Courseiva

CCNA First Response Questions

56 questions · First Response topic · All types, answers revealed

1
MCQmedium

You are a first responder dispatched to a compromised Windows 10 workstation. The system is still powered on and the user is logged in. Before isolating the machine from the network, you need to capture the current state of active network connections and the processes that own them. Which command should you run first?

A.netsh interface set interface "Ethernet" disable
B.netstat -anob
C.ipconfig /release
D.arp -a
AnswerB

The -a switch lists all connections and listening ports, -n prevents DNS resolution so results are immediate and unaltered, -o shows the owning process ID, and -b displays the executable name. Running this before network isolation preserves ephemeral connections tied to malicious processes that would otherwise be lost or reset.

Why this answer

Capturing active network connections with their owning processes is a high-priority volatile data collection step. The netstat command with all, numeric, owner, and binary switches reveals listening ports, established sessions, and the executables behind them. Doing this before isolating the host preserves evidence that disappears the moment connections are reset or the interface is disabled.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that isolation must happen before any collection, when network state is among the most volatile evidence and must be captured while the host is still connected.

2
MCQeasy

You are the first responder assigned to a suspected insider data theft case on a corporate Windows laptop. The machine is powered off and was handed to you by security personnel. Which step should you take first to preserve the integrity of the evidence?

A.Ask the suspect to provide their login password so you can access the profile directly.
B.Document the scene, photograph the laptop and its ports, and record the chain of custody before touching the device.
C.Remove the hard drive and connect it to your analysis workstation for immediate imaging.
D.Boot the laptop into Windows to check whether the suspect is still logged in and review recent files.
AnswerB

Documenting the physical state and initiating chain of custody before any interaction preserves the evidentiary value of the device. Photographs and written records establish that the laptop was received in a known condition, and the custody log creates an auditable trail that supports admissibility if the case proceeds to legal action.

Why this answer

Evidence preservation begins with documenting the scene and establishing chain of custody before any interaction with the device. Photographs, notes on ports and indicators, and a signed custody record create the foundation that makes later forensic work defensible. Only after this documentation should imaging or examination proceed, ensuring the device state is captured as received.

Exam trap

The trap here is jumping straight to imaging or booting the device, skipping the documentation and chain-of-custody steps that establish the evidence was untouched when received.

3
MCQeasy

When identifying stakeholders to notify during an incident, which group should be notified first?

A.The local police.
B.The incident response team.
C.The company board of directors.
D.The public.
AnswerB

The incident response team must be activated first because it owns containment, eradication and recovery. Notifying executives, legal or communications before the responders delays technical action, allowing the incident to spread while no one is yet investigating or containing it.

Why this answer

The incident response team (IRT) should be notified first because they are the designated group responsible for containing, investigating, and mitigating the incident. Early notification enables the IRT to assess the scope, activate the incident response plan, and coordinate all subsequent communications and actions. Notifying external parties or executives before the IRT can lead to uninformed decisions, delayed technical response, and potential escalation.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the escalation hierarchy: candidates often think executives or law enforcement should be notified first due to authority, but the IRT must be engaged first to handle the technical response.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because law enforcement is typically notified after the IRT has assessed the incident and determined that a crime may have occurred; premature notification can compromise evidence and waste resources. Option C is wrong because the board of directors is an executive oversight body that should be informed after the IRT has a preliminary understanding and containment strategy, not during the initial detection. Option D is wrong because the public should only be notified if the incident has a direct impact on them and after legal and PR guidance, as premature disclosure can cause panic and legal liabilities.

4
MCQeasy

During initial triage, you identify that a system's time is significantly out of sync with the NTP server. Why is this critical to record during the first response?

A.It is a sign of an active buffer overflow attack.
B.Because it indicates the BIOS battery is failing.
C.It affects the ability of the system to join the Active Directory domain.
D.To ensure that file system timestamps can be accurately correlated with other logs.
AnswerD

NTP drift skews local file system timestamps, so recording the offset lets investigators correct them before correlating against firewall, IDS and server logs. Without this, the timeline of intrusion events becomes unreliable, undermining attribution and scope determination during the first-response triage.

Why this answer

File system timestamps (MAC times — modify, access, change) are only meaningful when correlated against logs from other systems such as firewalls, IDS, and authentication servers. If the suspect host's clock is skewed, every timestamp it produces is offset by an unknown amount, making it impossible to build an accurate timeline of the intrusion. Recording the offset during first response lets investigators normalise the data later, preserving its evidentiary value.

Exam trap

The trap is that candidates focus on the operational symptom (AD join failure, hardware fault) rather than the forensic reason — the exam wants you to recognise that time skew destroys timeline correlation, not that it breaks authentication.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because clock drift is not a signature of a buffer overflow — buffer overflows manifest as crashes, memory corruption, or anomalous process behaviour, not time skew. Option B is wrong because a failing CMOS battery is a hardware maintenance issue; while it can cause clock drift, that is not why the offset matters forensically, and it is not the reason to record it during triage. Option C is wrong because Kerberos tolerates a default five-minute skew; AD join failures are a symptom, not the forensic rationale for documenting the time discrepancy.

5
MCQmedium

A first responder arrives at a workstation where an employee is suspected of exfiltrating data via a USB device. The machine is powered on with a screensaver active. The responder must capture the current physical memory contents for later analysis. Which action should the responder take first?

A.Perform a hard shutdown by holding the power button, then remove the drive for forensic imaging.
B.Document the screen contents with a photograph, then reboot into a forensic Linux distribution to capture memory.
C.Press Ctrl+Alt+Delete to unlock the session, then run a memory acquisition tool from a USB drive.
D.Use a validated hardware-based memory acquisition device that captures RAM without altering the running system.
AnswerD

Hardware acquisition tools interface directly with the memory bus or use DMA to read RAM without executing code on the host, preserving the integrity of volatile data. This minimizes changes to the system state while capturing the exact contents needed for analysis. It is the preferred method when live memory capture is required and the system must remain powered on.

Why this answer

Capturing physical memory from a live system requires a method that does not significantly alter the system state. A hardware-based acquisition device reads RAM directly, preserving volatile evidence such as running processes and network connections. Other options either destroy memory or introduce changes that compromise the evidence, making them unsuitable for this scenario.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any live memory capture tool is acceptable, when in fact introducing software or rebooting alters the evidence and defeats the purpose of volatile data collection.

6
MCQmedium

During the first response to a compromised Windows workstation, you must capture volatile memory before shutting the system down. Which tool or technique is designed to acquire the full physical memory image while preserving its integrity for later analysis?

A.Create a System Restore point and then copy the pagefile.sys file.
B.Use WinPmem or a similar memory acquisition tool to dump physical memory to a removable drive.
C.Export the Windows Event Logs to a CSV file on the local disk.
D.Run a full antivirus scan from a write-protected USB drive.
AnswerB

WinPmem and comparable tools are specifically designed to acquire a forensic image of physical memory while minimizing changes to the system. They produce a raw memory dump that can be analyzed for running processes, network connections, and injected code. This directly satisfies the requirement to capture volatile memory before shutdown, preserving evidence that would otherwise be lost.

Why this answer

Capturing physical memory is critical in incident response because it contains running processes, network connections, encryption keys, and malware that may exist only in RAM. Tools like WinPmem are purpose-built to create a forensic image of memory without significantly altering the system state. Other options either capture different data types or modify the system, which would compromise the integrity of the volatile evidence needed for analysis.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing memory acquisition with general forensic imaging or log collection, which do not capture the full contents of RAM.

7
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO types of evidence are considered 'volatile'?

Select 2 answers
A.Optical disc contents.
B.System memory (RAM).
C.Hard drive data.
D.Network connection state tables.
E.Printed log files.
AnswersB, D

System memory (RAM) is volatile because its contents are lost when power is removed, satisfying the stem's requirement for evidence that degrades quickly. RAM holds running processes, encryption keys and network connections that vanish on shutdown, so it must be captured first, before disk imaging, to preserve forensic artefacts.

