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CCNA Advanced Topics: Wireless, Cloud, IoT, Cryptography Questions

75 of 119 questions · Page 1/2 · Advanced Topics: Wireless, Cloud, IoT, Cryptography · Answers revealed

1
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are common IoT attack vectors?

Select 3 answers
A.Default credentials
B.SQL injection
C.Insecure protocols (MQTT, CoAP)
D.Firmware reversing
E.ARP spoofing
AnswersA, C, D

Manufacturers frequently ship IoT devices with easily guessable or hardcoded default usernames and passwords (e.g., "admin/admin," "root/password"). Users often fail to change these factory settings, leaving devices highly susceptible to automated brute-force attacks, dictionary attacks, or simple credential stuffing. This vulnerability grants unauthorized access, allowing attackers to control the device, exfiltrate data, or use it as a pivot point for further network compromise.

Why this answer

Default credentials, insecure protocols, and firmware reversing are common IoT attack vectors.

2
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are valid defenses against WPA2 attacks? (Select three)

Select 3 answers
A.Disable WPS
B.Implement 802.1X/EAP with RADIUS
C.Use WEP instead of WPA2
D.Enable WPA2-Mixed mode
E.Use a strong, complex pre-shared key
AnswersA, B, E

Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) is a feature designed for easy network setup but introduces a significant vulnerability. Its PIN-based authentication mechanism is susceptible to brute-force attacks due to its 8-digit PIN being validated in two halves, effectively reducing the search space. Disabling WPS eliminates this critical attack vector, preventing an attacker from easily discovering the WPA2 pre-shared key (PSK) by exploiting the WPS vulnerability.

Why this answer

Option A (Disable WPS) is correct because the WPS PIN mechanism is vulnerable to brute-force attacks (e.g., via Reaver) that can recover the WPA2 pre-shared key, so turning WPS off removes that attack surface. Option B (Implement 802.1X/EAP with RADIUS) is correct because enterprise mode replaces the shared PSK with per-user credentials and mutual authentication, defeating offline dictionary attacks against a captured 4-way handshake. Option E (Use a strong, complex pre-shared key) is correct because WPA2-Personal's main weakness is offline cracking of the handshake, and a long high-entropy passphrase makes dictionary and brute-force recovery computationally infeasible.

Option C is wrong because WEP is cryptographically broken (RC4 with weak IVs) and is far less secure than WPA2. Option D is wrong because WPA2-Mixed mode merely allows both TKIP and AES-CCMP clients, and TKIP is deprecated and vulnerable, so it does not defend against WPA2 attacks.

Exam trap

CEH often tests the misconception that 'WPA2-Mixed mode' or 'WEP fallback' improves compatibility without weakening security — in fact, both downgrade the encryption to weaker protocols (TKIP/WEP) and are never valid defenses.

3
MCQmedium

A security team is evaluating wireless security for a corporate network. They want to implement the strongest current encryption standard for Wi-Fi. Which of the following should they choose?

A.WEP with 128-bit key
B.WPA2 with CCMP
C.802.1X with EAP-TLS
D.WPA3 with SAE
AnswerD

WPA3 with SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals) is the most secure Wi-Fi standard, offering significant improvements over its predecessors. SAE provides a more robust key establishment protocol that protects against offline dictionary attacks and ensures forward secrecy, meaning past session keys cannot be compromised even if the master key is later discovered. Furthermore, WPA3 enhances security for public networks through Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE), providing individualized data encryption.

Why this answer

WPA3 is the latest Wi-Fi security standard, offering stronger encryption with SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals) and replacing WPA2.

4
MCQmedium

An IoT device uses MQTT protocol with default credentials 'admin/admin' and no TLS encryption. An attacker on the same network captures MQTT packets and extracts sensor data. Which two vulnerabilities are being exploited? (Choose the best combination)

A.Buffer overflow and command injection
B.Default credentials and cleartext communication
C.Insecure firmware and hardcoded backdoor
D.Weak encryption and replay attack
AnswerB

The scenario explicitly states the use of "default credentials," which are easily guessable or publicly known, allowing unauthorized access to the IoT device or its MQTT broker. Furthermore, the absence of any mention of TLS/SSL for the MQTT protocol implies that communication occurs in "cleartext." This means all transmitted data, including sensitive information and authentication tokens, is unencrypted and can be easily intercepted and read by an attacker using packet sniffing tools.

