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CCNA Endpoint Protection Questions

37 questions · Endpoint Protection · All types, answers revealed

1
Multi-Selecthard

A security analyst is reviewing endpoint telemetry for signs of lateral movement and credential dumping. Which THREE of the following event log indicators or telemetry artifacts suggest potential credential dumping activity targeting LSASS? (Choose THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Sysmon Event ID 10 (ProcessAccess) indicating access to lsass.exe by unverified tools
B.Regular scheduled defragmentation of the system volume by dfrgui.exe
C.Standard domain user successfully changing their own account password via Ctrl+Alt+Del
D.Unsigned or unknown binaries executing from temporary paths (e.g., C:\Users\Public) and opening handles to LSASS
E.Windows Security Event ID 4656 or 4663 showing handle requests to lsass.exe with PROCESS_VM_READ permissions
AnswersA, D, E

Sysmon Event ID 10 logs process access events, specifically highlighting interactions with critical processes like LSASS.

Why this answer

Credential dumping leaves specific traces, including abnormal handles opened to LSASS, unexpected processes reading LSASS memory, and specific Event IDs.

2
MCQmedium

A security administrator needs to configure Windows Defender Firewall with Advanced Security via Group Policy Object (GPO) to block all outbound connections except those explicitly permitted by a rule. Where should the administrator configure this setting?

A.Computer Configuration -> Policies -> Administrative Templates -> Network -> Network Connections -> Windows Defender Firewall
B.Computer Configuration -> Preferences -> Control Panel Settings -> Network Options
C.Computer Configuration -> Policies -> Windows Settings -> Security Settings -> Windows Defender Firewall with Advanced Security -> Properties -> Outbound connections
D.Computer Configuration -> Policies -> Software Restriction Policies
AnswerC

This is the exact location to change the global state and default action for outbound connections in Windows Firewall GPO profiles.

Why this answer

The default outbound behavior of Windows Defender Firewall needs to be changed from Allow to Block in the GPO profile settings under Computer Configuration -> Policies -> Windows Settings -> Security Settings -> Windows Defender Firewall with Advanced Security.

3
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is configuring Mobile Device Management (MDM) for corporate tablets. Which TWO of the following security policies are standard capabilities enforceable via MDM? (Choose TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Executing remote lock and remote wipe commands for lost or stolen devices
B.Allowing unrestricted installation of custom untrusted firmware packages
C.Enforcing device-wide encryption requirements
D.Disabling all over-the-air communication channels permanently
E.Removing all screen lock passcode requirements
AnswersA, C

MDM allows administrators to remotely lock or wipe devices to prevent data theft.

Why this answer

MDM solutions enforce device encryption requirements and remote wipe/lock capabilities.

4
MCQmedium

A security administrator is evaluating Mobile Threat Defense (MTD) solutions for corporate Android devices. The administrator needs a solution that can detect rogue Wi-Fi access points and Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attacks at the network layer. Which capability must the MTD solution provide?

A.Application sideloading enforcement
B.Containerized workspace isolation
C.Remote wipe capability for lost devices
D.Network protection and Wi-Fi security inspection
AnswerD

MTD network protection detects suspicious network configurations, captive portal manipulation, and rogue APs.

Why this answer

Advanced Mobile Threat Defense agents monitor network traffic anomalies, SSL stripping, and ARP spoofing to detect rogue access points and MitM attacks.

5
MCQmedium

A security administrator is preparing a security baseline for iOS and iPadOS devices using an MDM solution. To protect corporate data at rest on managed mobile devices, which setting must be verified?

A.Enforcing a passcode policy with complexity and auto-lock requirements
B.Disabling Apple Push Notification service (APNs)
C.Enabling AirDrop for all contacts
D.Enabling iCloud Backup for all application data
AnswerA

Enforcing a passcode on iOS automatically activates hardware-based data encryption (Data Protection) for files.

Why this answer

Enforcing device encryption (which is built into iOS devices when a passcode is set) ensures data at rest is encrypted with hardware keys.

6
MCQeasy

A security analyst is investigating an EDR alert where a process spawned a suspicious child process. The analyst needs to review the process lineage tree. Which EDR capability is most useful for this task?

