Courseiva

CCNA Ceh Advanced Topics Questions

42 of 117 questions · Page 2/2 · Ceh Advanced Topics topic · Answers revealed

76
MCQhard

A security team discovers that an S3 bucket configured for static website hosting is exposing sensitive documents. The bucket policy allows public read access. Which AWS misconfiguration is MOST likely present?

A.The bucket policy allows s3:GetObject for all principals
B.The bucket versioning is disabled
C.The bucket is not using server-side encryption
D.The bucket ACL grants write access to authenticated users
AnswerA

A bucket policy explicitly allowing the "s3:GetObject" action for "Principal": "*" (all principals) directly grants public read access to all objects within that S3 bucket. This configuration overrides default private settings, making the bucket's contents accessible to anyone on the internet without authentication. Such a policy is the primary mechanism for intentionally exposing S3 objects publicly for read operations.

Why this answer

Public read access to the bucket and objects is the direct cause. Blocking public access would prevent this.

77
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are symmetric encryption algorithms? (Select 2)

Select 2 answers
A.ECC
B.RSA
C.3DES
D.AES
E.MD5
AnswersC, D

Triple DES (3DES) is a symmetric block cipher that applies the original Data Encryption Standard (DES) algorithm three times to each data block. It uses either two or three distinct keys to significantly enhance security beyond single DES, making it a more robust, albeit slower, symmetric encryption method. As a symmetric algorithm, 3DES employs the same key for both encryption and decryption operations.

Why this answer

AES and 3DES are symmetric algorithms; RSA and ECC are asymmetric; MD5 is a hash function.

78
MCQmedium

During a wireless penetration test, a tester captures the 4-way handshake between a client and WPA2-PSK access point. Which tool would the tester MOST likely use to attempt to recover the pre-shared key?

A.Aircrack-ng
B.Wireshark
C.Kismet
D.Reaver
AnswerA

Aircrack-ng is a comprehensive suite of tools specifically designed for auditing wireless networks, including cracking WPA/WPA2-PSK. It leverages captured 4-way handshakes to perform dictionary or brute-force attacks against the pre-shared key. By comparing the captured handshake with hashes generated from a wordlist, Aircrack-ng can efficiently recover weak or common passphrases.

Why this answer

The correct tool is aircrack-ng, which is specifically designed to crack WPA/WPA2 PSK by performing dictionary attacks on captured handshakes. It is part of the aircrack-ng suite widely used for wireless security auditing.

79
Multi-Selecthard

A security analyst is investigating a potential container escape in a Kubernetes cluster. Which THREE of the following are common indicators of a container escape?

Select 3 answers
A.A process running inside the container with CAP_SYS_ADMIN capability
B.The container is running in privileged mode
C.The container is using a hostPath volume that mounts the host's /var/run/docker.sock
D.The container has a read-only root filesystem
E.The container is running as a non-root user
AnswersA, B, C

A process running inside a container with the CAP_SYS_ADMIN capability is a critical security vulnerability. This capability grants extensive privileges, often likened to root access on the host system, allowing operations such as mounting filesystems, creating device nodes, and loading kernel modules. An attacker can leverage CAP_SYS_ADMIN to break out of the container's isolation by manipulating the host's kernel or filesystem, effectively gaining control over the underlying host machine.

Why this answer

Container escape often involves breaking out of the container's isolation by exploiting misconfigurations or vulnerabilities. These indicators are common.

80
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are valid methods for exploiting cloud misconfigurations? (Select 3)

Select 3 answers
A.Using a container escape to access the host OS
B.Exploiting an S3 bucket with public read access to download sensitive files
C.Performing a SQL injection on a web application
D.Launching a DDoS attack from a botnet
E.Abusing overly permissive IAM roles to escalate privileges
AnswersA, B, E

Using a container escape to access the host OS is a critical cloud misconfiguration vulnerability. This occurs when a flaw in the container runtime, kernel, or container configuration allows an attacker to break out of the isolated container environment and gain unauthorized access to the underlying host operating system. Such an escape often leverages misconfigured capabilities, insecure mounts, or unpatched kernel vulnerabilities, directly exposing the host infrastructure to compromise.

Why this answer

S3 bucket public read access, overly permissive IAM roles, and container escape are all cloud misconfiguration exploitation vectors. SQL injection is a web app vulnerability, not cloud-specific. DDoS is an attack type, not a misconfiguration.

81
MCQeasy

Which of the following tools is specifically designed for assessing the security of AWS environments by checking for misconfigurations in services like S3, IAM, and EC2?

A.ScoutSuite
B.Aircrack-ng
C.Nmap
D.Wireshark
AnswerA

ScoutSuite is a comprehensive open-source tool specifically engineered for auditing the security posture of multi-cloud environments, including Amazon Web Services (AWS), Microsoft Azure, and Google Cloud Platform (GCP). It meticulously identifies security misconfigurations, adherence to best practices, and potential vulnerabilities across various services like IAM, storage, and compute. By generating an interactive HTML report, it provides a clear overview of an organization's cloud security risks, enabling targeted remediation efforts.

