Courseiva

CCNA First Response Questions

41 questions · First Response · All types, answers revealed

1
MCQeasy

When identifying stakeholders to notify during an incident, which group should be notified first?

A.The local police.
B.The incident response team.
C.The company board of directors.
D.The public.
AnswerB

Activation of the response team is the first step in the formal process.

Why this answer

The technical incident response team must be activated immediately to manage the incident.

2
MCQeasy

During initial triage, you identify that a system's time is significantly out of sync with the NTP server. Why is this critical to record during the first response?

A.It is a sign of an active buffer overflow attack.
B.Because it indicates the BIOS battery is failing.
C.It affects the ability of the system to join the Active Directory domain.
D.To ensure that file system timestamps can be accurately correlated with other logs.
AnswerD

Inaccurate clocks make log correlation nearly impossible without a known time offset.

Why this answer

Timeline analysis is central to IR; inaccurate system clocks will misrepresent the sequence of events in logs.

3
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO types of evidence are considered 'volatile'?

Select 2 answers
A.Optical disc contents.
B.System memory (RAM).
C.Hard drive data.
D.Network connection state tables.
E.Printed log files.
AnswersB, D

Memory is the most volatile evidence.

Why this answer

RAM and network connections are lost when power is removed or the system is reset.

4
MCQhard

You have identified an active C2 beacon on a corporate server. You are instructed to implement 'Containment' via network segmentation. Which configuration change on a Cisco ASA firewall provides the most effective containment while still allowing for remote forensic forensic analysis?

A.Disable the interface in the server's OS.
B.Change the server's default gateway to a null route.
C.Apply an ACL to the ingress interface that permits traffic only from the IR forensic workstation IP.
D.Shut down the switch port connected to the server.
AnswerC

This allows the responder to maintain access while stopping the C2 communication and lateral movement.

Why this answer

Creating a restrictive ACL that allows only the IR team's management IP to access the compromised server while blocking all other traffic is the best practice for controlled containment.

5
MCQhard

When investigating an incident on a virtualized platform (VMware), what is the first step to capture the state of the VM for analysis?

A.Take a VM snapshot with memory included.
B.Export the VM to OVF.
C.Power off the VM.
D.Clone the VM disk file.
AnswerA

This preserves both the disk and the RAM in a single, forensic-ready package.

Why this answer

Taking a VM snapshot captures the memory and disk state of the VM, which is the equivalent of a live acquisition.

6
MCQeasy

What is the 'First Responder Toolkit' used for during an incident?

A.To install new security software.
B.To permanently delete malicious files.
C.To provide remote access for the attacker.
D.To collect forensic artifacts without modifying the target system.
AnswerD

The kit ensures data integrity and consistency.

Why this answer

A first responder toolkit provides pre-configured, trusted tools for incident triage and data collection.

7
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE pieces of information should be recorded on a Chain of Custody (CoC) form when collecting a device?

Select 3 answers
A.Detailed physical description and identifiers (e.g., serial number).
B.Exact time and date of collection.
C.Name and signature of the individual collecting the item.
D.The social media passwords of the owner.
E.The home address of the user.
AnswersA, B, C

Ensures the correct item is tracked.

Why this answer

CoC must track who collected it, when, and where it came from.

8
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO items should be part of a first responder's physical toolkit?

Select 2 answers
A.A copy of all user passwords.
B.Bootable forensic collection drive.
C.Hardware write blocker.
D.A commercial email marketing tool.
E.A wireless router.
AnswersB, C

Used for off-system collection of evidence.

Why this answer

A write blocker and a bootable forensic drive are essential for physical evidence collection.

9
MCQhard

You are investigating a Linux server breach. You need to capture the current state of network connections without altering the evidence. Which command-line tool is preferred by first responders?

A.tcpdump -i eth0
B.lsof -i
C.ss -tupn
D.iptables -L
AnswerC

'ss -tupn' shows TCP/UDP connections, processes, and numeric addresses without resolving names.

Why this answer

'ss' (socket statistics) or 'netstat' is used to view network connections, but 'ss' is modern and more efficient for incident response.

10
MCQmedium

You are responding to a web-based attack. Which log source is most critical for identifying the origin of a SQL injection attempt?

A.DHCP logs.
B.Windows System Event log.
C.Application crash dumps.
D.Web server access logs.
AnswerD

These logs capture the HTTP requests containing malicious input.

Why this answer

Web server access logs contain the request methods and query strings used to deliver the attack payload.

11
MCQmedium

You are performing an investigation on a compromised mobile device. What is the primary risk of connecting the device to a standard workstation without a write blocker?

A.The battery will drain faster.
B.The workstation might write metadata or sync files, altering the original evidence.
C.The workstation will be instantly infected.
D.The device will automatically wipe itself.
AnswerB

Operating systems often mount devices and update last access times or index files.