A.Network Packet Capture (PCAP)
B.Hardware Diagnostics
C.Process Lineage and Tree Visualization
D.Disk Defragmentation
AnswerC

Process tree visualization displays the exact parent-child execution chain, helping analysts trace attack vectors.

Why this answer

EDR tools capture process creation telemetry, allowing analysts to visualize process trees showing parent-child relationships and command-line arguments.

7
MCQmedium

A security engineer is configuring Linux Auditd on enterprise servers to log all attempts to modify user and group databases. Which audit rule should be added to /etc/audit/audit.rules?

A.-w /etc/passwd -p wa -k identity
B.-a always,exclude -F path=/etc/passwd
C.sysctl -w kernel.audit=1
D.-e 0
AnswerA

-w watches the file, -p wa audits write and attribute changes, and -k assigns an audit key for searching logs.

Why this answer

Monitoring sensitive files like /etc/passwd and /etc/shadow requires adding watch rules using the -w flag with write permissions (-p w).

8
MCQeasy

An enterprise endpoint security policy requires that all USB mass storage devices be blocked on workstations, while allowing encrypted company-issued smart cards and input devices. Which configuration approach should an administrator take using Group Policy?

A.Stop and disable the Windows Plug and Play service
B.Enable BitLocker To Go on all internal drives
C.Disable the USB Enhanced Host Controller Interface (EHCI) in BIOS across all endpoints
D.Configure 'Prevent installation of devices using drivers that match these device setup classes' for USB storage class
AnswerD

Device Installation Restrictions allow blocking specific hardware setup classes, such as removable storage disks, while permitting keyboards and smart cards.

Why this answer

Group Policy allows restricting removable storage access under Computer Configuration -> Administrative Templates -> System -> Device Installation -> Device Installation Restrictions.

9
MCQeasy

An IoT device deployed in an industrial environment runs a minimal Linux kernel and needs its attack surface reduced by disabling unnecessary kernel modules like USB storage and Bluetooth. Where should the administrator configure module blacklisting?

A./etc/fstab
B./boot/grub/grub.cfg
C./etc/modprobe.d/blacklist.conf
D./etc/sysctl.conf
AnswerC

Files in /etc/modprobe.d/ with a .conf extension allow administrators to blacklist specific kernel modules.

Why this answer

Kernel module blacklisting on modern Linux distributions is configured by creating configuration files inside the /etc/modprobe.d/ directory.

10
MCQeasy

An organization's Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) platform flags a suspicious PowerShell command line executing an encoded script block. Which Windows logging subsystem should the security analyst inspect for the decoded script contents?

A.Windows PowerShell Operational Log (Event ID 4104)
B.System Event Log (Event ID 7045)
C.Security Event Log (Event ID 4688)
D.Windows Defender Operational Log (Event ID 1116)
AnswerA

Event ID 4104 records script block logging, capturing pipeline and script contents regardless of how they were obfuscated.

Why this answer

PowerShell Script Block Logging (Event ID 4104) logs the full content of code blocks as they are executed, capturing obfuscated or encoded scripts in their decoded form.

11
MCQhard

A security architect is configuring Linux Unified Key Setup (LUKS) disk encryption on enterprise laptops. To ensure that the encryption key can be decrypted automatically during boot via a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) 2.0 chip without manual passphrase entry, which tool should be integrated?

A.fdisk partition manager
B.gnupg keychain agent
C.cryptsetup-reencrypt
D.clevis and systemd-cryptsetup
AnswerD

Clevis provides automated unlocking bindings for LUKS using TPM2 chips via systemd-cryptsetup.

Why this answer

clevis is a client-side automated decryption framework that integrates with systemd-cryptsetup to unlock LUKS volumes using network policies or TPM2 bindings.

12
MCQhard

An organization's security team is deploying an EDR agent across corporate endpoints. During testing, the agent's kernel-mode driver causes a Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) during boot on systems running a third-party disk encryption filter driver. Which administrative action should be taken first to isolate and remediate the driver conflict?

A.Uninstall the third-party disk encryption driver permanently
B.Boot into Safe Mode and adjust the EDR driver start type or use sensor configuration exclusions
C.Reinstall the Windows operating system with a clean image
D.Disable Secure Boot in UEFI settings
AnswerB

Safe Mode allows administrative intervention to modify driver configurations or apply vendor-provided workarounds/exclusions.