Why this answer

ScoutSuite is an open-source security auditing tool for cloud environments, including AWS. It checks for misconfigurations across multiple services and provides a detailed report.

82
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm that uses a block cipher with a fixed block size of 128 bits and key sizes of 128, 192, or 256 bits?

A.3DES
B.RC4
C.AES
D.RSA
AnswerC

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is the correct answer because it is a symmetric block cipher that processes data in fixed-size blocks of 128 bits. It supports robust key lengths of 128, 192, or 256 bits, providing strong cryptographic security. Its design, based on the Rijndael cipher, makes it highly efficient and widely adopted for various secure communication and storage applications.

Why this answer

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a symmetric encryption algorithm that operates as a block cipher with a fixed block size of 128 bits and supports key sizes of 128, 192, or 256 bits. It was established by NIST in 2001 (FIPS 197) and is widely used in modern cryptographic systems, including wireless security (WPA2/WPA3) and TLS.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse AES with 3DES due to both being symmetric block ciphers, but they fail to recall that 3DES uses a 64-bit block size (not 128 bits) and lacks the specific key size options of AES, leading them to select 3DES incorrectly.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 3DES (Triple DES) uses a block size of 64 bits, not 128 bits, and its key size is effectively 112 or 168 bits (using three 56-bit DES keys), not the specified 128/192/256-bit options. Option B is wrong because RC4 is a stream cipher, not a block cipher, and it does not have a fixed block size or support key sizes of 128/192/256 bits in the manner described; it uses variable-length keys (typically 40–2048 bits) and is deprecated due to known vulnerabilities. Option D is wrong because RSA is an asymmetric (public-key) encryption algorithm, not a symmetric one, and it does not use a fixed block size or the specified key sizes; it relies on key pairs (public/private) based on large prime numbers.

83
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are symmetric encryption algorithms? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.ECC
B.AES
C.RSA
D.3DES
E.SHA-256
AnswersB, D

AES is a symmetric block cipher.

Why this answer

AES and 3DES are both symmetric block ciphers. RSA and ECC are asymmetric algorithms, and SHA-256 is a hash function.

84
MCQeasy

A security analyst captures a large number of weak initialization vectors (IVs) using airodump-ng. Which attack does this preparation indicate?

A.WPS PIN brute force
B.WPA2 dictionary attack
C.WEP key cracking
D.Evil twin attack
AnswerC

WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) encryption is notoriously vulnerable due to its use of a 24-bit Initialization Vector (IV) concatenated with the static WEP key to form the RC4 cipher key. The small IV space leads to frequent IV reuse, especially with weak IVs that reveal information about the key stream. By capturing a sufficient number of these weak IVs and their corresponding encrypted packets, tools like aircrack-ng can statistically analyze the patterns to deduce the WEP key, often within minutes.

Why this answer

WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) uses the RC4 stream cipher with a 24-bit initialization vector (IV) that is transmitted in plaintext. Weak IVs, such as those identified by tools like airodump-ng, are predictable or repeatable, allowing an attacker to capture enough packets to recover the WEP key using statistical attacks like the FMS (Fluhrer, Mantin, Shamir) or KoreK attacks. This preparation directly indicates an attempt to crack the WEP key.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between WEP and WPA/WPA2 by having candidates confuse weak IVs (a WEP-specific vulnerability) with the 4-way handshake (required for WPA/WPA2 cracking), leading them to incorrectly select the WPA2 dictionary attack option.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because WPS PIN brute force targets the Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) PIN, not weak IVs; it involves brute-forcing the 8-digit PIN via the registrar protocol, not capturing IVs with airodump-ng. Option B is wrong because a WPA2 dictionary attack uses captured 4-way handshake packets (not weak IVs) and attempts to derive the Pairwise Master Key (PMK) from a passphrase, relying on PBKDF2-SHA1 hashing, not RC4 IV weaknesses. Option D is wrong because an evil twin attack involves setting up a rogue access point to trick clients into connecting, often for credential harvesting or man-in-the-middle, and does not require capturing weak IVs from a target network.

85
MCQmedium

An analyst sees the following in a log: Client sends a request to https://victim.com/api?url=http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/. This is MOST indicative of which attack?

A.Cross-site scripting (XSS)
B.Server-side request forgery (SSRF)
C.Directory traversal
D.SQL injection
AnswerB

Server-side request forgery (SSRF) exploits a vulnerability where a web application is tricked into making requests to an arbitrary domain specified by the attacker. This allows an attacker to force the server to connect to internal services, such as metadata APIs, internal databases, or other hosts within the organization's private network, which are typically not directly accessible from the internet. The "client sends a reque" could be the initial malicious input that triggers the server to make an unintended internal request.

Why this answer

The IP 169.254.169.254 is the AWS metadata endpoint. SSRF attacks target internal services by manipulating the url parameter.

86
MCQmedium

Which of the following tools is specifically designed to exploit WPS vulnerabilities on wireless networks?