Why this answer

RAM and network connections are lost when power is removed or the system is reset.

8
MCQhard

When investigating an incident on a virtualized platform (VMware), what is the first step to capture the state of the VM for analysis?

A.Take a VM snapshot with memory included.
B.Export the VM to OVF.
C.Power off the VM.
D.Clone the VM disk file.
AnswerA

A snapshot with memory captures the VM's volatile state, including running processes and RAM contents, alongside disk. This preserves forensic evidence that a disk-only snapshot or live login would alter, satisfying the requirement to capture the VM's state before any analysis begins.

Why this answer

For a virtualized platform like VMware, the first step to capture the state of a running VM for analysis is to take a snapshot that includes memory. This preserves the VM's disk and RAM state at a point in time, allowing later forensic analysis without altering the original. It is the virtual equivalent of capturing volatile memory and disk together.

Exam trap

The trap is choosing to power off or clone the disk; candidates must remember that memory capture is essential and snapshots with memory preserve the live state.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because exporting to OVF captures the VM's configuration and disk but not the running memory state, and it may require powering off. Option C is wrong because powering off the VM destroys volatile memory and changes the system state, losing evidence. Option D is wrong because cloning the disk file only captures disk data, not memory, and may not preserve the running state.

9
MCQmedium

You are the first responder dispatched to a workstation suspected of being compromised by a phishing payload. The user is still logged in and a suspicious process is actively communicating over the network. Before you begin any data collection, what should you do first?

A.Run a full antivirus scan to identify and remove the malicious files before collecting evidence.
B.Document the current state of the screen, running applications, and visible network activity using a camera or screenshot tool.
C.Immediately power off the workstation to prevent further malware execution and data exfiltration.
D.Disconnect the workstation from the network and then begin collecting the hard drive for forensic imaging.
AnswerB

Capturing the live screen state preserves volatile visual evidence such as open windows, command prompts, and error messages that may disappear once the system is powered down or the user logs off. This documentation is a critical first step in first response, as it provides context and corroboration for later forensic analysis without altering the system.

Why this answer

The first action in first response is to document the scene and capture volatile evidence before it is lost. Photographing or screenshotting the screen preserves visible indicators like open applications and network activity. Powering off, scanning, or disconnecting prematurely can destroy or alter critical volatile data that is essential for understanding the incident and supporting later forensic analysis.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that immediately powering off or disconnecting the system is the best way to preserve evidence, when in fact it destroys volatile data that should be documented first.

10
MCQeasy

A first responder arrives at a workstation where a user is suspected of exfiltrating data via a USB drive. The machine is still powered on. The responder must preserve the most volatile evidence first. Which artifact should be captured immediately?

A.The Windows Event Log files stored in C:\Windows\System32\winevt\Logs
B.A forensic image of the entire hard drive using a write-blocker
C.The contents of the pagefile.sys and hiberfil.sys files on the local disk
D.The current contents of physical memory (RAM) and running processes
AnswerD

RAM holds running processes, open network sockets, encryption keys, and volatile registry hives that vanish when power is removed. In a live USB exfiltration scenario, the responder must capture memory first because it contains the most perishable evidence, such as the process that accessed the USB device and any in-memory malware. This aligns with the order of volatility taught in incident handling.

Why this answer

The order of volatility dictates that the most perishable evidence be collected first. Physical memory and running processes are lost when the system is powered off, so they must be captured before any disk-based artifacts. Pagefile, hibernation files, disk images, and event logs are persistent and can be acquired afterward without losing their content.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that disk-based artifacts like the pagefile or event logs are as volatile as RAM because they may contain recent activity, when in fact they persist and can be collected later.

11
MCQeasy

What is the 'First Responder Toolkit' used for during an incident?

A.To install new security software.
B.To permanently delete malicious files.
C.To provide remote access for the attacker.
D.To collect forensic artifacts without modifying the target system.
AnswerD

The First Responder Toolkit contains write-blocked acquisition utilities that capture volatile memory, disk images and logs while preserving evidential integrity. Collecting artefacts without modifying the target system maintains the chain of custody, which is the toolkit's defining purpose during the initial incident response phase.

Why this answer

A first responder toolkit provides pre-configured, trusted tools for incident triage and data collection.

12
MCQhard

A first responder is documenting a compromised Linux server. The server's system clock is accurate, but the file timestamps show inconsistencies. The responder needs to preserve the file system metadata for later analysis. Which action should be taken first to ensure the integrity of the metadata?

A.Copy the files to an external drive using cp -p to preserve timestamps.
B.Create a forensic image of the disk using dd and then analyze the image.
C.Use the touch command to update the timestamps to the current time for consistency.
D.Run the stat command on each file and save the output to a text file on the same server.
AnswerB

Creating a forensic image with dd preserves the exact state of the file system, including metadata such as timestamps, permissions, and inodes. Analyzing the image instead of the live system prevents accidental modification of metadata. This is the first step to ensure integrity because it captures a bit-for-bit copy that can be verified with hashes. Subsequent analysis on the image does not alter the original evidence.

Why this answer

To preserve file system metadata integrity, a forensic image should be created before any analysis. Imaging with dd captures all data and metadata without alteration. Commands like stat or cp -p do not provide a complete, verifiable copy and may alter the original.

Modifying timestamps with touch destroys evidence. Therefore, the first step is to create a forensic image.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that copying files with cp -p or running stat is sufficient to preserve metadata, when in fact only a forensic image ensures no alteration and captures all metadata including deleted entries.

13
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE pieces of information should be recorded on a Chain of Custody (CoC) form when collecting a device?

Select 3 answers
A.Detailed physical description and identifiers (e.g., serial number).
B.Exact time and date of collection.
C.Name and signature of the individual collecting the item.
D.The social media passwords of the owner.
E.The home address of the user.
AnswersA, B, C

Recording a detailed physical description and unique identifiers such as serial numbers ties the evidence to the specific device, preventing substitution or ambiguity later. This supports the CoC requirement that every item be uniquely traceable throughout its custody.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because a Chain of Custody form must uniquely identify the evidence, so a detailed physical description (make, model, color, condition) plus unique identifiers such as the serial number, IMEI, or asset tag is recorded to distinguish the device from all others. Option B is correct because the exact time and date of collection establish when custody transferred and anchor the evidence timeline, which is essential for admissibility and for proving the item was not tampered with. Option C is correct because the name and signature of the individual collecting the item create accountability, showing exactly who took custody and enabling each subsequent transfer to be traced.

Option D is not included because owner social media passwords are not custody information and collecting them would be irrelevant and privacy-invasive. Option E is not included because the user's home address is not required to document the chain of custody of a device.

14
Multi-Selectmedium

You are a first responder tasked with collecting volatile data from a compromised Windows system. Which two of the following commands or tools are appropriate for capturing network connection information? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.route print
B.Get-NetTCPConnection
C.arp -a
D.ipconfig /all
E.netstat -ano
AnswersB, E

Get-NetTCPConnection is a PowerShell cmdlet that lists active TCP connections and their states. It provides similar information to netstat but in a structured, object-oriented format that can be easily exported or filtered. It is a legitimate tool for capturing volatile network connection data on Windows systems, especially in modern environments where PowerShell is available.

Why this answer

Capturing network connection information is critical to identify active communications, such as command-and-control channels. Both netstat -ano and Get-NetTCPConnection provide a list of active TCP connections and listening ports, along with the associated process IDs. These tools are built into Windows and can be run without additional software, making them ideal for first response.

Other commands like ipconfig, route print, and arp -a provide configuration or cache data but not active connection details.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing network configuration data (like ipconfig) with actual active connection data, which requires commands that list connections and listening ports.

15
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO items should be part of a first responder's physical toolkit?