Why this answer

Booting into Safe Mode or using the EDR management console to temporarily disable specific sensor modules (such as kernel process or file monitoring) allows isolation of the conflicting component.

13
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is deploying Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) for internal patch management. Which TWO of the following tasks are essential for maintaining a healthy WSUS environment? (Choose TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Running the WSUS Server Cleanup Wizard periodically
B.Configuring WSUS to automatically install all pre-release beta patches on domain controllers
C.Manually editing the WSUS SQL database tables directly without backups
D.Disabling transport layer security (TLS) for client communication to speed up scans
E.Approving and declining superseded updates regularly
AnswersA, E

The cleanup wizard removes orphaned update files and optimizes database tables.

Why this answer

WSUS maintenance requires declining superseded updates and running the Server Cleanup Wizard to optimize performance.

14
Multi-Selecthard

A security architect is designing a Linux endpoint hardening baseline. Which THREE of the following configurations help enforce Mandatory Access Control (MAC) and restrict process privileges? (Choose THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Enforcing SELinux in targeted or multi-category security (MLS) mode
B.Setting all user home directory permissions to world-writable (chmod 777)
C.Disabling all audit logging and accounting daemons
D.Enforcing AppArmor profiles for critical network-facing daemons
E.Configuring kernel sysctl parameters to restrict core dumps and kernel pointer leaks (e.g., kptr_restrict=2)
AnswersA, D, E

SELinux enforces granular least-privilege security policies at the kernel level.

Why this answer

Mandatory Access Control frameworks like SELinux and AppArmor, combined with proper kernel parameter tuning (sysctl), enforce least privilege.

15
MCQhard

An Incident Responder analyzing a compromised Linux server suspects a rootkit has modified system binaries. The responder runs the package manager verification command on Debian/Ubuntu to check installed packages against the package database. Which command is appropriate?

A.dpkg --verify
B.rpm -Va
C.debsums -ac
D.apt-get check-integrity
AnswerA

dpkg --verify (or dpkg -V) checks files installed by packages against the database to detect modifications.

Why this answer

debsums verifies installed package files against MD5 checksums stored in package archives on Debian-based systems.

16
MCQmedium

An enterprise environment uses Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager (MECM) for patch management. An administrator needs to ensure that critical patches are installed on workstations with minimal user disruption outside of active hours. Which MECM feature should be configured?

A.Software Update Groups
B.Maintenance Windows
C.Automatic Deployment Rules (ADR)
D.Client Settings - Computer Restart
AnswerB

Maintenance windows restrict when changes like software updates can be applied to collection resources.

Why this answer

Maintenance Windows allow administrators to define specific time frames when deployments, updates, and configurations can run without impacting user productivity.

17
MCQeasy

A security analyst is preparing to harden a fleet of corporate Windows 10 endpoints against pass-the-hash attacks. Which built-in Windows feature should be enabled and configured to isolate LSASS memory using virtualization?

A.Windows Defender Application Control (WDAC)
B.User Account Control (UAC)
C.BitLocker Drive Encryption
D.Windows Defender Credential Guard
AnswerD

Credential Guard isolates LSASS memory using virtualization-based security (VBS) to prevent credential theft.

Why this answer

Credential Guard uses virtualization-based security to isolate secrets so that only privileged system software can access them, protecting against pass-the-hash.

18
MCQmedium

A security engineer is configuring mobile device management (MDM) for corporate-owned iOS devices. To prevent users from installing unauthorized apps while still allowing access to enterprise applications, which feature should be deployed?

A.Apple Configurator tethered supervision only
B.Managed Open In restriction
C.Volume Purchase Program (VPP) with Managed Distribution
D.Enterprise App Sideloading via Developer Profiles
AnswerC

VPP with managed distribution allows silent installation and revocation of app licenses without user Apple IDs.

Why this answer

Managed Apple ID combined with a restricted app list or configuring a curated App Store layout via MDM achieves controlled application deployment.

19
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is enforcing device hardening standards across all corporate laptops. Which TWO of the following controls should be implemented to secure client endpoints against physical and BIOS/UEFI tampering? (Choose TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Setting a strong UEFI/BIOS administrator password to prevent unauthorized configuration changes
B.Leaving the physical chassis intrusion detection switch disconnected
C.Configuring the boot order to prioritize booting from unverified USB flash drives first
D.Enabling UEFI Secure Boot to prevent unauthorized bootloaders and rootkits
E.Disabling Trusted Platform Module (TPM) activation across all systems
AnswersA, D

A BIOS password prevents attackers from altering boot orders, disabling virtualization, or bypassing security settings.