A.John the Ripper
B.aircrack-ng
C.Kismet
D.Reaver
AnswerD

Reaver is a specialized tool explicitly designed to exploit a critical vulnerability in the Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) protocol by performing a brute-force attack against the WPS registrar PIN. It leverages the fact that the 8-digit WPS PIN is validated in two halves, allowing an attacker to determine the first four digits and then the next three, with the last digit being a checksum. This significantly reduces the number of attempts required, making the brute-force attack feasible and highly effective against vulnerable WPS-enabled access points.

Why this answer

Reaver is specifically designed to exploit the WPS (Wi-Fi Protected Setup) PIN brute-force vulnerability. It targets the WPS registrar's lack of rate limiting and the fact that the PIN is split into two halves, making it feasible to guess the 8-digit PIN in under 10,000 attempts. This allows an attacker to recover the WPA/WPA2 pre-shared key without needing to crack the actual encryption.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse aircrack-ng (which cracks WPA handshakes) with tools that exploit the WPS PIN vulnerability, but aircrack-ng has no WPS brute-force capability.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because John the Ripper is a password cracking tool for offline hash files, not a wireless attack tool for exploiting WPS vulnerabilities. Option B is wrong because aircrack-ng is a suite for capturing and cracking WEP/WPA/WPA2 handshakes, but it does not target the WPS PIN brute-force mechanism. Option C is wrong because Kismet is a wireless network detector, sniffer, and intrusion detection system, not a tool for exploiting WPS vulnerabilities.

87
MCQhard

A security engineer analyzes a cloud environment and finds that an S3 bucket named 'company-backups' is configured with a bucket policy that allows 'Principal': '*' and 'Action': 's3:GetObject'. Which of the following is the MOST likely risk?

A.An attacker can read any object in the bucket without authentication
B.An attacker can modify the bucket policy
C.An attacker can delete objects in the bucket
D.An attacker can enumerate all objects in the bucket
AnswerA

The bucket policy explicitly grants the "s3:GetObject" action to "Principal: *". This configuration means that any user, including unauthenticated internet users, can retrieve and read the content of any object within the bucket, provided they know the object's key. This effectively makes all objects publicly readable, posing a significant data exposure risk.

Why this answer

A bucket policy allowing anonymous GetObject makes all objects publicly readable, leading to data exposure.

88
MCQhard

A security team uses ScoutSuite to assess their AWS environment. The tool reports that an S3 bucket policy allows access from any IP address. What is the MOST likely misconfiguration?

A.The bucket has versioning enabled
B.The bucket ACL grants 'FullControl' to 'AuthenticatedUsers' group
C.The bucket is encrypted with SSE-S3
D.The bucket policy uses 'Principal': '*' and 'Condition': {'IpAddress': {'aws:SourceIp': '0.0.0.0/0'}}
AnswerD

This bucket policy explicitly grants access to 'Principal': '*', which signifies *any* AWS identity or anonymous user. The accompanying 'Condition': {'IpAddress': {'aws:SourceIp': '0.0.0.0/0'}} further specifies that this broad access is permitted from *any* IPv4 address. The combination of allowing any principal from any IP address effectively overrides any other restrictions and renders the S3 bucket completely public and accessible to the entire internet, which is a critical security misconfiguration.

Why this answer

ScoutSuite identifies overly permissive bucket policies; allowing access from any IP (0.0.0.0/0) is a common misconfiguration.

89
MCQhard

A cloud security engineer notices that an S3 bucket named 'company-backup' is configured to allow 's3:GetObject' access to 'Principal: *'. Which attack is this misconfiguration MOST likely to enable?

A.Denial of service by deleting objects
B.SSRF attack to internal metadata
C.Privilege escalation via IAM role
D.Unauthorized data access and exfiltration
AnswerD

When an S3 bucket is configured for public read access, it means that the bucket policy explicitly permits the s3:GetObject action for the * principal (anonymous users). This configuration allows anyone on the internet to enumerate and download all objects stored within that bucket without requiring any authentication. This direct and unrestricted access inevitably leads to unauthorized data access and subsequent exfiltration, constituting a severe data breach where sensitive information can be freely downloaded.

Why this answer

When an S3 bucket allows GetObject access to any principal (public), anyone can list and download objects, leading to data exposure. This is a classic unauthorized data access scenario, not privileged escalation or DoS.

90
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are symmetric encryption algorithms?

Select 2 answers
A.Diffie-Hellman
B.RSA
C.AES
D.ECC
E.3DES
AnswersC, E

Advanced Encryption Standard is symmetric.

Why this answer

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a symmetric encryption algorithm that uses the same key for both encryption and decryption. It is widely adopted for securing sensitive data and is a block cipher with key sizes of 128, 192, or 256 bits.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse key exchange protocols (like Diffie-Hellman) and asymmetric algorithms (like RSA and ECC) with symmetric encryption, because all are used in cryptography but serve fundamentally different roles in securing communications.

91
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are common defense measures against wireless de-authentication attacks? (Select 2)

Select 2 answers
A.Changing the default SSID
B.Enabling 802.11w (Management Frame Protection)
C.Implementing MAC address filtering
D.Using WPA3 instead of WPA2
E.Disabling SSID broadcast
AnswersB, D

IEEE 802.11w introduces Management Frame Protection (MFP), which cryptographically protects certain 802.11 management frames, including deauthentication and disassociation frames. This protection ensures that only legitimate, authenticated devices can send these frames, preventing an attacker from spoofing a deauthentication request. By validating the source and integrity of these critical frames, 802.11w effectively mitigates deauthentication attacks.