Select 2 answers
A.A copy of all user passwords.
B.Bootable forensic collection drive.
C.Hardware write blocker.
D.A commercial email marketing tool.
E.A wireless router.
AnswersB, C

A bootable forensic collection drive lets the responder boot the suspect machine into a trusted environment, capturing volatile memory and disk images without altering the installed operating system. This satisfies the stem's physical toolkit requirement by enabling evidence preservation at the scene before any shutdown or tampering occurs.

Why this answer

A first responder's physical toolkit must enable volatile and non-volatile evidence capture without altering the original media, so option B (a bootable forensic collection drive) is correct because it lets the responder boot a trusted forensic environment and run imaging/hashing tools (e.g., dd, FTK Imager, EnCase) to acquire a bit-for-bit copy of the suspect system while preserving integrity. Option C (a hardware write blocker) is also correct because it enforces a read-only connection between the suspect drive and the acquisition host at the hardware level, preventing any writes or metadata changes that would break the chain of custody and violate the order of volatility. Option A is wrong because storing all user passwords is a security and privacy risk and is not a legitimate forensic collection tool; credentials should be obtained through proper legal/administrative channels, not carried by responders.

Option D is wrong because a commercial email marketing tool has no role in evidence acquisition or preservation. Option E is wrong because a wireless router is network infrastructure, not a standard first-responder forensic collection item, and introducing one could alter the environment rather than preserve it.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests the difference between tools that preserve evidence integrity (write blockers, bootable forensic media) and items that sound technical but have no forensic role, trapping candidates who pick generic IT gear.

16
MCQhard

You are investigating a Linux server breach. You need to capture the current state of network connections without altering the evidence. Which command-line tool is preferred by first responders?

A.tcpdump -i eth0
B.lsof -i
C.ss -tupn
D.iptables -L
AnswerC

The `ss -tupn` command reads live socket tables directly from the kernel, listing TCP and UDP connections with numeric ports and owning processes. Unlike `netstat`, it does not write to disk or modify connection state, satisfying the requirement to capture current network connections without altering evidence.

Why this answer

The ss command is preferred by first responders because it is part of the iproute2 package and is designed to be faster and more informative than netstat, showing detailed socket information including process IDs and network namespaces. It captures current network connections without altering evidence, as it reads from kernel structures. tcpdump captures packets but may not show current connections and can alter system state by putting interface in promiscuous mode. lsof -i lists open files including network connections but may be slower and less comprehensive. iptables -L lists firewall rules, not current connections.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests the preference for ss over netstat or tcpdump in live response, as candidates may choose tcpdump for network capture but forget that it does not provide a snapshot of current connections and may alter evidence.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because tcpdump -i eth0 captures live network traffic, which is not the same as capturing the current state of network connections; it also may require promiscuous mode, potentially altering evidence and not providing a snapshot of existing connections. Option B is wrong because lsof -i lists open files and network connections but is not specifically designed for first responders and may not show all socket details as efficiently as ss. Option D is wrong because iptables -L displays firewall rules, not active network connections, so it does not capture the current state of connections.

17
MCQhard

A first responder is preparing to acquire a forensic image of a running Linux server's physical memory. The server has 64 GB of RAM and is critical to business operations. The responder must ensure the integrity of the memory image and minimize disruption. Which of the following is the most appropriate action?

A.Run the free command to document memory usage and proceed with disk imaging.
B.Reboot the server into single-user mode and then capture memory.
C.Use the dd command to copy /dev/mem to an external drive.
D.Load a kernel module such as LiME to capture memory to an external drive.
AnswerD

LiME (Linux Memory Extractor) is a loadable kernel module designed for forensically sound memory acquisition on Linux. It captures physical memory to a file or over the network, minimizing the footprint on the target system. It handles large memory sizes and produces an image that can be analyzed with tools like Volatility. Loading a kernel module is a controlled action that does not require rebooting and preserves the system's running state. This is the preferred method for live Linux memory acquisition.

Why this answer

For live memory acquisition on Linux, LiME is the preferred tool because it is a kernel module that captures physical memory in a forensically sound manner without rebooting. It handles large memory sizes and produces an image suitable for analysis. Using dd on /dev/mem is unreliable, rebooting destroys memory, and free only shows usage statistics.

Therefore, loading LiME is the correct approach to preserve the 64 GB of RAM while minimizing disruption.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that traditional disk-imaging commands like dd are suitable for memory acquisition, when specialized tools like LiME are required for reliable and forensically sound capture.

18
MCQeasy

A first responder is called to investigate a suspected malware infection on a Windows workstation. The responder needs to quickly determine which processes are currently running and their associated command-line arguments. Which native Windows tool should the responder use?

A.Task Manager
B.wmic process get name,commandline
C.msconfig
D.perfmon
AnswerB

The Windows Management Instrumentation Command-line (WMIC) utility can retrieve detailed process information, including full command-line arguments, using a simple query. This is a native tool available on most Windows systems and provides a comprehensive, scriptable way to capture process data without installing third-party software, making it ideal for first response.

Why this answer

The wmic process get name,commandline command uses native Windows Management Instrumentation to list all running processes along with their full command-line arguments. This is a quick, scriptable method that does not require third-party tools, allowing a first responder to identify suspicious processes and their execution parameters efficiently.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that Task Manager or msconfig shows command-line arguments, when in fact they either hide them or serve a different purpose entirely.

19
MCQmedium

You are responding to a web-based attack. Which log source is most critical for identifying the origin of a SQL injection attempt?

A.DHCP logs.
B.Windows System Event log.
C.Application crash dumps.
D.Web server access logs.
AnswerD

Web server access logs record each HTTP request with source IP, timestamp, URL and query string, so the injected SQL payload and originating address are captured there, unlike application or database logs that may omit the client's network origin.

Why this answer

Web server access logs record every HTTP request, including the full URL, query string, HTTP method, user agent, and source IP address. A SQL injection attempt typically appears in the query string or POST body parameters, and the source IP in the access log identifies the origin of the request. This makes access logs the most critical source for tracing the origin of a web-based SQLi attack.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests log source selection, tricking candidates into choosing DHCP logs for IP attribution when the actual attack evidence (payload and request details) resides in web server access logs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DHCP logs only map IP addresses to MAC addresses and lease times; they help identify a device but do not contain the HTTP request details needed to detect or trace SQL injection. Option B is wrong because Windows System Event logs record OS-level events like service starts and errors, not web application requests. Option C is wrong because application crash dumps capture memory state at failure, which may show exploitation but does not reliably identify the origin IP or the injection payload.

20
MCQmedium

You are performing an investigation on a compromised mobile device. What is the primary risk of connecting the device to a standard workstation without a write blocker?

A.The battery will drain faster.
B.The workstation might write metadata or sync files, altering the original evidence.
C.The workstation will be instantly infected.
D.The device will automatically wipe itself.
AnswerB

Connecting the device lets the workstation mount it as a writable volume, so the operating system or sync services can update timestamps, journal entries and file metadata. That violates the forensic requirement to preserve the original evidence unaltered, which a hardware write blocker prevents by enforcing read-only access at the block level.

Why this answer

Connecting a mobile device without a physical or software write blocker can lead to automatic synchronization or data modification by the host OS.

21
MCQmedium

A first responder arrives at a workstation that is suspected of being compromised by a Remote Access Trojan (RAT). The user reports the machine has been running slowly and the network activity LED is constantly blinking. The responder decides to capture volatile network connection data before any other action. Which of the following commands should the responder use to display active network connections and the associated process IDs on a Windows system?

A.net view
B.netstat -ano
C.nbtstat -c
D.ipconfig /displaydns
AnswerB

The -a switch shows all active connections and listening ports, -n displays addresses and port numbers numerically (avoiding DNS lookups that could alter evidence), and -o includes the owning process ID (PID). This directly provides the mapping between network connections and processes, which is critical for identifying the RAT process. It is a built-in Windows command that does not require additional tools and minimally alters the system state.

Why this answer

The responder needs to capture volatile network connection data with process attribution. The netstat -ano command combines all connections, numeric output, and process IDs, providing a snapshot of active network activity and the processes responsible. This is essential for identifying a RAT that maintains a persistent connection.