Why this answer

The use of default credentials and lack of encryption (no TLS) are the vulnerabilities. MQTT itself is not insecure when properly configured; the issues are weak authentication and cleartext communication.

5
MCQmedium

A security engineer wants to ensure that a wireless network uses the most secure encryption available. Which of the following should be configured on the access point?

A.WEP
B.WPA3
C.WPA2 with TKIP
D.WPA2 with AES
AnswerB

WPA3 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 3) is the latest and most robust security standard for wireless networks, offering significant enhancements over its predecessors. It introduces Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) as a more secure key exchange protocol, replacing the vulnerable Pre-Shared Key (PSK) exchange in WPA2 and providing stronger protection against dictionary attacks. WPA3 also enhances privacy in open networks with Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE) and ensures forward secrecy, making it the recommended choice for maximum security and resilience against evolving threats.

Why this answer

WPA3 is the latest Wi-Fi security standard, providing stronger encryption (GCMP-256) and protection against dictionary attacks via SAE.

6
MCQeasy

A security analyst captures a WPA2 4-way handshake using airodump-ng. Which tool would they use to perform a dictionary attack on the captured handshake to recover the PSK?

A.Reaver
B.aircrack-ng
C.Hydra
D.John the Ripper
AnswerB

Aircrack-ng performs offline dictionary attacks against captured WPA2 4-way handshakes, deriving the PMK from each candidate passphrase and checking the MIC against the recorded handshake. This directly satisfies the scenario's requirement to recover the PSK from the airodump-ng capture file.

Why this answer

Aircrack-ng, which is the standard tool for cracking WPA2 PSK from a captured handshake using a dictionary file.

7
MCQmedium

An attacker sets up a fake access point with the same SSID as a legitimate corporate network. Clients connecting to this AP are prompted to enter their network credentials. Which type of attack is this?

A.Replay attack
B.Evil twin attack
C.WPS PIN attack
D.De-authentication attack
AnswerB

An evil twin attack specifically involves an attacker setting up a rogue wireless access point that mimics the SSID and often the MAC address of a legitimate, trusted network. The objective is to trick unsuspecting users into connecting to this malicious AP, allowing the attacker to intercept all their network traffic, perform man-in-the-middle attacks, or phish credentials. This direct impersonation of a legitimate Wi-Fi network by creating a fake AP with the same SSID is precisely what the question describes.

Why this answer

An evil twin attack involves an attacker setting up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate network's SSID (and often BSSID) to trick clients into connecting. Once connected, victims may be prompted for credentials via a captive portal or have their traffic intercepted. This is a classic wireless phishing and man-in-the-middle technique.

Exam trap

CEH often tests the confusion between evil twin (rogue AP impersonation) and de-authentication (forced disconnection) attacks, especially when the scenario mentions clients being prompted for credentials — that detail points to evil twin, not deauth.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a replay attack involves capturing and retransmitting valid authentication packets (e.g., WPA handshakes) to gain access, not setting up a fake AP with a duplicate SSID. Option C is wrong because a WPS PIN attack exploits the 8-digit WPS PIN mechanism to recover the WPA/WPA2 passphrase, not to impersonate an AP. Option D is wrong because a de-authentication attack sends forged deauth frames to disconnect clients from a legitimate AP, often as a precursor to an evil twin, but the attack described is the fake AP itself, not the disconnection.

8
MCQmedium

An IoT device uses the MQTT protocol without TLS. A security tester connects to the broker and subscribes to all topics using '#'. What is the tester MOST likely able to accomplish?

A.Perform a denial of service on the broker
B.Eavesdrop on all MQTT communications
C.Inject malicious control commands
D.Replay previously captured messages
AnswerB

Without TLS encryption, all MQTT communications are transmitted in plaintext over the network. By subscribing to the '#' wildcard topic, an attacker can receive every message published to the broker, effectively eavesdropping on all traffic. This allows the interception of sensitive data, operational commands, and device states, as the unencrypted protocol provides no confidentiality protection against network sniffers or malicious subscribers.