Why this answer

Securing firmware requires enabling Secure Boot and setting a strong BIOS/UEFI administrator password.

20
MCQmedium

A security analyst configuring Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) behavioral rules needs to monitor for living-off-the-land binaries (LotLB) executing reconnaissance commands. Which legitimate Windows utility is frequently abused by attackers for network discovery and should be monitored?

A.arp.exe or ipconfig.exe
B.calc.exe
C.mspaint.exe
D.notepad.exe
AnswerA

Network utility binaries such as arp.exe and ipconfig.exe are standard LotL binaries used for environment discovery.

Why this answer

Built-in binaries like net.exe, ipconfig.exe, whoami.exe, and nbtstat.exe are frequently abused by attackers for local reconnaissance.

21
MCQeasy

An administrator wants to ensure that critical system files on Windows endpoints are automatically monitored for unauthorized modifications and that any changes trigger an alert. Which built-in Windows tool or feature should be utilized?

A.Disk Management (diskmgmt.msc)
B.Windows Server Backup
C.Object Access Auditing via Advanced Audit Policy Configuration
D.Task Scheduler
AnswerC

Enabling 'Audit File System' under Advanced Audit Policy allows tracking of read, write, and modification events on sensitive files.

Why this answer

File Server Resource Manager or Windows Defender Application Control / File Integrity Monitoring mechanisms can track changes. For general integrity auditing, Windows provides audit policies for file access.

22
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is managing mobile devices via an Enterprise Mobility Management (EMM) platform. Which TWO of the following features are characteristic of a Containerized Work Profile (such as Android Enterprise)? (Choose TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Requires rooting or jailbreaking the mobile device during enrollment
B.Enforces separation of corporate apps and data from personal user applications
C.Prevents the use of any passcode on the device
D.Allows IT administrators to execute a selective wipe of corporate data without affecting personal data
E.Gives IT full administrative control over personal photos, messages, and personal app usage
AnswersB, D

Work profiles isolate corporate data within an encrypted container.

Why this answer

Containerized work profiles separate work apps/data from personal data and allow IT to wipe corporate data independently.

23
MCQhard

An administrator is troubleshooting a Linux endpoint running Ubuntu where AppArmor is operating in enforcing mode, but a critical daemon keeps failing to write to its log file. Which command should the administrator run to temporarily switch the profile for this specific daemon to complain mode without affecting the rest of the system?

A.aa-complain /usr/sbin/daemon
B.aa-enforce -r /etc/apparmor.d/usr.sbin.daemon
C.systemctl set-mode apparmor=complain
D.apparmor_parser -C /etc/apparmor.d/usr.sbin.daemon
AnswerA

aa-complain places the specified program's AppArmor profile into complain mode immediately.

Why this answer

The aa-complain command is used to put a specific AppArmor profile into complain mode, which logs violations instead of blocking them.

24
MCQmedium

An administrator needs to enforce mandatory password complexity, minimum length, and account lockout policies for local user accounts on standalone Windows Server endpoints that are not joined to an Active Directory domain. Which tool should be used?

A.Local Users and Groups (lusrmgr.msc)
B.Local Security Policy (secpol.msc)
C.Group Policy Management Console (gpmc.msc)
D.System Configuration (msconfig.exe)
AnswerB

secpol.msc controls account policies (password and lockout settings) for local computer environments.

Why this answer

Local Security Policy (secpol.msc) allows administrators to configure account policies, audit policies, and security options on standalone systems.

25
Multi-Selecthard

An organization is implementing comprehensive endpoint hardening for Windows 10/11 endpoints. Which THREE of the following measures directly contribute to reducing the attack surface against memory-based exploits and credential theft? (Choose THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Enabling Windows Defender Exploit Protection system settings (e.g., CFG, DEP, ASLR)
B.Disabling Universal Plug and Play (UPnP) service on endpoints
C.Enabling Windows Defender Credential Guard
D.Configuring Attack Surface Reduction (ASR) rules
E.Disabling the Server Message Block v1 (SMBv1) protocol
AnswersA, C, D

Exploit Protection enforces mitigations like Control Flow Guard (CFG) and Data Execution Prevention (DEP).