Other commands either show different network information or lack process mapping, making them unsuitable for this specific first response task.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any network-related command will capture active connections with process IDs, but many only show cached or configuration data without real-time process mapping.

22
MCQhard

You are investigating a suspected rootkit. Which area of the operating system should you examine for unauthorized boot-time execution?

A.The browser cache.
B.The user profile folder.
C.The temporary files directory.
D.The Master Boot Record (MBR) or EFI partition.
AnswerD

The MBR and EFI system partition hold boot code executed before the OS loads, so a rootkit placed there gains persistent pre-OS execution and evades file-system scanning. Registry Run keys and services load later, making them less suitable for boot-time persistence.

Why this answer

The Master Boot Record (MBR) or EFI partition is the correct area to examine because rootkits often persist by modifying the boot process. The MBR (on BIOS systems) or EFI System Partition (on UEFI systems) contains the initial boot code that runs before the operating system loads, making it a prime location for bootkits—a type of rootkit that executes at boot time. By compromising these areas, malware can gain control early, hide its presence, and load before security defenses.

Thus, examining the MBR/EFI partition is critical for detecting unauthorized boot-time execution.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing general malware persistence locations (like user profiles or temp directories) with boot-time execution mechanisms; candidates might overlook that rootkits specifically target the boot process for early execution.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the browser cache stores temporary web content and does not execute at boot time; it is not a persistence mechanism for rootkits. Option B is wrong because the user profile folder contains user-specific data and settings, but it does not control boot-time execution; while malware can reside there, it does not inherently run at boot without other mechanisms. Option C is wrong because the temporary files directory holds transient files that are not executed during the boot process; it is not a location for boot-time persistence.

23
MCQmedium

You are documenting an incident and need to record the time of the event. Why is accurate time synchronization critical?

A.To correlate events across different log sources accurately.
B.To ensure the server doesn't crash.
C.To comply with user privacy laws.
D.To make the report look professional.
AnswerA

Accurate time synchronisation, typically via NTP, ensures timestamps from firewalls, servers and endpoints align on a common clock. Without it, correlating events across disparate log sources during incident documentation becomes unreliable, since drift obscures the true sequence of activity.

Why this answer

Accurate time synchronization is critical because incident responders must reconstruct the sequence of events from logs generated by many different devices (firewalls, servers, IDS, endpoints). If each device's clock drifts, timestamps cannot be reliably aligned, making it impossible to prove causality or build a defensible timeline. Standards such as RFC 5905 (NTP) and ISO 27037 emphasize synchronized, verifiable timestamps for evidence integrity.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing operational reliability (crashes, uptime) with evidentiary integrity — candidates who don't work in IR may pick 'server crash' because they associate time with system health rather than log correlation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because time synchronization has no bearing on server stability or crash prevention — clock drift affects logging accuracy, not kernel or process health. Option C is wrong because privacy laws (e.g., GDPR) govern data handling and consent, not clock accuracy; time sync is an evidentiary and operational control. Option D is wrong because professional appearance is cosmetic; the real driver is forensic correlation and legal defensibility of the incident timeline.

24
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO criteria must a first responder satisfy when choosing a tool for a toolkit?

Select 2 answers
A.The tool must run on a cloud-based server.
B.The tool must be known to have minimal impact on the target system.
C.The tool must be fully documented and trusted.
D.The tool must be proprietary and expensive.
E.The tool must be able to delete the malware.
AnswersB, C

Minimal system impact preserves volatile evidence such as memory-resident artefacts and running processes, which forensic toolkits must capture before they are altered. This criterion directly satisfies the stem's requirement that a first responder choose tools that avoid disturbing the target system during live acquisition, keeping collected data forensically sound and admissible.

Why this answer

Tools must be trusted and cause minimal impact on the subject system.

25
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE categories of stakeholders should be considered for notification in a major data breach?

Select 3 answers
A.The local coffee shop staff.
B.Legal and Compliance departments.
C.Privacy Officer.
D.IT Management.
E.The company's external social media followers.
AnswersB, C, D

Legal and compliance teams must be notified because they own statutory breach-reporting duties, assessing jurisdiction-specific deadlines and regulator obligations. They interpret contractual notification clauses and privacy legislation, determining what the organisation must disclose and when. This satisfies the stem's requirement to identify stakeholders whose remit directly governs breach notification decisions.

Why this answer

Legal, IT Management, and the Privacy Officer are critical stakeholders during a breach.

26
MCQmedium

You are handling a ransomware incident. Which step should be taken before attempting any file recovery?

A.Reimage the machine.
B.Delete all encrypted files.
C.Identify and preserve the encrypted samples and memory state.
D.Pay the ransom.
AnswerC

Preserving encrypted samples and volatile memory captures the encryption artefacts and any residual keys or processes before remediation alters them. This satisfies the forensic requirement to secure evidence first, since recovery attempts overwrite memory and destroy indicators needed to identify the ransomware strain and decryption viability.

Why this answer

It is critical to preserve the existing state for potential forensic analysis or decryptor key extraction before trying to recover files.

27
MCQmedium

A first responder is collecting evidence from a compromised Windows server. The server is still running, and the responder needs to preserve the current state of network connections and the associated processes. Which command should the responder use to capture this information?

A.ipconfig /all
B.systeminfo
C.tasklist /v
D.netstat -ano
AnswerD

The netstat -ano command displays all active TCP and UDP connections, listening ports, and the owning process ID (PID) for each connection. This is exactly what the responder needs to correlate network activity with running processes. The -a shows all connections, -n displays addresses numerically, and -o gives the PID. This output is volatile and should be saved to external media for later analysis. It is a standard first response command on Windows systems.

Why this answer

To capture current network connections and the associated processes on a Windows server, the responder should use netstat -ano. This command shows all connections, listening ports, and the owning process ID, allowing correlation between network activity and running processes. The other commands provide configuration, process list, or system information but do not capture the required network state.

Therefore, netstat -ano is the correct choice for preserving this volatile evidence.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing network configuration commands like ipconfig with network state commands like netstat, which show active connections and owning processes.

28
MCQeasy

Which of the following is an example of a non-volatile data source?

A.Processor Cache.
B.Network state table.
C.Hard Disk Drive.
D.System RAM.
AnswerC

A hard disk drive retains its stored data when power is removed, unlike RAM or cache, which lose contents on shutdown. This persistence satisfies the question's requirement for a non-volatile source, making it the appropriate example of storage that survives power loss.

Why this answer

A hard disk drive (HDD) is a non-volatile storage device — it retains data even when power is removed, because data is stored magnetically on platters. This makes it a classic example of a non-volatile data source in digital forensics, where investigators seek persistent artifacts like files, logs, and registry hives.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing volatile memory (RAM, cache, network tables) with non-volatile storage. Candidates who don't internalize the power-off test may pick 'System RAM' because it stores data, forgetting that it loses it without power.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because processor cache is volatile SRAM inside the CPU; its contents are lost when power is removed and it is not a persistent forensic source. Option B is wrong because a network state table (e.g., ARP cache, routing table, connection tracking table) is maintained in volatile memory and disappears on reboot or power loss. Option D is wrong because system RAM is volatile DRAM — it holds running processes and temporary data only while powered, and is lost on shutdown (though it can be captured via memory forensics before power-off).

29
MCQmedium

You are performing initial containment on a cloud-based AWS EC2 instance. The instance is under a DDoS attack. What is the most effective way to isolate this specific resource?

A.Stop the EC2 instance immediately.
B.Remove the VPC from the region.
C.Delete the EC2 instance.
D.Modify the assigned Security Group to restrict all inbound/outbound traffic.
AnswerD

Security Groups act as stateful virtual firewalls at the instance's elastic network interface, so restricting all inbound and outbound rules immediately severs the EC2 instance's traffic without terminating it — satisfying the containment requirement while preserving forensic state.