Why this answer

Using WPA3 (SAE) mitigates de-auth because management frame protection is mandatory. 802.11w (MFP) also protects de-auth frames. Changing default SSID and disabling SSID broadcast do not prevent de-auth.

92
MCQmedium

In an IoT environment, a researcher finds that the firmware of a smart lock can be extracted via UART and reversed to reveal hardcoded encryption keys. Which type of vulnerability is this?

A.Insecure firmware update mechanism
B.Insufficient entropy in random number generation
C.Use of deprecated cryptographic algorithm
D.Hardcoded backdoor credentials
AnswerD

A hardcoded encryption key embedded directly into device firmware functions as a universal master key, effectively creating an intentional or unintentional backdoor. Its discovery allows any attacker to decrypt communications, authenticate as a legitimate device, or gain unauthorized control, bypassing standard security protocols. This vulnerability provides persistent, privileged access, much like a set of secret credentials known only to the firmware developer, but now exposed.

Why this answer

Hardcoded keys in firmware are a classic example of a backdoor or hardcoded credential vulnerability, allowing attackers to decrypt traffic or authenticate without proper authorization.

93
MCQeasy

Which cloud security assessment tool is specifically designed to audit AWS environments for misconfigurations and provides a detailed report of findings?

A.ScoutSuite
B.Pacu
C.Metasploit
D.Nmap
AnswerA

ScoutSuite is an open-source multi-cloud auditing tool designed to assess the security posture of cloud environments like AWS, Azure, GCP, and Alibaba Cloud. It systematically gathers configuration data and identifies potential vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and compliance deviations, presenting them in a comprehensive report. This tool specifically focuses on detecting issues such as overly permissive IAM policies, unencrypted storage buckets, and publicly exposed resources, making it ideal for proactive cloud security assessments.

Why this answer

ScoutSuite is an open-source tool that audits cloud environments (AWS, Azure, GCP) for security misconfigurations. It generates a comprehensive HTML report. Pacu is an exploitation framework, not an audit tool.

94
MCQmedium

During a cloud security audit, a tool reports that an AWS IAM role has a policy allowing 'ec2:RunInstances' with a condition 'aws:SourceIp': '0.0.0.0/0'. What is the most immediate risk?

A.An attacker can delete all EC2 instances
B.An attacker can launch expensive EC2 instances from any IP
C.An attacker can modify VPC security groups
D.An attacker can read data from any S3 bucket
AnswerB

The `ec2:RunInstances` action, when not constrained by specific `ec2:SourceIp` conditions or other limiting factors, allows an authenticated principal to launch new EC2 instances from any IP address. This capability includes selecting various instance types, potentially very expensive ones, leading to unauthorized resource consumption, significant cost overruns, and resource abuse for the AWS account owner.

Why this answer

The condition allows all IP addresses (0.0.0.0/0) to launch EC2 instances, meaning any user who can assume this role can create instances from anywhere, potentially for cryptocurrency mining or other malicious purposes.

95
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following correctly describe aspects of the shared responsibility model in cloud computing?

Select 2 answers
A.The cloud provider is responsible for managing customer application encryption keys
B.The customer is responsible for network firewall configuration in PaaS
C.The customer is responsible for securing data stored in the cloud
D.The cloud provider is responsible for patching the guest operating system in IaaS
E.The cloud provider is responsible for physical security of data centers
AnswersC, E

Regardless of the cloud service model (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS), the customer always retains primary responsibility for the security of their data itself. This encompasses implementing appropriate encryption for data at rest and in transit, configuring robust access controls and identity management, and ensuring data integrity and compliance. The cloud provider secures the underlying infrastructure that stores the data, but the data's content security is the customer's domain.

Why this answer

In the shared responsibility model, the customer is responsible for security IN the cloud (e.g., data, application configurations, identity management) while the provider is responsible for security OF the cloud (e.g., physical security, network infrastructure). Option C is correct because customers must secure their stored data. Option E is correct because providers secure data center physical access.

Option A is incorrect: the cloud provider does not manage customer encryption keys; that is the customer's responsibility. Option B is incorrect: in PaaS, the provider manages the network firewall; the customer manages application-level security only. Option D is incorrect: in IaaS, the customer patches the guest OS; the provider patches the hypervisor and physical infrastructure.

96
MCQmedium

A penetration tester uses the tool 'Pacu' during an AWS security assessment. Which phase of testing is Pacu most commonly associated with?

A.Reporting and documentation
B.Vulnerability scanning
C.Exploitation and post-exploitation
D.Reconnaissance
AnswerC

Pacu is specifically engineered as an open-source exploitation framework for AWS, providing a comprehensive suite of modules tailored for active penetration testing. It excels in the exploitation phase by leveraging identified misconfigurations or weak credentials to gain unauthorized access or elevate privileges within an AWS account. Furthermore, Pacu facilitates post-exploitation activities such as establishing persistence, enumerating sensitive data, performing lateral movement across AWS services, and backdooring resources, making it a powerful tool for simulating real-world attacks.