Why this answer

MQTT without encryption allows anyone to subscribe to topics. Subscribing to '#' captures all messages, leading to interception of sensitive data. This is a passive eavesdropping attack, not active manipulation like replay or injection.

9
MCQmedium

A penetration tester executes the following command: 'reaver -i wlan0mon -b 00:11:22:33:44:55 -vv'. Which attack is being performed?

A.WEP IV attack
B.Evil twin attack
C.De-authentication attack
D.WPS PIN brute-force attack
AnswerD

Reaver is purpose-built to execute a brute-force attack against the Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) PIN, exploiting a significant design flaw in the protocol. This vulnerability allows an attacker to test the first four digits and the subsequent three digits of the 8-digit PIN independently, drastically reducing the number of attempts required. Upon successfully guessing the correct PIN, Reaver can then extract the network's Pre-Shared Key (PSK), thereby compromising the Wi-Fi network's security.

Why this answer

Reaver is a tool used for brute-forcing WPS PINs to recover the WPA/WPA2 pre-shared key. The command specifies the interface and BSSID, indicating a WPS attack.

10
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are common attack vectors against IoT devices? (Select 2)

Select 2 answers
A.Default credentials
B.Firmware extraction via JTAG
C.Insecure protocols like MQTT without encryption
D.Replay attacks on encrypted sessions
E.SQL injection
AnswersA, C

Many IoT devices are deployed with factory-set usernames and passwords that are publicly known or easily guessable. Attackers leverage extensive databases of these default credentials to gain unauthorized access to devices, often en masse. This vulnerability allows for full device compromise, enabling actions like data exfiltration, device manipulation, or recruitment into botnets without requiring complex exploits.

Why this answer

Option A (Default credentials) is correct because IoT devices frequently ship with hardcoded or well-known default usernames and passwords (e.g., admin/admin, root/root), and attackers routinely use tools like Mirai to scan for and exploit these unchanged credentials to gain unauthorized access. Option C (Insecure protocols like MQTT without encryption) is correct because IoT devices commonly communicate over lightweight protocols such as MQTT, CoAP, or HTTP without TLS, allowing attackers to eavesdrop on, tamper with, or hijack unencrypted traffic. Option B is not a typical remote attack vector; JTAG firmware extraction requires physical access to the device's debug interface, making it a hardware-level threat rather than a common network-based IoT attack vector.

Option D is not generally applicable because properly implemented encrypted sessions with unique nonces or timestamps resist replay; replay attacks typically succeed only against unencrypted or poorly designed protocols, not as a standard vector against encrypted IoT sessions. Option E is incorrect because SQL injection targets web applications and database-backed services, not the constrained firmware and protocol stacks typical of IoT devices.

Exam trap

CEH often tests the misconception that sophisticated techniques like JTAG extraction or SQL injection are common IoT vectors, when the reality is that default credentials and unencrypted protocols dominate real-world IoT attacks.

11
MCQmedium

Which of the following is a cryptographic attack that exploits collisions in hash functions?

A.Dictionary attack
B.Downgrade attack
C.Birthday attack
D.Replay attack
AnswerC

The birthday attack is a cryptographic attack that exploits the mathematics behind the birthday paradox to find collisions in hash functions more efficiently than a brute-force search. It works by generating a large number of distinct inputs and their corresponding hash outputs, then searching for two inputs that produce the same hash value. This probabilistic method significantly reduces the computational effort required to find a hash collision, making it a direct threat to the collision resistance property of hash functions.

Why this answer

A birthday attack exploits the birthday paradox to find two different inputs that produce the same hash output (collision).

12
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are characteristics of asymmetric encryption?