Why this answer

Modifying the assigned Security Group to restrict all inbound and outbound traffic is the most effective way to isolate the EC2 instance because it immediately cuts off all network communication while preserving the instance's state for forensic analysis. This action is reversible and does not destroy evidence. Stopping the instance may still allow some network activity during shutdown and can lose volatile memory.

Deleting the instance destroys evidence. Removing the VPC is overly broad and affects other resources.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests the difference between containment and eradication, as candidates may choose to stop or delete the instance, which destroys evidence, rather than isolating it with Security Groups.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because stopping the EC2 instance may not immediately isolate it; it could take time, and the instance might still be reachable during shutdown, plus it loses volatile memory which is valuable for forensics. Option B is wrong because removing the VPC from the region is a drastic action that would affect all resources in the VPC, not just the instance, and is not a precise isolation method. Option C is wrong because deleting the EC2 instance destroys all evidence and does not allow for forensic analysis.

30
MCQhard

You are performing a triage on a server and see unauthorized outbound connections to a foreign IP. What is the best way to determine which process initiated the connection?

A.ping the IP address.
B.Run 'netstat -ano' to map the connection to a PID.
C.Check the ARP table.
D.Use 'ipconfig /all'.
AnswerB

netstat -ano lists active connections with their owning process ID, letting you correlate the foreign IP connection to the exact process. This maps network activity to a PID, which you then resolve to an executable, directly identifying the initiating process.

Why this answer

On Windows, 'netstat -ano' lists active connections with the owning Process ID (PID) via the -o switch, letting you map the foreign IP connection to the exact process. You then correlate the PID to a process name using Task Manager or 'tasklist /fi "pid eq <PID>"'. This is the fastest triage method to identify the responsible binary.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing network diagnostic tools — candidates may pick ARP or ping thinking they 'trace' the connection, but only netstat -ano maps a live connection to its owning process via PID.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because ping only tests ICMP reachability to the IP and reveals nothing about which local process opened the connection. Option C is wrong because the ARP table maps IP addresses to MAC addresses on the local subnet; it does not identify processes and is useless for foreign IPs beyond the local segment. Option D is wrong because 'ipconfig /all' displays local interface configuration (IP, DNS, MAC) and has no visibility into active connections or their owning processes.

31
MCQmedium

When documenting evidence for a forensic investigation, you are required to establish a chain of custody. Which information is considered mandatory for each entry in the chain of custody log to satisfy legal requirements?

A.Name of the person transferring the evidence, the receiver, date/time, and the specific storage location.
B.The name of the software used to perform the collection.
C.The BIOS serial number and hard drive firmware version.
D.The hash values of the collected files.
AnswerA

Legally defensible chain of custody requires each transfer to record who released the evidence, who received it, the exact date and time, and where it was stored. These four elements let a court trace unbroken possession from seizure to presentation.

Why this answer

A chain of custody log must document the sequence of custody, control, transfer, and disposition of evidence. Mandatory entries include the name of the person transferring the evidence, the receiver, the date and time of transfer, and the specific storage location. This information ensures that evidence is admissible in legal proceedings by proving it has not been tampered with.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests the distinction between chain of custody documentation and forensic report details, tempting candidates to include technical data like hashes or software names in the custody log.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the name of the software used for collection is part of the forensic report, not the chain of custody log; while it may be referenced, it is not a mandatory entry for each custody transfer. Option C is wrong because BIOS serial number and hard drive firmware version are technical details that may be documented during acquisition but are not required for each chain of custody entry. Option D is wrong because hash values are critical for verifying integrity but are typically recorded in the forensic report and on the evidence bag, not as a mandatory field for every custody transfer entry.

32
MCQhard

During an incident, a responder needs to capture the ARP cache to identify potential local spoofing. Which tool provides this information?

A.ipconfig /displaydns
B.route print
C.arp -a
D.netstat -s
AnswerC

The arp -a command displays the local ARP cache, listing IP-to-MAC mappings for recently contacted hosts. Inspecting these entries reveals duplicate or conflicting MAC addresses indicative of ARP spoofing on the local segment, satisfying the responder's need.

Why this answer

The 'arp -a' command shows the current Address Resolution Protocol cache on a Windows or Linux system.

33
Multi-Selectmedium

During the triage of a Linux server, you suspect a rootkit is intercepting system calls. Which THREE actions are appropriate for the first responder to perform to gather evidence of the rootkit?

Select 3 answers
A.Compare the md5sum of critical binaries against a known-good baseline.
B.Capture a full memory dump for offline analysis with Volatility.
C.Reinstall the OS immediately to ensure cleanliness.
D.Run 'chkdsk' to look for file system errors.
E.Run 'lsmod' to identify suspicious or unsigned kernel modules.
AnswersA, B, E

Rootkits often replace or trojanise system binaries, so hashing critical executables and comparing against a trusted baseline reveals tampering. This satisfies the need to gather evidence of intercepted system calls without altering the compromised host.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because comparing md5sum hashes of critical binaries (e.g., /bin/ls, /bin/ps) against a known-good baseline detects trojanized executables that a rootkit may have replaced. Option B is correct because a rootkit intercepting system calls often resides in kernel memory, and capturing a full memory dump for offline analysis with Volatility preserves volatile evidence such as hidden processes, hooks, and loaded modules. Option E is correct because running 'lsmod' lists loaded kernel modules, allowing the responder to spot suspicious or unsigned modules that could implement the system-call interception.

Option C is not appropriate because reinstalling the OS destroys evidence and is a remediation step, not evidence gathering. Option D is not appropriate because 'chkdsk' is a Windows utility for file-system errors and is irrelevant on Linux, where fsck would be used and would not reveal a rootkit.

Exam trap

The trap is that remediation actions (reinstall OS) and generic troubleshooting commands (chkdsk) look like reasonable first-responder steps, but the exam tests whether you know that evidence preservation must precede remediation and that chkdsk is Windows-only.

34
MCQhard

During a first response to a Linux web server suspected of compromise, you notice that the root account's command history file has been truncated and that the system binaries /bin/ps and /bin/netstat have modification times newer than the kernel package. You must preserve trustworthy evidence. Which action best addresses the integrity concern before you rely on those binaries?

A.Change the file modification timestamps back to their original values using touch, then proceed with normal collection.
B.Run the binaries from a statically linked trusted toolkit on read-only media and compare their output with the on-disk versions.
C.Reinstall the procps and net-tools packages from the distribution repository, then rerun ps and netstat.
D.Reboot into single-user mode so the binaries are reloaded fresh from disk before collecting data.
AnswerB

Using a statically linked toolkit on read-only media ensures the tools you execute are not the potentially trojanized system binaries. Comparing outputs reveals discrepancies that indicate userland rootkit tampering, while the read-only medium guarantees your collection tools cannot be altered by the compromised host during the response.

Why this answer

When system binaries may be trojanized, output from those binaries cannot be trusted. Executing equivalent tools from a statically linked toolkit on read-only media removes dependence on the compromised userland, and side-by-side comparison highlights discrepancies caused by rootkit replacement. This preserves both the original tampered binaries as evidence and the integrity of the collected data.

Exam trap

The trap here is trusting the output of on-disk system utilities on a host where userland binaries show signs of tampering, instead of using known-good tools from external media.

35
MCQmedium

You need to capture forensic data from a Windows machine using a remote agent. What is the risk of using built-in administrative tools like PowerShell for this?

A.They leave significant forensic footprints on the target system.
B.They are always blocked by the firewall.
C.They cannot collect binary data.
D.They require the system to be offline.
AnswerA

PowerShell and similar built-in administrative tools write to event logs, prefetch, and command history, altering the target system's state and overwriting volatile evidence. This satisfies the stem's remote-agent constraint by showing that such tools compromise forensic integrity through unavoidable artefacts on the machine being examined.

