up command paths, and it has no '-md5' flag for computing file digests. Option D is wrong because 'echo md5 [filename]' merely prints the literal string 'md5' followed by the filename to stdout; it performs no hashing whatsoever.

53
MCQmedium

A malware incident has been contained and eradicated on an infected Windows server. Before returning the server to production, you need to verify that no malicious processes or unauthorized autostart entries remain. Which action best supports this validation?

A.Restore the server from a backup taken before the incident.
B.Reboot the server and confirm it boots successfully.
C.Run a full antivirus scan and review the scan report.
D.Compare current autoruns, services, scheduled tasks, and running processes against a known-good baseline.
AnswerD

Comparing current system state against a documented baseline reveals unauthorized autostart entries, rogue services, suspicious scheduled tasks, and unexpected processes. This manual validation catches persistence mechanisms that signature-based tools may miss. It directly addresses the need to confirm eradication before returning the server to production and supports accountability in the incident response process.

Why this answer

Validation after eradication requires confirming that no malicious persistence or processes remain. Comparing autoruns, services, scheduled tasks, and running processes against a known-good baseline exposes unauthorized changes that signature-based scans might overlook. This approach directly verifies the eradication was complete and supports a defensible decision to return the server to production.

Exam trap

The trap here is equating a clean antivirus scan or a successful reboot with full validation, when both can miss fileless malware and unauthorized autostart entries that only baseline comparison reveals.

54
Multi-Selectmedium

During a malware analysis, which TWO of the following indicators are typically used to identify persistence mechanisms in the Windows registry?

Select 2 answers
A.HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT\CLSID
B.HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Control Panel\Desktop
C.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\System\CurrentControlSet\Services
D.HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Explorer\MountPoints2
E.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run
AnswersC, E

The Services registry key under CurrentControlSet stores service definitions, including auto-start entries that malware abuses to launch at boot. Its presence in this hive is a recognised persistence indicator, satisfying the question's request for a registry-based persistence location.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the HKLM\System\CurrentControlSet\Services key stores configuration for Windows services, including the ImagePath and Start values that malware commonly abuses to register a malicious service (for example, a kernel driver or auto-start service) so it launches at boot. Option E is correct because the HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run key is a classic autostart location where entries execute programs at user logon, making it a primary persistence mechanism for malware. Option A is not a persistence indicator per se; HKCR\CLSID holds COM class registration data, which can be abused for hijacking but is not a standard auto-start persistence key.

Option B is not a persistence mechanism; the Control Panel\Desktop key stores user interface settings such as wallpaper and screen saver configuration. Option D is not a persistence mechanism; MountPoints2 records per-user mounted volume information and is more relevant to forensic artifact tracking than to autostart persistence.

55
MCQeasy

An incident handler is analyzing a malware incident that used a phishing email. What is the most important field to check in the email header to determine the true origin of the email?

A.Received header
B.Subject line
C.Message-ID
D.Content-Type
AnswerA

The Received header records each mail transfer agent hop, with the originating server listed bottom-up. Examining these entries reveals the true sending IP and relay path, which the From header can spoof, making it the key field for tracing origin.

Why this answer

The Received header is the most important field because each mail server that handles a message prepends its own Received header, creating a chronological chain that traces the message's path from origin to destination. By reading the headers bottom-up (oldest first), an investigator can identify the originating IP address and mail server, which is essential for determining the true source of a phishing email. Subject, Message-ID, and Content-Type can all be trivially spoofed or fabricated by the sender and carry no routing information.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests the misconception that Message-ID or Subject identifies the sender — candidates forget that only the Received chain carries routing evidence, and that it must be read bottom-up to find the true origin.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the Subject line is user-supplied text with no forensic value for origin tracing — attackers routinely craft innocuous or spoofed subjects. Option C is wrong because the Message-ID is generated by the sending mail system and can be arbitrarily forged; it identifies the message but not its path or origin. Option D is wrong because Content-Type merely describes the MIME structure of the message body (e.g., text/html, multipart/mixed) and reveals nothing about the sender's location or routing.