Select 3 answers
A.Uses a single shared key for both encryption and decryption
B.Supports digital signatures
C.Provides key exchange without prior shared secret
D.Involves a public key and a private key
E.Typically faster than symmetric encryption
AnswersB, C, D

Asymmetric encryption is foundational for digital signatures, providing non-repudiation, integrity, and authenticity. The sender uses their unique private key to encrypt a hash of the message, creating the digital signature. Recipients then use the sender's publicly available corresponding public key to decrypt the signature and verify the message's integrity and the sender's identity. This process ensures the message originated from the claimed sender and has not been tampered with.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because asymmetric encryption enables digital signatures: the sender signs with their private key and anyone can verify with the corresponding public key, providing authenticity and non-repudiation. Option C is correct because asymmetric cryptography allows key exchange without a prior shared secret, as seen in Diffie-Hellman or RSA-based key transport, where parties can establish a session key over an untrusted channel. Option D is correct because asymmetric encryption fundamentally uses a mathematically related key pair — a public key for encryption/verification and a private key for decryption/signing.

Option A is incorrect because a single shared key describes symmetric encryption, not asymmetric. Option E is incorrect because asymmetric algorithms such as RSA are computationally much slower than symmetric ciphers like AES, which is why hybrid schemes are used in practice.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing symmetric and asymmetric characteristics, especially the speed comparison and the single-key vs. key-pair distinction.

13
MCQmedium

During a penetration test, a tester captures a WPA2 4-way handshake. Which of the following is the NEXT step to attempt to recover the Wi-Fi passphrase?

A.Use aircrack-ng to crack the WEP key from the handshake
B.Run a dictionary attack using aircrack-ng with a wordlist
C.Brute-force the WPS PIN using Reaver
D.De-authenticate the client from the network again to capture another handshake
AnswerB

Running a dictionary attack using aircrack-ng with a wordlist is the correct approach because the captured WPA2 4-way handshake contains the necessary cryptographic elements, such as the ANonce, SNonce, and the Message Integrity Code (MIC). Aircrack-ng can iterate through a wordlist, calculate the Pairwise Master Key (PMK) and subsequent MIC for each potential Pre-Shared Key (PSK), and compare it to the MIC within the captured handshake. A match indicates the correct PSK has been found, allowing the attacker to decrypt network traffic.

Why this answer

After capturing the handshake, the tester must perform a dictionary attack against the handshake file. Tools like aircrack-ng or hashcat can compare the handshake against a wordlist of potential passphrases.

14
MCQmedium

During a penetration test, an ethical hacker runs the following command: aireplay-ng -0 5 -a 00:11:22:33:44:55 -c 66:77:88:99:AA:BB wlan0mon. What is the immediate effect of this command?

A.It performs a WEP injection attack to generate traffic
B.It cracks the pre-shared key using a dictionary
C.It forces the client to disconnect and reconnect, capturing the WPA handshake
D.It initiates a brute force attack on the WPS PIN
AnswerC

The `aireplay-ng -0` command executes a deauthentication attack by sending specially crafted deauthentication frames to a target client or broadcast to all clients associated with an access point. This action forcibly disconnects the client from the Wi-Fi network. When the client automatically attempts to re-establish its connection, it performs the crucial WPA/WPA2 4-way handshake with the access point, which can then be captured by a monitoring tool like `airodump-ng` for subsequent offline cracking attempts.

Why this answer

The -0 flag sends deauthentication packets to force a client to reconnect, enabling capture of the WPA handshake.

15
MCQhard

An IoT device uses the MQTT protocol without TLS. An attacker on the same network captures messages and publishes a fake temperature reading. Which attack is being executed?

A.Replay attack
B.Firmware reversing attack
C.Man-in-the-middle attack
D.Denial of service attack
AnswerC

A Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack is precisely what occurs when an attacker intercepts communications between two parties, in this case, an MQTT client and broker, without either party being aware. Since MQTT is used without TLS, the communication channel is unencrypted, allowing the attacker to easily intercept, read, modify, or inject arbitrary fake messages into the cleartext data stream. This direct manipulation of active network traffic, including the injection of new, crafted messages, is the hallmark of a successful MITM attack.

Why this answer

MQTT over plain TCP allows message interception and injection (man-in-the-middle) because no encryption or authentication is enforced.

16
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of the 4-way handshake in WPA/WPA2-Personal?