Why this answer

Built-in administrative tools like PowerShell are already present on Windows and, when used for remote forensic collection, generate artifacts — command history, event logs (e.g., PowerShell Operational log, Event ID 4104 script block logging), prefetch entries, and process creation events (4688). These footprints can alert an attacker, contaminate the evidence, and complicate the timeline reconstruction. That is the primary risk of using them for live forensic acquisition.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming built-in tools are 'safe' because they are native — candidates overlook that their very presence and logging create forensic footprints that can alert attackers and taint evidence.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because PowerShell is not 'always blocked by the firewall' — it is a local tool and typically allowed; firewall rules govern network traffic, not local script execution. Option C is wrong because PowerShell can collect binary data (it can read files, registry hives, and memory via cmdlets or .NET calls), so the claim that it cannot collect binary data is false. Option D is wrong because remote agents are specifically designed to collect from live, running systems — requiring the system to be offline contradicts the premise of remote forensic acquisition and is not a risk of PowerShell.

36
MCQhard

During a forensic investigation of a compromised Linux server, you need to collect volatile data from memory. The server is running critical services and cannot be taken offline. Which method is most appropriate for capturing memory while minimizing disruption?

A.Use the dd command to copy /dev/mem to an external drive.
B.Install and run a kernel module such as LiME (Linux Memory Extractor) to dump memory to a remote location or external storage.
C.Use the gcore command to dump the memory of all running processes, then combine them into a single image.
D.Trigger a kernel panic to force a memory dump to the swap partition, then recover it later.
AnswerB

LiME is a loadable kernel module designed for volatile memory acquisition on Linux. It allows capturing memory to a file or over the network without requiring a system reboot, minimizing disruption to running services. It is a widely accepted tool in incident response for live memory forensics, ensuring evidence integrity and minimal impact.

Why this answer

LiME is specifically designed for live memory acquisition on Linux, allowing responders to capture RAM without rebooting or significantly disrupting services. It loads as a kernel module and can write the memory image to a file or send it over the network, preserving evidence integrity. Other methods like /dev/mem or gcore are either unreliable, incomplete, or disruptive, making LiME the most appropriate choice for this scenario.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that traditional tools like dd on /dev/mem or gcore can capture full system memory, when they are actually limited or obsolete for modern Linux systems.

37
MCQmedium

You are analyzing an incident where a user account is being used to exfiltrate data. What is the most immediate action to contain the account?

A.Delete the user account.
B.Delete the user's home directory.
C.Lock the user's computer.
D.Reset the user password and invalidate active sessions.
AnswerD

Resetting the password and revoking active sessions immediately terminates the attacker's authenticated access, satisfying the containment requirement. Password reset alone leaves stolen tokens valid, so session invalidation is essential to stop ongoing exfiltration through the compromised account.

Why this answer

Resetting the password and invalidating active sessions immediately cuts off the attacker's access while preserving the account and its data for forensic investigation. This contains the incident without destroying evidence, and it revokes any stolen session tokens or cookies the attacker may be using. It is the standard first containment step for a compromised account.

Exam trap

The trap is choosing the most destructive action (delete account) as 'containment' — candidates equate removal with containment, but forensics and session revocation require preserving the account while cutting off access.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because deleting the account destroys forensic evidence (logs, mailbox, files) and may violate retention policies; it also does not immediately terminate active sessions if tokens remain valid. Option B is wrong because deleting the home directory destroys user data and evidence, and it does nothing to stop the attacker if they are using a different session or cached credentials. Option C is wrong because locking the physical computer does not revoke the attacker's remote access — they may be connecting from elsewhere using stolen credentials or tokens, so the account itself must be secured.

38
MCQhard

You are the first responder to a Linux server that is suspected of being compromised. You need to collect volatile data in the order of volatility. Which command should you run first to capture the most volatile data?

A.netstat -antp
B.cat /var/log/auth.log
C.df -h
D.ps aux
AnswerA

Network connections are highly volatile and can disappear quickly, especially if an attacker closes a backdoor or the connection times out. The netstat -antp command shows active TCP connections, listening ports, and associated processes, which is critical for identifying command-and-control channels. Capturing this before other data aligns with the order of volatility, as network state is more ephemeral than process lists or disk information.

Why this answer

The order of volatility guides first responders to collect the most perishable data first. Network connections are extremely volatile and can be lost within seconds if an attacker disconnects or a timeout occurs. Capturing them with netstat -antp provides immediate insight into active sessions and listening services.

Process lists and disk logs, while important, are less volatile and can be collected subsequently without as much risk of loss.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that process listings are the most volatile and should be captured first, when network connections actually change more rapidly.

39
MCQeasy

A first responder is called to a small office where an employee's laptop is suspected of being infected with malware. The laptop is powered on and the employee is logged in. The responder needs to preserve the most volatile evidence before any other action. Which of the following should the responder do first?

A.Shut down the laptop and remove the hard drive.
B.Run a full antivirus scan to remove the malware.
C.Take photographs of the screen and surroundings.
D.Capture the contents of RAM using a forensic tool.
AnswerD

RAM is the most volatile evidence and contains running processes, network connections, and potentially encryption keys. Capturing it first preserves data that would be lost on shutdown or reboot. The responder should use a trusted memory acquisition tool from external media to avoid contamination. This aligns with the order of volatility and ensures that critical evidence is not destroyed by subsequent actions. Memory capture is a foundational step in first response for live systems.

Why this answer

The order of volatility requires that the most perishable evidence be collected first. RAM contains running processes, network connections, and encryption keys that are lost on shutdown. Capturing memory before any other action preserves this critical evidence.

Photographs, antivirus scans, and shutdown all either fail to capture volatile data or actively destroy it. Therefore, memory acquisition is the correct first step for a live system suspected of malware infection.

Exam trap

The trap here is prioritizing physical documentation or remediation over the capture of volatile memory, which is the most perishable evidence.

40
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions are recommended for evidence preservation in a digital incident?

Select 2 answers
A.Reboot the system to clear temporary files.
B.Calculate cryptographic hashes for all collected files.
C.Modify file permissions to prevent further access.
D.Maintain a formal chain of custody log for all evidence.
E.Delete all temporary logs to save space.
AnswersB, D

Cryptographic hashes produce a fixed-length digest of each collected file. Recomputing and comparing hashes later proves the evidence has not been altered, satisfying the stem's evidence-preservation requirement by establishing verifiable integrity for the digital incident investigation.

Why this answer

Hashing ensures integrity, and chain of custody ensures legal admissibility.

41
MCQhard

During an incident response engagement, a first responder is collecting volatile data from a compromised Windows server. The responder needs to capture the current network connections, including the process ID associated with each connection, without installing any third-party tools. Which native Windows command should the responder use?

A.net session
B.netstat -ano
C.tasklist /svc
D.ipconfig /displaydns
AnswerB

The netstat -ano command displays all active connections and listening ports, with the -o switch showing the owning process ID and -a showing all connections. This is a native Windows utility that requires no third-party installation, making it ideal for first response when tool deployment is restricted. It provides critical mapping between network activity and processes.

Why this answer

The netstat -ano command is a native Windows utility that lists all active network connections and listening ports along with the owning process ID. This allows a first responder to quickly identify which process is associated with a suspicious connection, enabling immediate containment or further analysis without introducing third-party tools that could alter the system.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing network connection enumeration with DNS cache or session listing, which provide different, non-overlapping information and do not map connections to processes.

42
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE pieces of information should be included in an incident triage report?

Select 3 answers
A.The date and time of the incident discovery.
B.The private health records of the affected users.
C.The systems and services impacted by the incident.
D.The initial findings or indicators of compromise (IOCs).
E.The names of all employees who have access to the building.
AnswersA, C, D

Recording the date and time of incident discovery establishes the authoritative timeline anchor for the triage report. It supports containment decisions, regulatory notification deadlines and later forensic reconstruction, giving responders a precise reference point for measuring detection and response intervals.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because recording the date and time of incident discovery establishes the timeline anchor needed for triage prioritization, SLA tracking, and later forensic reconstruction of the event sequence. Option C is correct because identifying the systems and services impacted scopes the incident, enabling responders to determine business impact, prioritize containment, and decide whether escalation or isolation is required. Option D is correct because initial findings or indicators of compromise (IOCs) such as suspicious IP addresses, file hashes, or anomalous log entries give the triage team the technical evidence needed to classify the incident and guide the immediate response.