Why this answer

Connecting a mobile device without a physical or software write blocker can lead to automatic synchronization or data modification by the host OS.

12
MCQhard

You are investigating a suspected rootkit. Which area of the operating system should you examine for unauthorized boot-time execution?

A.The browser cache.
B.The user profile folder.
C.The temporary files directory.
D.The Master Boot Record (MBR) or EFI partition.
AnswerD

Bootkits/rootkits often modify the MBR to gain control before the OS loads.

Why this answer

The Master Boot Record (MBR) or the EFI partition are common targets for rootkits that persist across reboots.

13
MCQmedium

You are documenting an incident and need to record the time of the event. Why is accurate time synchronization critical?

A.To correlate events across different log sources accurately.
B.To ensure the server doesn't crash.
C.To comply with user privacy laws.
D.To make the report look professional.
AnswerA

Log correlation is impossible without synchronized timestamps.

Why this answer

Correlation of logs across different systems requires synchronized clocks, typically via NTP.

14
MCQeasy

When documenting the chain of custody for a seized laptop, which information is mandatory?

A.The name of the suspected attacker.
B.The user's password for the laptop.
C.The serial number of the device.
D.The operating system version.
AnswerC

Accurate identification via serial number is essential for legal evidence handling.

Why this answer

A chain of custody must include the identity of the person collecting the evidence, the time/date, and the specific location of the item.

15
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO criteria must a first responder satisfy when choosing a tool for a toolkit?

Select 2 answers
A.The tool must run on a cloud-based server.
B.The tool must be known to have minimal impact on the target system.
C.The tool must be fully documented and trusted.
D.The tool must be proprietary and expensive.
E.The tool must be able to delete the malware.
AnswersB, C

Minimizing the footprint is a primary forensic requirement.

Why this answer

Tools must be trusted and cause minimal impact on the subject system.

16
MCQmedium

A user reports a 'missing' file that was present earlier. What is the first thing you should check in a forensic triage?

A.The recycle bin.
B.The backup server.
C.The user's email.
D.File system logs or audit logs for file deletion events.
AnswerD

This provides definitive proof of what happened to the file.

Why this answer

Checking the file system journals or event logs (Event ID 4663 for file deletion) is the first step to understand if a file was deleted.

17
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE categories of stakeholders should be considered for notification in a major data breach?

Select 3 answers
A.The local coffee shop staff.
B.Legal and Compliance departments.
C.Privacy Officer.
D.IT Management.
E.The company's external social media followers.
AnswersB, C, D

Legal must be involved for liability and notification requirements.

Why this answer

Legal, IT Management, and the Privacy Officer are critical stakeholders during a breach.

18
MCQmedium

You are handling a ransomware incident. Which step should be taken before attempting any file recovery?

A.Reimage the machine.
B.Delete all encrypted files.
C.Identify and preserve the encrypted samples and memory state.
D.Pay the ransom.
AnswerC

This allows for analysis of the malware and potential recovery of keys.

Why this answer

It is critical to preserve the existing state for potential forensic analysis or decryptor key extraction before trying to recover files.

19
MCQeasy

Which of the following is an example of a non-volatile data source?

A.Processor Cache.
B.Network state table.
C.Hard Disk Drive.
D.System RAM.
AnswerC

Storage drives retain data after power is removed.

Why this answer

Hard drives and flash storage are non-volatile because they retain data when power is removed.

20
MCQmedium

You are performing initial containment on a cloud-based AWS EC2 instance. The instance is under a DDoS attack. What is the most effective way to isolate this specific resource?

A.Stop the EC2 instance immediately.
B.Remove the VPC from the region.
C.Delete the EC2 instance.
D.Modify the assigned Security Group to restrict all inbound/outbound traffic.
AnswerD

This isolates the instance while preserving the running state for memory capture.

Why this answer

Modifying the Security Group to deny all ingress and egress is the fastest way to isolate the instance at the network level in AWS.

21
MCQhard

You are performing a triage on a server and see unauthorized outbound connections to a foreign IP. What is the best way to determine which process initiated the connection?

A.ping the IP address.
B.Run 'netstat -ano' to map the connection to a PID.
C.Check the ARP table.
D.Use 'ipconfig /all'.
AnswerB

This shows the Process ID (PID) responsible for the connection.

Why this answer

'netstat -ano' or 'lsof -i' are used, but specifically 'netstat -ano' associates the PID with the connection.

22
Multi-Selectmedium

You are assembling a 'First Responder Toolkit' for a remote incident team. Which THREE items are essential for collecting volatile data and ensuring legal defensibility on a Windows system?