Why this answer

Credential Guard, Attack Surface Reduction (ASR) rules, and Exploit Protection (EMET successor) directly mitigate memory corruption and credential theft vectors.

26
MCQmedium

A system administrator is hardening a fleet of Linux servers by setting strict umask values for all users to ensure newly created files are not readable by others. Where should this default system-wide umask be configured?

A./etc/ssh/sshd_config
B./etc/security/limits.conf
C./etc/environment
D./etc/profile
AnswerD

/etc/profile sets environment variables and shell settings, including the default umask for interactive login shells.

Why this answer

The system-wide default umask for login shells on many Linux distributions is configured in /etc/profile or /etc/login.defs.

27
MCQhard

An Incident Response team is investigating a Linux server where a persistent backdoor is suspected of hiding process IDs (PIDs) using user-space hooks. Which utility should the responder use to compare process lists returned by the kernel system call table against direct kernel memory inspection?

A.unhide
B.lsof -i
C.netstat -anp
D.ps aux --forest
AnswerA

unhide is a forensic tool designed to find hidden processes and ports affected by rootkits manipulating the system call table.

Why this answer

rkhunter or chkrootkit can check for hidden processes, but specialized tools like unhide directly compare ps/top outputs with direct procfs/syscall examination to detect hidden PIDs.

28
Multi-Selecthard

A security engineer is hardening an industrial IoT gateway running Linux. Which THREE of the following steps are recognized hardening practices for securing embedded Linux IoT endpoints? (Choose THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Configuring all system accounts with shared static SSH keys and root auto-login
B.Configuring a host-based packet filter firewall (such as nftables or iptables)
C.Removing unnecessary software packages and disabling unused network services (e.g., Telnet, FTP)
D.Establishing an automated, secure mechanism for firmware and patch updates
E.Disabling local logging and audit daemons to maximize CPU performance
AnswersB, C, D

Enabling local firewalls ensures network-level traffic restrictions even if perimeter defenses fail.

Why this answer

Hardening IoT Linux devices involves removing unnecessary packages/services, enabling firewalls (nftables/iptables), and configuring automated secure updates.

29
MCQhard

An administrator is hardening a Linux system against privilege escalation via SUID binaries. The administrator wants to find all files on the root partition that have the SUID bit set. Which find command should be executed?

A.find / -attr +s -type d
B.find / -perm -4000 -type f 2>/dev/null
C.locate -i suid_binaries
D.chmod -R 755 /
AnswerB

This command searches the entire file system (/) for regular files (-type f) with the SUID bit set (-perm -4000) and suppresses permission errors.

Why this answer

The find command with -perm -4000 searches for files with the SUID permission bit set across the file system.

30
Multi-Selecthard

An enterprise Incident Response team is investigating a compromised endpoint using EDR telemetry and live response tools. Which THREE of the following actions can typically be performed directly from an enterprise EDR console during active triage? (Choose THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Reflashing the physical UEFI/BIOS firmware of the endpoint motherboard
B.Rebuilding the hardware RAID controller striping configuration
C.Isolating the endpoint from the network while maintaining agent management connectivity
D.Collecting volatile memory or process execution dumps for analysis
E.Terminative malicious processes and quarantining executable files
AnswersC, D, E

Network containment is a core EDR feature to stop lateral movement.

Why this answer

Modern EDR solutions allow pulling file samples, isolating hosts from the network, and terminating malicious processes remotely.

31
MCQhard

An organization is hardening Android enterprise devices and wants to prevent users from installing applications from unknown sources while ensuring corporate apps update automatically. Which policy configuration in the EMM/MDM console achieves this?

A.Configuring devices in personal use profile mode
B.Disabling installation from unknown sources and enforcing Managed Google Play accounts
C.Disabling factory reset protection (FRP)
D.Enabling USB debugging mode for all users
AnswerB

Blocking unknown sources prevents sideloading, while Managed Google Play handles curated app distribution and updates.

Why this answer

Disabling 'Unknown Sources' (installations from outside Google Play) combined with forcing Google Play managed accounts ensures secure app management.

32
MCQeasy

An organization is experiencing a ransomware outbreak on an endpoint. The Incident Response team decides to immediately disconnect the infected machine from the network without shutting it down, in order to preserve volatile memory. Which EDR feature should the responder trigger?