Option B is not appropriate because private health records are sensitive PII/PHI that are irrelevant to triage and would introduce unnecessary privacy and compliance risk. Option E is not appropriate because a list of employees with building access is unrelated to the technical and operational facts needed to triage a security incident.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests the boundary between 'useful incident data' and 'sensitive personal data,' trapping candidates who include PII/PHI or unrelated HR information in what should be a focused technical triage report.

43
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of a write blocker in a forensic investigation?

A.To speed up data transfer.
B.To ensure no data is modified on the source media.
C.To encrypt the data on the drive.
D.To allow multiple people to read the drive.
AnswerB

A write blocker intercepts write commands at the hardware interface, allowing the examiner to read the drive while physically preventing any modification. This preserves the source media's integrity, satisfying the forensic requirement that evidence remain unaltered and admissible.

Why this answer

A write blocker is a hardware or software tool that prevents any write operations to the source media during forensic imaging. Its primary purpose is to ensure the integrity of evidence by guaranteeing that no data is modified on the original drive, preserving its admissibility in court.

Exam trap

The trap is thinking write blockers are for speed or encryption; candidates must remember their sole purpose is to prevent modification of source media.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because write blockers do not speed up data transfer; they may even slow it slightly due to interception. Option C is wrong because write blockers do not encrypt data; encryption is a separate function. Option D is wrong because write blockers do not enable multiple readers; they simply prevent writes, and multiple access is not their purpose.

44
MCQeasy

Which documentation is required when transferring physical evidence from a responder to a forensic lab?

A.User access log.
B.Incident summary report.
C.Chain of Custody form.
D.Asset inventory list.
AnswerC

A Chain of Custody form records each transfer, handler, date and purpose, preserving evidence integrity and admissibility. It satisfies the scenario's requirement to document the handover from responder to forensic lab, ensuring an unbroken, auditable trail that courts accept.

Why this answer

The Chain of Custody form is the mandatory documentation that records the chronological sequence of custody, control, transfer, and disposition of physical evidence. When evidence moves from a responder to a forensic lab, the form captures who had it, when, where, and for what purpose, ensuring the evidence's integrity is admissible in legal proceedings.

Exam trap

The trap is selecting a document that sounds official (incident summary report) instead of the specific legal instrument (Chain of Custody form). Candidates must recognize that evidence transfer requires a dedicated custody record, not a narrative report.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a user access log records system or application access events; it is not evidence-handling documentation and does not track physical custody. Option B is wrong because an incident summary report describes the incident's nature, impact, and response actions — it does not document the transfer of physical evidence. Option D is wrong because an asset inventory list catalogs organizational assets (hardware, software); it does not record the chain of custody for evidence items.

45
MCQeasy

In the context of the NIST Incident Response Life Cycle, which phase immediately follows the 'Detection and Analysis' phase, specifically focusing on limiting the scope of the compromise?

A.Recovery
B.Containment
C.Lessons Learned
D.Eradication
AnswerB

Containment immediately follows Detection and Analysis in the NIST Incident Response Life Cycle, focusing on limiting the scope and impact of the compromise before eradication and recovery begin. It directly addresses the stem's requirement to limit the compromise's spread.

Why this answer

Containment is the phase where the responder takes action to stop the spread or further damage of the incident.

46
MCQeasy

A first responder is using a 'Live Response' toolkit. What is the main characteristic of these tools?

A.They provide permanent remote access to the attacker.
B.They are designed to run from a USB drive to minimize impact on the target disk.
C.They require the computer to be turned off.
D.They automatically delete evidence after collection.
AnswerB

Live Response toolkits execute from external media such as a USB drive, keeping binaries and writes off the target's internal disk. This preserves volatile evidence and disk integrity, satisfying the first responder's need to investigate a running system with minimal alteration before full forensic imaging.

Why this answer

Live response tools are designed to collect data from a running system with minimal impact on the target environment.

47
MCQhard

While investigating a breach, you need to verify the integrity of a system file. Which process is correct to ensure the file has not been altered?

A.Compare the file size with the original.
B.Check the 'Date Modified' timestamp.
C.Generate a SHA-256 hash and compare to a trusted baseline.
D.Open the file in a text editor to look for changes.
AnswerC

A SHA-256 hash produces a fixed-length digest of the file's contents; any alteration changes the digest entirely. Comparing the computed value against a trusted baseline proves integrity, unlike timestamps or file size, which an attacker can preserve.

Why this answer

Generating a cryptographic hash (SHA-256) of the file and comparing it to a known good baseline is the standard process for integrity verification.

48
MCQeasy

A first responder arrives at a scene where a laptop is suspected to contain evidence of a data breach. The laptop is powered on and logged in. What is the first step the responder should take to preserve volatile evidence?

A.Take photographs of the screen and connected peripherals.
B.Run a live forensic tool to capture RAM and then shut down the system.
C.Ask the user to close all applications and log off to preserve the system state.
D.Immediately remove the laptop's battery to prevent remote wipe.
AnswerA

Photographing the screen and peripherals documents the current state of the system without altering it. This is a non-intrusive way to capture volatile evidence such as open applications, error messages, and network activity. It is a fundamental first step in first response, ensuring that visual context is preserved before any further actions that might change the system state.

Why this answer

The first step in preserving volatile evidence is to document the current state without altering it. Photographing the screen and peripherals captures visual information that may be lost if the system is powered down or the user interacts with it. This non-invasive action supports later analysis and maintains the integrity of the scene.

Other actions like removing power or running tools should come after documentation.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that immediate power removal or user interaction is necessary, when in fact it destroys volatile evidence that should be documented first.

49
Multi-Selecthard

When notifying stakeholders during a major data breach, which TWO of the following groups must be informed according to standard incident communication plans to satisfy regulatory and operational needs?

Select 2 answers
A.The entire public customer base via social media.
B.Legal Counsel/Privacy Officer.
C.The software development team lead.
D.IT Infrastructure Team.
E.External marketing vendors.
AnswersB, D

Legal Counsel or the Privacy Officer must be informed to assess notification duties under data protection law, manage regulator and affected-party communication, and limit liability. This satisfies the regulatory element of the stem's incident communication requirements.

Why this answer

Legal Counsel/Privacy Officer (B) must be informed because breach notification statutes (e.g., GDPR Article 33, HIPAA Breach Notification Rule, and U.S. state laws) impose specific timelines and content requirements for notifying regulators and affected individuals, and only legal/privacy experts can determine whether notification is triggered and how to comply. The IT Infrastructure Team (D) must be informed because it is the operational group responsible for containing the incident, preserving forensic evidence, identifying affected systems and data, and executing technical remediation such as rotating credentials, patching, or isolating hosts. The entire public customer base via social media (A) is not a standard first-step stakeholder group, since public disclosure must be coordinated with legal guidance and typically follows direct notification to affected parties and regulators.

The software development team lead (C) is only relevant if the breach involves application code or a software vulnerability, so it is not a mandatory stakeholder in every incident communication plan. External marketing vendors (E) are third parties without a regulatory need to know and are not part of the standard incident notification chain unless they process the affected data.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests the confusion between operational stakeholders (IT, legal) and non-essential groups (marketing, all customers), tempting candidates to choose broad notification for transparency.

50
MCQeasy

A stakeholder asks you to prioritize the recovery of a compromised system. According to incident response best practices, what is your first responsibility?

A.Notify legal counsel.
B.Update firewall rules.
C.Rebuild the system from backup.
D.Identify and confirm the security incident.
AnswerD

Before containment, eradication or recovery, the responder must verify that an incident actually occurred, distinguishing genuine compromise from false positives. Confirming the incident satisfies the stem's requirement to prioritise recovery only after validation, per incident response best practice.