Why this answer

Pacu is an exploitation framework for AWS, used after initial access to escalate privileges, pivot, and maintain access. It is not typically used for initial reconnaissance (Nmap, ScoutSuite) or reporting.

97
MCQmedium

During a wireless penetration test, the tester runs `airodump-ng wlan0mon` and sees numerous beacon frames from a network. The tester then sends deauthentication packets using `aireplay-ng -0 5 -a <BSSID> wlan0mon`. What is the PRIMARY purpose of this deauthentication attack?

A.To crash the access point and cause a denial of service
B.To force a client to reconnect and capture the WPA/WPA2 handshake
C.To obtain the WPS PIN of the access point
D.To perform a rogue AP attack by spoofing the BSSID
AnswerB

Correct: `airodump-ng` is utilized to monitor wireless traffic and capture the WPA/WPA2 4-way handshake, which is essential for offline password cracking. To expedite this process, a deauthentication attack (typically executed with `aireplay-ng` alongside `airodump-ng`) is employed. This attack forces an authenticated client to disconnect and then immediately reconnect to the access point, thereby generating the necessary handshake frames for `airodump-ng` to record.

Why this answer

Deauthentication attacks force clients to reconnect, allowing capture of the WPA/WPA2 4-way handshake during reconnection, which is needed for offline cracking.

98
Multi-Selectmedium

A penetration tester is assessing the security of a cloud application and discovers that it is vulnerable to Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF). Which TWO of the following are potential impacts of this vulnerability?

Select 2 answers
A.Ability to perform a man-in-the-middle attack on the user's browser
B.Access to cloud instance metadata (e.g., AWS IMDS)
C.Direct modification of DNS records
D.Remote code execution on internal servers
E.Direct access to the database without authentication
AnswersB, D

SSRF enables a malicious actor to force the vulnerable server to make requests to internal endpoints. Cloud instance metadata services, such as AWS IMDS (Instance Metadata Service), are often accessible from the instance itself via a well-known internal IP address (e.g., 169.254.169.254). An SSRF vulnerability can be leveraged to query these services, potentially retrieving sensitive information like temporary IAM role credentials, user data, or network configuration details, which can then be used for privilege escalation or further attacks within the cloud environment.

Why this answer

SSRF can allow access to internal services (like metadata endpoints) and potentially lead to remote code execution if internal services are compromised.

99
MCQeasy

A security analyst captures a large number of unique initialization vectors (IVs) from a wireless network using airodump-ng. Which attack are they MOST likely preparing to execute?

A.WPS PIN brute-force attack
B.Evil twin AP deployment
C.WEP key recovery using aircrack-ng
D.WPA handshake capture
AnswerC

WEP key recovery using tools like aircrack-ng is the correct answer because WEP's fundamental cryptographic weakness stems from its inefficient use of Initialization Vectors (IVs) with the RC4 stream cipher. Attackers exploit the small 24-bit IV space and the plaintext transmission of IVs, leading to frequent IV reuse with the same WEP key. By collecting a large number of unique IVs, often hundreds of thousands to millions, statistical analysis can be performed to deduce the WEP key by observing patterns in the keystream generated from the IV and the key.

Why this answer

WEP encryption is vulnerable to statistical attacks that require capturing many unique IVs to recover the WEP key. The large number of unique IVs indicates preparation for a WEP cracking attack using a tool like aircrack-ng.

100
MCQhard

A security analyst observes an SSL/TLS handshake where the client and server negotiate TLS 1.0 instead of TLS 1.2, despite the server supporting TLS 1.2. Which attack BEST describes the manipulation of the handshake to force weaker encryption?

A.Man-in-the-middle attack
B.Replay attack
C.Downgrade attack
D.Birthday attack
AnswerC

A downgrade attack specifically targets the SSL/TLS handshake process by forcing the communicating parties to negotiate and use an older, weaker, and often vulnerable version of the protocol. During the ClientHello message, an attacker intercepts and modifies the list of supported protocol versions, removing stronger options like TLS 1.2 or 1.3. This manipulation tricks the server into agreeing upon an outdated protocol, such as SSL 3.0 or TLS 1.0, which may contain known cryptographic weaknesses that can then be exploited for decryption or further compromise.

Why this answer

A downgrade attack occurs when an attacker forces the client and server to negotiate a lower, less secure version of a protocol (e.g., from TLS 1.2 to TLS 1.0) to exploit vulnerabilities in the older version.

101
MCQhard

In a cloud environment, an attacker exploits a vulnerability in a web application to make the server send requests to internal metadata endpoints (e.g., http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/). This yields IAM temporary credentials. Which attack is this?

A.Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) targeting cloud metadata
B.XML External Entity (XXE) injection
C.Insecure Direct Object Reference (IDOR) on metadata
D.Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) targeting cloud APIs
AnswerA

An SSRF vulnerability allows an attacker to manipulate a vulnerable server-side application into making arbitrary requests to internal network resources on behalf of the attacker. In cloud environments, this is critically dangerous as it can be leveraged to query the cloud provider's instance metadata service, typically found at a well-known, non-routable IP address like 169.254.169.254. Accessing this service often reveals temporary IAM credentials, instance profiles, and other sensitive configuration data, leading to privilege escalation or data exfiltration within the cloud infrastructure.