A.Disk Defragmentation
B.Remote Device Wipe
C.Remote Host Isolation / Network Containment
D.Cloud Sandbox Submission
AnswerC

Host isolation cuts off lateral network traffic while allowing the EDR management console to communicate with the agent for forensics.

Why this answer

EDR platforms include network isolation capabilities that sever network connectivity to the endpoint while maintaining remote management connectivity for the security team.

33
MCQmedium

A security analyst is reviewing vulnerability assessment reports for a fleet of Windows endpoints and notes that third-party software (such as browsers and PDF readers) accounts for most missing patches. Which deployment strategy should the organization implement to streamline third-party patch management?

A.Manually download and install MSI installers via local administrator logon scripts
B.Disable all third-party software on endpoints
C.Rely exclusively on Microsoft Windows Update for Business
D.Integrate third-party software patch catalogs into MECM or a dedicated Patch Management tool
AnswerD

Integrating third-party catalogs enables centralized automated deployment of application updates alongside OS patches.

Why this answer

Modern endpoint management and EDR/patch tools integrate third-party catalog feeds to automatically package and push vendor patches to endpoints.

34
Multi-Selecthard

An Incident Response team analyzing an enterprise endpoint discovers evidence of a fileless malware attack leveraging Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI). Which THREE of the following WMI artifacts or logging mechanisms should the investigator examine? (Choose THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Microsoft-Windows-WMI-Activity/Operational event log (Event ID 5858 and related operational events)
B.PowerShell script block logging (Event ID 4104) capturing WMI class instantiations (e.g., [wmiclass])
C.The Master Boot Record (MBR) partition table sectors
D.The system HOSTS file in \Windows\System32\drivers\etc\
E.WMI permanent event subscriptions located in the \root\subscription namespace (EventFilters, EventConsumers, FilterToConsumerBindings)
AnswersA, B, E

WMI operational logs track activity, queries, and failures useful for detecting malicious WMI scripting.

Why this answer

WMI persistence involves permanent event subscriptions (filters, consumers, and bindings) logged in specific WMI namespaces and event channels.

35
MCQhard

An organization's security policy states that all Windows 10/11 endpoints must enforce AppLocker rules to block unauthorized executables. An administrator creates an Executable Rule allowing signed applications from a trusted software publisher, but users are still able to run unsigned tools from user-writable directories like C:\Users\Public. What is the most likely reason?

A.Windows Defender Real-time Protection is enabled
B.The Application Identity service (AppIDSvc) is stopped or disabled
C.BitLocker encryption is not enabled on the system drive
D.Fast Startup is enabled in the BIOS
AnswerB

AppLocker depends entirely on the Application Identity service running to perform rule evaluations.

Why this answer

AppLocker requires the Application Identity (AppIDSvc) service to be running to evaluate rule collections. If stopped or disabled, AppLocker rules are not enforced.

36
MCQmedium

An administrator needs to harden an IoT gateway running Linux by disabling core dumps globally to prevent sensitive application memory from being written to disk if a process crashes. Which configuration should be applied?

A.Running chmod 000 /bin/sh
B.Setting ProcessCoreDump=false in /etc/systemd/coredump.conf
C.Editing /etc/fstab to mount /tmp as read-only
D.Modifying /etc/resolv.conf to block DNS queries
AnswerB

Configuring systemd-coredump to disable core dumps prevents memory contents from being persisted to disk upon crashes.

Why this answer

Core dumps are disabled globally by configuring limits in /etc/security/limits.conf or via systemd's coredump.conf.

37
Multi-Selectmedium

A security administrator is hardening Linux servers against local privilege escalation and unauthorized access. Which TWO of the following configurations should be implemented? (Choose TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Disabling SELinux or AppArmor enforcement
B.Setting a restrictive default umask (such as 027) in shell profiles
C.Configuring PermitRootLogin no in /etc/ssh/sshd_config
D.Enabling password authentication with zero minimum length in PAM
E.Mounting all filesystems with read-write and suid privileges
AnswersB, C

A strict umask ensures newly created files are not readable or writable by group and others by default.

Why this answer

Disabling root SSH login and enforcing strict file permissions (umask) are standard Linux hardening best practices.

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