Why this answer

According to incident response best practices (e.g., NIST SP 800-61), the first phase is preparation, but once an event is detected, the immediate responsibility is to identify and confirm whether a security incident has actually occurred. This involves validating alerts, scoping the event, and determining if it meets the organization's incident criteria. Only after confirmation should containment, eradication, and recovery actions (like rebuilding from backup) be taken.

Notifying legal counsel or updating firewall rules are subsequent steps that depend on the confirmed incident.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests the sequence of incident response phases, and candidates frequently jump to containment or recovery actions (like rebuilding from backup) without first confirming the incident, confusing the urgency of response with the need for validation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because notifying legal counsel is premature before confirming that an incident has occurred; legal involvement is typically required for specific types of incidents (e.g., data breach) and after initial validation. Option B is wrong because updating firewall rules is a containment/mitigation action that should only be performed after the incident is confirmed and scoped. Option C is wrong because rebuilding the system from backup is a recovery step that occurs after containment and eradication, not as a first response.

51
MCQhard

During a first response to a compromised server, you need to capture the contents of RAM. The server is a critical production system that cannot be taken offline. Which factor is most important to consider when selecting a memory acquisition tool for this scenario?

A.The tool must be able to acquire memory without any writes to the target system's disk.
B.The tool must be able to acquire memory from a remote location over the network.
C.The tool must be able to acquire memory at the fastest possible speed, regardless of system impact.
D.The tool must be able to acquire memory without causing a system crash or requiring a reboot.
AnswerD

In a production environment where downtime is unacceptable, the memory acquisition tool must be stable and not cause a system crash. A crash would not only disrupt services but also destroy the volatile evidence. Tools that operate in kernel mode or use specialized drivers must be thoroughly tested to ensure they do not conflict with existing software. This factor is paramount to balance forensic needs with operational continuity.

Why this answer

When dealing with a critical production server that cannot be taken offline, the overriding concern is that the memory acquisition tool must not cause a system crash or require a reboot. A crash would disrupt services and destroy the volatile evidence you are trying to capture. Other factors like speed, disk writes, or remote capability are secondary to ensuring the system remains stable and operational during the acquisition process.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on speed or stealth when the primary constraint is maintaining system uptime and stability.

52
MCQmedium

During a network intrusion investigation, a first responder needs to capture volatile network configuration data from a compromised Windows server before it is rebooted. Which command should be used to display the current ARP cache?

A.ipconfig /all
B.route print
C.netstat -ano
D.arp -a
AnswerD

The arp -a command displays the current ARP cache, listing IP addresses and their corresponding physical (MAC) addresses. This is essential for identifying potential ARP spoofing or mapping network segments during an incident. On a compromised Windows server, capturing the ARP cache before reboot preserves evidence of local network relationships and possible attacker presence. It directly answers the requirement.

Why this answer

The ARP cache is a volatile artifact that maps IP addresses to MAC addresses and can reveal attacker presence or network topology. On Windows, the arp -a command lists these entries. Other commands like netstat, ipconfig, and route print provide different network information and do not display the ARP cache, so they are not suitable for this task.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the ARP cache with general network configuration output; commands like ipconfig /all show local adapter details but not the ARP entries for other hosts.

53
Multi-Selecthard

A first responder is documenting a compromised Linux server that is still running. The responder needs to record the system's current network state to later identify unauthorized connections and potential data exfiltration. Which two commands should the responder use to capture this volatile information? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.ps aux
B.lsmod
C.netstat -antp
D.df -h
E.ss -tulpn
AnswersC, E

The netstat -antp command displays all TCP connections with numeric addresses, listening ports, and the associated process IDs. On a live Linux system, this captures the current network state, including established connections that may indicate command-and-control or exfiltration channels. The -p flag requires root privileges but provides the critical mapping to the responsible process. This output is volatile and must be saved to external media immediately, as it will change as connections open and close.

Why this answer

To capture current network state on a live Linux server, the responder must use commands that display active connections, listening ports, and associated processes. Both netstat -antp and ss -tulpn provide this information; ss is the modern replacement for netstat. These outputs are volatile and must be saved to external media.

The other commands address disk usage, kernel modules, or process lists, which do not fulfil the requirement to record network connections. Thus, the two network-focused commands are the correct choices.

Exam trap

The trap here is selecting general system information commands like ps aux or lsmod instead of the specific network-state commands that reveal active connections.

54
MCQmedium

A junior responder arrives at a compromised Windows 10 workstation. Before touching the keyboard, they photograph the screen. The system is still powered on and a suspicious process is visible in Task Manager. The responder's supervisor asks them to capture the most volatile evidence first. Which action should the responder take next?

A.Capture the contents of RAM using a forensic memory acquisition tool.
B.Shut down the system and remove the hard drive for imaging.
C.Disconnect the network cable to isolate the workstation from the network.
D.Run a full antivirus scan to identify and remove the malicious process.
AnswerA

RAM is the most volatile evidence and contains running processes, network connections, encryption keys, and injected code that vanish when power is lost. Capturing memory first preserves this ephemeral data before any other action alters it. The supervisor's instruction aligns with the order of volatility, which prioritizes CPU registers and cache, then RAM, before less volatile storage. A memory image also enables later timeline and malware analysis.

Why this answer

The order of volatility dictates that the most perishable evidence must be collected first. RAM contains running processes, network connections, and encryption keys that are lost on shutdown or reboot. Capturing memory before any other action preserves this critical evidence.

Antivirus scanning, shutdown, or network isolation would alter or destroy volatile data, so they are inappropriate as the immediate next step. Only memory acquisition aligns with the supervisor's instruction and standard first response practice.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that containment or malware removal should happen before evidence capture, when volatile data must actually be preserved first.

55
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO actions are recommended for secure evidence storage?

Select 2 answers
A.Mailing evidence without tracking.
B.Storing in a locked cabinet with access control.
C.Leaving the evidence on a public desk.
D.Copying evidence to a public server for sharing.
E.Keeping a digital log of who accesses the storage.
AnswersB, E

A locked cabinet with access control physically restricts who can reach the evidence, preventing tampering or theft. This satisfies the chain-of-custody and integrity requirements for secure evidence storage by limiting access to authorised personnel only.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because storing evidence in a locked cabinet with access control enforces physical security and restricts custody to authorized personnel, satisfying chain-of-custody requirements for secure evidence storage. Option E is correct because keeping a digital log of who accesses the storage creates an auditable access record that documents each individual's interaction with the evidence, which is essential for maintaining chain of custody and detecting unauthorized access. Options A, C, and D do not belong: mailing evidence without tracking breaks the chain of custody and provides no delivery confirmation, leaving evidence on a public desk exposes it to theft or tampering, and copying evidence to a public server for sharing violates confidentiality and integrity controls by allowing uncontrolled access.

56
MCQeasy

You are a first responder called to a scene where a laptop is running and logged in. You need to preserve the most volatile evidence. What should you do first?

A.Remove the hard drive and connect it to a write blocker.
B.Take photographs of the screen and surrounding area.
C.Capture a memory image using a forensic tool.
D.Shut down the laptop to prevent further damage.
AnswerC

Capturing a memory image is the highest priority because RAM contents are lost upon power-off or reboot. This step preserves running processes, encryption keys, and network connections that are critical for understanding the incident. It should be done before any other collection to avoid losing volatile data. Using a validated tool ensures the image is forensically sound and can be analyzed later.

Why this answer

Volatile evidence such as RAM contents is lost when a system is powered down. Capturing a memory image first ensures that critical artifacts like running processes, network connections, and encryption keys are preserved. Other actions, like photographing the screen or removing the hard drive, are either less volatile or require powering down the system.

Therefore, memory capture is the correct initial step in preserving the most perishable evidence.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that shutting down the system is a safe way to preserve evidence, when it actually destroys volatile data.

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