Why this answer

SSRF occurs when an application fetches user-controlled URLs without proper validation. The attacker used it to access cloud metadata endpoints (like AWS IMDS) to retrieve temporary credentials.

102
MCQhard

A security analyst observes that a server running an IoT device management platform is sending MQTT traffic to an unexpected IP address. The analyst also notes that the device's firmware contains hardcoded credentials. Which attack vector is MOST likely being exploited?

A.CoAP protocol attack
B.Insecure MQTT protocol exploitation via default credentials
C.Firmware reversing attack
D.Container escape attack
AnswerB

Insecure MQTT (Message Queuing Telemetry Transport) protocol exploitation via default credentials is a common and critical vulnerability in IoT deployments. Many MQTT brokers are configured with weak or absent authentication, or rely on easily guessable default usernames and passwords. An attacker exploiting these weaknesses can subscribe to all topics, publish malicious commands, exfiltrate sensitive data, and gain unauthorized control over connected IoT devices, directly aligning with active exploitation behavior.

Why this answer

The combination of hardcoded credentials and unexpected MQTT traffic suggests an attacker has used default credentials to compromise the device and is exfiltrating data via MQTT.

103
MCQhard

An IoT device uses the MQTT protocol without any authentication or encryption. An attacker on the same network subscribes to all topics on the MQTT broker. Which of the following is the MOST effective immediate countermeasure?

A.Disable the MQTT broker entirely and switch to HTTP
B.Implement client authentication and enable TLS encryption
C.Change the default topic names to obfuscated strings
D.Use a VPN for all IoT device communication
AnswerB

Implementing client authentication ensures that only authorized IoT devices can connect to the MQTT broker, preventing unauthorized actors from publishing or subscribing to sensitive data streams. Concurrently, enabling TLS encryption secures the communication channel itself, protecting all data transmitted between devices and the broker from eavesdropping, tampering, and man-in-the-middle attacks. This combination establishes robust confidentiality, integrity, and access control for MQTT communications, directly addressing the core security vulnerabilities.

Why this answer

MQTT without authentication and encryption can be secured by enabling TLS for transport encryption and requiring credentials for clients. This prevents unauthorized access and eavesdropping.

104
MCQhard

A penetration tester is assessing an AWS environment and discovers an S3 bucket with the following bucket policy: `{"Version":"2012-10-17","Statement":[{"Effect":"Allow","Principal":"*","Action":"s3:GetObject","Resource":"arn:aws:s3:::example-bucket/*"}]}`. Which of the following is the MOST likely security issue?

A.The bucket policy allows public read access to all objects
B.The bucket policy allows only GetObject, which is too restrictive
C.The bucket policy should use a Principal of AWS instead of *
D.The bucket policy is missing a Deny statement for write operations
AnswerA

The bucket policy explicitly grants `s3:GetObject` permission to `Principal: "*"`, which signifies anonymous public access. This configuration allows any user on the internet, without authentication, to retrieve all objects stored within the S3 bucket. Such unrestricted read access poses a significant security risk, potentially exposing sensitive data to unauthorized parties and violating data privacy regulations.

Why this answer

The policy allows anyone (Principal: *) to read any object in the bucket, making it publicly accessible and a common misconfiguration.

105
MCQmedium

During a penetration test, an analyst runs the following command: 'reaver -i wlan0mon -b 00:11:22:33:44:55 -vv'. What is the PRIMARY purpose of this command?

A.Perform a de-authentication attack on the target AP
B.Capture the 4-way handshake for WPA cracking
C.Brute-force the WPS PIN to recover the Wi-Fi passphrase
D.Scan for nearby access points and their BSSIDs
AnswerC

Reaver is a specialized tool engineered to exploit a design flaw in the Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) protocol. It systematically attempts to guess the 8-digit WPS PIN by brute-forcing the first four digits, then the next three, and finally the checksum digit. This method leverages the fact that WPS validates the PIN in two halves, significantly reducing the number of possible combinations and allowing Reaver to recover the Wi-Fi passphrase.

Why this answer

Reaver is a tool designed to exploit the WPS PIN authentication mechanism. The command targets a specific BSSID to perform a brute-force attack on the WPS PIN, which can reveal the WPA/WPA2 passphrase if successful.

106
MCQmedium

A security analyst observes the following log entry on a web server: 'GET /?url=http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/ HTTP/1.1'. This request appears to originate from a compromised web application. Which cloud attack technique is being attempted?

A.Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF)
B.SQL Injection
C.Container escape
D.Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
AnswerA

Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) occurs when a web server is tricked into making requests to an arbitrary domain specified by an attacker. The log entry showing a request to `http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/iam/security-credentials/` is a classic example targeting a cloud instance metadata service. This allows the attacker to obtain sensitive information, such as temporary IAM credentials, which can then be used to escalate privileges within the cloud environment.