Select 3 answers
A.Tamper-evident bags for physical evidence.
B.Network vulnerability scanner (e.g., Nessus).
C.Hardware write-blocker (e.g., Tableau).
D.A live response toolkit containing statically linked binaries.
E.Packet sniffing software to install on the target host.
AnswersA, C, D

Required for maintaining a defensible chain of custody.

Why this answer

To preserve evidence, you need a write-blocker for disks, a trusted forensic toolkit for memory, and tamper-evident storage.

23
MCQmedium

You discover a suspicious scheduled task on a server. Which Windows tool allows you to export this task for analysis without relying on the GUI?

A.schtasks /query /v
B.regedit.exe
C.netsh
D.Task Scheduler GUI.
AnswerA

This command provides a verbose output of all scheduled tasks for analysis.

Why this answer

The 'schtasks' command-line tool is the standard way to query and manage tasks in Windows without triggering GUI-based auditing changes.

24
MCQmedium

When documenting evidence for a forensic investigation, you are required to establish a chain of custody. Which information is considered mandatory for each entry in the chain of custody log to satisfy legal requirements?

A.Name of the person transferring the evidence, the receiver, date/time, and the specific storage location.
B.The name of the software used to perform the collection.
C.The BIOS serial number and hard drive firmware version.
D.The hash values of the collected files.
AnswerA

This fulfills the legal definition of maintaining an unbroken chain of custody.

Why this answer

Legal standards require clear documentation of who handled the evidence, when, and the specific action taken.

25
MCQhard

During an incident, a responder needs to capture the ARP cache to identify potential local spoofing. Which tool provides this information?

A.ipconfig /displaydns
B.route print
C.arp -a
D.netstat -s
AnswerC

This displays the current ARP cache entries.

Why this answer

The 'arp -a' command shows the current Address Resolution Protocol cache on a Windows or Linux system.

26
Multi-Selectmedium

During the triage of a Linux server, you suspect a rootkit is intercepting system calls. Which THREE actions are appropriate for the first responder to perform to gather evidence of the rootkit?

Select 3 answers
A.Compare the md5sum of critical binaries against a known-good baseline.
B.Capture a full memory dump for offline analysis with Volatility.
C.Reinstall the OS immediately to ensure cleanliness.
D.Run 'chkdsk' to look for file system errors.
E.Run 'lsmod' to identify suspicious or unsigned kernel modules.
AnswersA, B, E

This detects binary-based rootkits that replace common utilities like 'ps' or 'netstat'.

Why this answer

Collecting memory, inspecting binary integrity, and reviewing kernel modules are key methods for detecting rootkits.

27
MCQeasy

As a first responder, you arrive at a compromised workstation showing signs of active malware beaconing. Which action should be performed first according to the Order of Volatility?

A.Create a bit-stream image of the hard drive.
B.Perform a physical memory dump using FTK Imager.
C.Power down the machine to stop the malware.
D.Disconnect the network cable from the workstation.
AnswerB

Capturing volatile RAM is the highest priority in the Order of Volatility.

Why this answer

Memory (RAM) is the most volatile component and must be captured before it is overwritten or lost during a shutdown.

28
MCQmedium

You need to capture forensic data from a Windows machine using a remote agent. What is the risk of using built-in administrative tools like PowerShell for this?

A.They leave significant forensic footprints on the target system.
B.They are always blocked by the firewall.
C.They cannot collect binary data.
D.They require the system to be offline.
AnswerA

Using native tools modifies system logs, which can complicate the investigation.

Why this answer

Native tools leave extensive traces in the event logs and process history, which might overwrite evidence or alert the attacker.

29
MCQmedium

You are analyzing an incident where a user account is being used to exfiltrate data. What is the most immediate action to contain the account?

A.Delete the user account.
B.Delete the user's home directory.
C.Lock the user's computer.
D.Reset the user password and invalidate active sessions.
AnswerD

Invalidating sessions ensures the attacker is kicked out immediately.

Why this answer

Disabling the account is the standard containment measure to stop an active session or further logins.

30
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions are recommended for evidence preservation in a digital incident?

Select 2 answers
A.Reboot the system to clear temporary files.
B.Calculate cryptographic hashes for all collected files.
C.Modify file permissions to prevent further access.
D.Maintain a formal chain of custody log for all evidence.
E.Delete all temporary logs to save space.
AnswersB, D

Hashing is the standard for ensuring evidence integrity.

Why this answer

Hashing ensures integrity, and chain of custody ensures legal admissibility.

31
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE pieces of information should be included in an incident triage report?

Select 3 answers
A.The date and time of the incident discovery.
B.The private health records of the affected users.
C.The systems and services impacted by the incident.
D.The initial findings or indicators of compromise (IOCs).
E.The names of all employees who have access to the building.
AnswersA, C, D

This is critical for establishing the incident timeline.