56
MCQhard

An incident handler is analyzing a malware sample that appears to be a ransomware variant. The sample encrypts files with a specific extension and drops a ransom note. The handler wants to determine the encryption algorithm used to potentially find weaknesses. Which artifact from the malware analysis is most directly useful to identify the encryption algorithm?

A.The ransom note text file
B.Disassembly of the encryption routine
C.The file extension appended to encrypted files
D.Strings extracted from the malware binary
AnswerB

Disassembling the encryption routine allows the handler to see the exact cryptographic APIs and constants used, such as AES, RSA, or Salsa20. By examining the code flow and calls to Windows CryptoAPI or custom implementations, the algorithm can be identified with high confidence. This is the most direct and reliable method to determine the encryption algorithm and assess potential weaknesses.

Why this answer

Disassembling the encryption routine provides the most definitive identification of the encryption algorithm by revealing the specific cryptographic functions and constants used. The ransom note, file extension, and strings may offer clues but lack the technical precision required. For ransomware analysis, understanding the algorithm is crucial for potential decryption or identifying implementation flaws.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that the file extension or ransom note will name the encryption algorithm, when they are often cosmetic and not technically informative.

57
MCQmedium

During a malware incident investigation on a Windows 10 workstation, you discover a scheduled task named 'MicrosoftEdgeUpdateTaskMachineCore' that launches 'C:\Users\Public\updater.exe' every 15 minutes. Legitimate Edge update tasks do not execute binaries from the Public profile. Which containment action best preserves volatile evidence while stopping the recurring malicious execution?

A.Delete 'C:\Users\Public\updater.exe' and remove the scheduled task definition from the registry hive offline
B.Run 'schtasks /Delete /TN "MicrosoftEdgeUpdateTaskMachineCore" /F' and reboot the workstation to clear the infection
C.Quarantine the workstation from the network and leave the scheduled task running so the attacker's behavior can be observed
D.Disable the scheduled task with 'schtasks /Change /TN "MicrosoftEdgeUpdateTaskMachineCore" /DISABLE', then capture a memory image of the running process
AnswerD

Disabling the task halts the recurring execution of the masquerading binary without destroying the running process or its volatile memory, and the subsequent memory capture preserves injected code, network sockets, and encryption keys that would be lost on reboot. This satisfies containment while retaining evidence needed for root-cause analysis and scope determination.

Why this answer

Disabling the malicious scheduled task halts reinfection while leaving the running process and its volatile state intact for memory acquisition, which is the priority during containment of a recurring execution mechanism. Deleting the task, rebooting, or removing the binary destroys evidence and prevents proper root-cause analysis and scoping.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that removing the persistence artifact (deleting the task or binary) is the safest containment step, when doing so destroys volatile evidence before it can be captured.

58
MCQmedium

You suspect a malware incident caused unauthorized data exfiltration. Which log source is most useful to identify the destination IP of the exfiltrated data?

A.Application logs
B.Local security policy settings
C.Firewall logs
D.System event logs
AnswerC

Firewall logs record permitted outbound connections with source, destination IP and port, so they reveal which external address received the exfiltrated traffic. Host-based logs show local activity but rarely the external destination, and application logs lack network detail.

Why this answer

Firewall logs provide a record of all outbound connections and are the most reliable source for identifying destination IP addresses in an exfiltration event.

59
MCQeasy

Which document is essential to maintain during a malware incident to ensure accountability and track the actions taken by the incident response team?

A.User Manual
B.Incident Log
C.System Backup
D.Vulnerability Assessment Report
AnswerB

An incident log records each action, timestamp and decision taken by the response team during the malware incident, providing the chronological audit trail needed to demonstrate accountability and support later review or legal proceedings. It satisfies the stem's accountability and action-tracking requirement.

Why this answer

An Incident Log (or Chain of Custody record) is critical for documenting every step, tool, and decision made during the response process.

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