Why this answer

The IP address 169.254.169.254 is the AWS instance metadata service endpoint. An attacker using a Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) vulnerability can force the server to request this URL and retrieve sensitive instance metadata, such as IAM credentials.

107
MCQmedium

Which cloud security assessment tool is specifically designed to audit AWS environments against best practices and CIS benchmarks?

A.Pacu
B.ScoutSuite
C.Nessus
D.Metasploit
AnswerB

ScoutSuite is an open-source multi-cloud security auditing tool specifically engineered to assess the security posture of cloud environments across major providers like AWS, Azure, GCP, Alibaba Cloud, and OCI. It achieves this by leveraging cloud provider APIs to collect configuration data and then identifies security 'findings' or misconfigurations against a comprehensive set of predefined best practices and compliance rules. The tool generates an interactive HTML report, highlighting potential attack surfaces and compliance deviations within the cloud infrastructure.

Why this answer

ScoutSuite is an open-source tool that audits cloud environments (AWS, Azure, GCP) for security misconfigurations.

108
MCQmedium

During a penetration test, you capture the following 4-way handshake using airodump-ng. Which tool would you use to attempt a dictionary attack to recover the WPA2 passphrase?

A.Reaver
B.Aircrack-ng
C.Kismet
D.John the Ripper
AnswerB

Aircrack-ng can perform dictionary attacks on captured 4-way handshakes.

Why this answer

Aircrack-ng is the standard tool for cracking WPA/WPA2 handshakes using dictionary attacks.

109
MCQmedium

In a cloud environment, which of the following is an example of a Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) attack?

A.An attacker exploits a web application to send HTTP requests from the server to an internal metadata endpoint
B.An attacker intercepts traffic between a load balancer and backend servers
C.An attacker uses a SQL injection to extract database contents
D.An attacker uploads a malicious file to an S3 bucket that executes code on the server
AnswerA

This scenario perfectly illustrates Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF). The attacker manipulates a vulnerable web application to force the server itself to initiate HTTP requests to an arbitrary internal or external destination. In a cloud environment, targeting the internal metadata service (e.g., http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/) is a common and critical SSRF exploitation technique, allowing the retrieval of sensitive information like IAM role credentials. This effectively turns the compromised server into a proxy for internal network reconnaissance and privilege escalation.

Why this answer

SSRF occurs when an attacker tricks the server into making requests to internal resources, such as a cloud metadata service, to obtain credentials.

110
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following tools are used for cloud security auditing or exploitation?

Select 2 answers
A.ScoutSuite
B.John the Ripper
C.Pacu
D.Nessus
E.Aircrack-ng
AnswersA, C

ScoutSuite is a security auditing tool for cloud environments.

Why this answer

ScoutSuite is an auditing tool and Pacu is an exploitation framework for cloud environments.

111
MCQmedium

A penetration tester uses the tool Reaver to target a Wi-Fi network. What vulnerability is the tester attempting to exploit?

A.WPA2 4-way handshake capture
B.WPS PIN brute-force weakness
C.Weak WEP encryption keys
D.RADIUS authentication bypass
AnswerB

Reaver is specifically designed to exploit the design flaw in Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) by performing a brute-force attack against the WPS PIN. This 8-digit PIN, often split into two smaller, independently verifiable sections, significantly reduces the number of attempts required to guess it. Successful exploitation allows Reaver to recover the WPA/WPA2 Pre-Shared Key (PSK), granting unauthorized access to the network.

Why this answer

Reaver is a tool specifically designed to exploit the WPS (Wi-Fi Protected Setup) PIN brute-force vulnerability. It targets the WPS registrar's lack of rate-limiting and the fact that the PIN is split into two halves (first half 4 digits, second half 3 digits with a checksum), allowing an attacker to recover the WPS PIN and subsequently the WPA2 pre-shared key in a matter of hours.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between WPS PIN brute-force (Reaver) and WPA2 handshake capture (aircrack-ng), so candidates mistakenly associate any wireless attack with handshake capture rather than recognizing the specific tool-to-vulnerability mapping.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because capturing a WPA2 4-way handshake is performed with tools like airodump-ng or Wireshark, not Reaver; Reaver does not capture handshakes but instead brute-forces the WPS PIN. Option C is wrong because weak WEP encryption keys are exploited using tools like aircrack-ng or WEP cracking techniques (e.g., ARP replay attacks), not Reaver, which is designed for WPS attacks on WPA/WPA2 networks. Option D is wrong because RADIUS authentication bypass typically targets enterprise 802.1X networks using tools like asleap or hostapd-wpe, not Reaver, which operates on the WPS protocol used in personal (PSK) mode.

112
MCQmedium

An IoT device uses MQTT for communication. An attacker intercepts MQTT packets and observes that the publish messages are not encrypted and contain plaintext sensor data. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to secure MQTT traffic?

A.Base64-encode the payload
B.Switch to CoAP protocol
C.Use MQTT over TLS
D.Implement a VPN on the device
AnswerC

Using MQTT over TLS (Transport Layer Security), often referred to as MQTTS, is the standard and most effective method to secure MQTT communications against eavesdropping. TLS establishes an encrypted tunnel between the MQTT client and broker, ensuring that all data exchanged is confidential and cannot be read by unauthorized parties. Furthermore, TLS provides data integrity verification, preventing tampering, and offers server authentication through certificates, confirming the identity of the broker to the client.