Why this answer

Triage reports should focus on impact, scope, and initial findings.

32
MCQmedium

During a suspected ransomware incident, you are using EnCase Endpoint to perform remote triage. You need to collect volatile data without triggering the ransomware's anti-forensic triggers. Which action should you take first to ensure the integrity of evidence?

A.Review the Windows Event Logs for unauthorized access.
B.Capture the RAM using a trusted forensic tool like DumpIt.
C.Perform a bit-stream image of the physical hard drive.
D.Shut down the computer to prevent further encryption.
AnswerB

RAM capture must happen first to preserve state-dependent evidence before the system is altered.

Why this answer

Capturing volatile data (RAM) before any other forensic action is standard practice as it is the most fragile evidence.

33
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of a write blocker in a forensic investigation?

A.To speed up data transfer.
B.To ensure no data is modified on the source media.
C.To encrypt the data on the drive.
D.To allow multiple people to read the drive.
AnswerB

Preservation of evidence integrity is the primary goal.

Why this answer

A write blocker prevents any data from being written to the source drive, ensuring the integrity of the evidence.

34
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE actions should be avoided during the initial response phase to ensure evidence integrity?

Select 3 answers
A.Encrypting the evidence files.
B.Installing security patches immediately.
C.Shutting down a system without capturing volatile data.
D.Using native system tools that overwrite logs.
E.Documenting the initial state of the system.
AnswersB, C, D

Patches change the state of the system, potentially destroying evidence.

Why this answer

Modifying, destroying, or altering evidence is strictly forbidden during incident response.

35
MCQeasy

Which documentation is required when transferring physical evidence from a responder to a forensic lab?

A.User access log.
B.Incident summary report.
C.Chain of Custody form.
D.Asset inventory list.
AnswerC

A CoC form documents who handled the evidence, when, and where.

Why this answer

Chain of Custody (CoC) documents are required to ensure the legal integrity of the evidence.

36
MCQeasy

In the context of the NIST Incident Response Life Cycle, which phase immediately follows the 'Detection and Analysis' phase, specifically focusing on limiting the scope of the compromise?

A.Recovery
B.Containment
C.Lessons Learned
D.Eradication
AnswerB

Containment is the explicit phase meant to limit the incident scope.

Why this answer

Containment is the phase where the responder takes action to stop the spread or further damage of the incident.

37
MCQeasy

A first responder is using a 'Live Response' toolkit. What is the main characteristic of these tools?

A.They provide permanent remote access to the attacker.
B.They are designed to run from a USB drive to minimize impact on the target disk.
C.They require the computer to be turned off.
D.They automatically delete evidence after collection.
AnswerB

Using an external drive prevents the tool from overwriting data on the target hard drive.

Why this answer

Live response tools are designed to collect data from a running system with minimal impact on the target environment.

38
MCQhard

While investigating a breach, you need to verify the integrity of a system file. Which process is correct to ensure the file has not been altered?

A.Compare the file size with the original.
B.Check the 'Date Modified' timestamp.
C.Generate a SHA-256 hash and compare to a trusted baseline.
D.Open the file in a text editor to look for changes.
AnswerC

Cryptographic hashing is the definitive method for integrity checking.

Why this answer

Generating a cryptographic hash (SHA-256) of the file and comparing it to a known good baseline is the standard process for integrity verification.

39
Multi-Selecthard

When notifying stakeholders during a major data breach, which TWO of the following groups must be informed according to standard incident communication plans to satisfy regulatory and operational needs?

Select 2 answers
A.The entire public customer base via social media.
B.Legal Counsel/Privacy Officer.
C.The software development team lead.
D.IT Infrastructure Team.
E.External marketing vendors.
AnswersB, D

They must determine the legal obligations for reporting breaches.

Why this answer

Stakeholder notification must balance legal requirements with operational continuity.

40
MCQeasy

A stakeholder asks you to prioritize the recovery of a compromised system. According to incident response best practices, what is your first responsibility?

A.Notify legal counsel.
B.Update firewall rules.
C.Rebuild the system from backup.
D.Identify and confirm the security incident.
AnswerD

Confirmation and triage are the initial steps of the incident response process.

Why this answer

Triage and identification must occur before any recovery or containment steps to ensure the scope is understood.

41
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO actions are recommended for secure evidence storage?

Select 2 answers
A.Mailing evidence without tracking.
B.Storing in a locked cabinet with access control.
C.Leaving the evidence on a public desk.
D.Copying evidence to a public server for sharing.
E.Keeping a digital log of who accesses the storage.
AnswersB, E

Ensures physical security and chain of custody.

Why this answer

Evidence should be kept in a controlled, access-restricted environment to maintain its integrity.

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