Why this answer

MQTT itself does not provide encryption; using TLS (MQTT over TLS) encrypts the entire communication channel, protecting data in transit.

113
MCQmedium

A cloud security engineer discovers that an S3 bucket named 'acme-backups' is accessible to anyone with the bucket URL. The bucket contains sensitive customer data. Which AWS shared responsibility model component does this misconfiguration primarily violate?

A.AWS is responsible for physical security of data centers
B.The customer is responsible for patching the S3 service
C.The customer is responsible for configuring access controls and permissions
D.AWS is responsible for network infrastructure; the customer for data classification
AnswerC

This statement is correct because, within the AWS shared responsibility model, the customer is solely responsible for the "security in the cloud." For S3, this explicitly includes defining and implementing appropriate access controls and permissions. This involves configuring S3 bucket policies, Access Control Lists (ACLs), and AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies to restrict who can access, modify, or delete data within their S3 buckets. A misconfiguration in these controls directly leads to data exposure.

Why this answer

Under the AWS shared responsibility model, the customer is responsible for configuring S3 bucket policies and access controls. The misconfiguration is a customer-side issue, not an infrastructure vulnerability.

114
MCQhard

A security engineer observes the following log event: 'Certificate for www.example.com was issued by an intermediate CA that chains to a root CA not in the trusted store.' Which type of attack might this indicate?

A.Birthday attack on the certificate signature
B.Downgrade attack to SSLv3
C.Man-in-the-middle using a rogue certificate
D.Replay attack on the TLS handshake
AnswerC

When a client encounters an "untrusted root CA" error, it signifies that the digital certificate presented by the server cannot be validated against the client's pre-installed list of trusted Certificate Authorities. In a Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack, an adversary intercepts communication and presents a fraudulent certificate, often self-signed or issued by an attacker-controlled CA, to the client. This rogue certificate will naturally fail the trust chain validation, leading to the observed error as the client cannot establish a secure, authenticated connection to the legitimate server.

Why this answer

A certificate from an untrusted root CA suggests a rogue or misissued certificate, possibly from a malicious CA or a man-in-the-middle attack using a proxy with its own CA certificate not trusted by the client.

115
MCQhard

A penetration tester performs a container escape by exploiting a misconfigured capability and mounts the host filesystem. Which cloud service model is MOST directly affected?

A.Platform as a Service (PaaS)
B.Software as a Service (SaaS)
C.Function as a Service (FaaS)
D.Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
AnswerD

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides virtualized computing resources, such as virtual machines, networks, and storage, granting users significant control over the operating system and installed software. In an IaaS model, users frequently deploy and manage their own containerized applications, often having direct access to the container runtime and the host operating system. This elevated level of control means a successful container escape directly compromises the host VM or underlying physical server, rendering IaaS the most susceptible cloud service model for such an attack.

Why this answer

Container escape compromises the host, affecting the underlying infrastructure in IaaS. In PaaS/SaaS, the provider may manage containers differently.

116
MCQhard

A penetration tester performs a container escape from a Docker container running in a cloud environment. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A.The container uses default credentials for SSH
B.The container image has a known vulnerability in the MQTT library
C.The host OS is running an outdated kernel version
D.The container is running with the --privileged flag
AnswerD

Running a container with the `--privileged` flag effectively disables most of the security features and isolation mechanisms provided by the container runtime. This flag grants the container nearly all capabilities of the host, including direct access to host devices (e.g., `/dev`), the ability to mount host filesystems, and full control over the kernel's capabilities (like `CAP_SYS_ADMIN`). These elevated privileges provide direct and straightforward vectors for a penetration tester to break out of the container and gain control over the host system.

Why this answer

Container escape often occurs when the container is run with the --privileged flag, granting elevated capabilities that allow access to the host kernel.

117
MCQeasy

Which asymmetric encryption algorithm is based on the algebraic structure of elliptic curves over finite fields and provides equivalent security to RSA with smaller key sizes?

A.SHA-256
B.Diffie-Hellman (DH)
C.Triple DES (3DES)
D.Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC)
AnswerD

Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC) is an asymmetric encryption algorithm that derives its security from the mathematical properties of elliptic curves over finite fields, specifically the difficulty of the Elliptic Curve Discrete Logarithm Problem (ECDLP). It provides a robust framework for public-key cryptography, including encryption, digital signatures, and key exchange. ECC is highly efficient, offering equivalent security to RSA with significantly smaller key sizes, making it particularly well-suited for resource-constrained environments like mobile devices.

Why this answer

ECC (Elliptic Curve Cryptography) offers strong security with smaller keys compared to RSA. Diffie-Hellman is a key exchange protocol, 3DES is symmetric, and SHA-256 is a hash function.

← PreviousPage 2 of 2 · 117 questions total

Ready to test yourself?

Try a timed practice session using only Ceh Advanced Topics questions.