A.To establish encryption keys without transmitting the pre-shared key
B.To authenticate the user with a username and password
C.To synchronize the beacon intervals between client and AP
D.To exchange digital certificates between client and AP
AnswerA

The WPA/WPA2 4-way handshake's primary function is to securely derive a unique set of session keys, including the Pairwise Transient Key (PTK) and Group Temporal Key (GTK), for encrypting subsequent data traffic. This critical process is achieved by exchanging nonces and cryptographic hashes, ensuring that the pre-shared key (PSK) itself is never transmitted over the air. By keeping the PSK off the network, the handshake effectively prevents eavesdroppers from capturing and compromising the long-term secret, thus establishing confidentiality and integrity for the wireless communication.

Why this answer

The 4-way handshake confirms that both client and AP possess the pre-shared key (PSK) without exposing it, and generates temporal keys for encryption.

17
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are common attack vectors against IoT devices? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Default credentials left unchanged
B.Regular firmware updates
C.Insecure protocols such as plaintext MQTT
D.Use of strong encryption protocols
E.Use of certificate-based authentication
AnswersA, C

Default credentials left unchanged represent a critical attack vector because many devices, especially in IoT, ship with easily guessable or publicly known usernames and passwords. Attackers can leverage automated scanning tools and credential stuffing techniques to gain unauthorized access, often leading to full device control, data exfiltration, or recruitment into botnets without requiring complex exploits.

Why this answer

IoT devices often have default credentials that are not changed, and they use insecure protocols like MQTT without encryption. These are common entry points for attackers.

18
MCQmedium

A security analyst observes repeated de-authentication packets targeting clients on a corporate Wi-Fi network. What is the MOST likely goal of the attacker?

A.To perform a denial-of-service attack and disrupt all wireless connectivity
B.To capture the WPA2 4-way handshake for offline password cracking
C.To install malware on the client devices
D.To exploit a vulnerability in the RADIUS server
AnswerB

The primary purpose of repeatedly sending deauthentication packets in a WPA2 environment is to force connected clients to disconnect from the access point and then reinitiate the authentication process. This forced reconnection allows an attacker, who is passively monitoring the wireless traffic with tools like airodump-ng, to capture the WPA2 4-way handshake. This handshake contains cryptographic material that can then be used for offline brute-force or dictionary attacks to recover the Pre-Shared Key (PSK).

Why this answer

De-authentication attacks force clients to reconnect, allowing the attacker to capture the 4-way handshake for offline cracking of the PSK.

19
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are cloud-specific security threats?

Select 2 answers
A.SQL injection
B.De-authentication attack
C.ARP spoofing
D.S3 bucket misconfiguration
E.SSRF in cloud
AnswersD, E

S3 bucket misconfiguration refers to incorrectly set permissions or access control lists (ACLs) on Amazon S3 storage buckets, leading to unintended public exposure or unauthorized access to sensitive data. This is a prevalent cloud-specific threat because S3 is a fundamental cloud storage service, and its complex permission models, combined with user error or lack of understanding, frequently result in data breaches. The ease of creating and deploying S3 buckets, coupled with the potential for global access, makes misconfiguration a unique and critical cloud security challenge.

Why this answer

Option D (S3 bucket misconfiguration) is a cloud-specific threat because it exploits the shared responsibility model in AWS, where an improperly configured bucket ACL or bucket policy can expose object storage publicly over the internet, a risk unique to cloud object storage services. Option E (SSRF in cloud) is cloud-specific because server-side request forgery can be used to reach the cloud instance metadata service (e.g., 169.254.169.254) and steal temporary IAM credentials from instance roles, an attack path that only exists in cloud environments. The unmarked options do not belong: SQL injection (A) is a generic web application vulnerability targeting database query construction, de-authentication attack (B) is a Wi-Fi layer 2 denial-of-service technique against 802.11 management frames, and ARP spoofing (C) is a LAN-based man-in-the-middle attack on IPv4-to-MAC resolution, none of which are specific to cloud platforms.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between general web/network attacks and those that exploit cloud-specific features like metadata services or object storage permissions, leading candidates to mistakenly classify SQL injection or ARP spoofing as cloud threats.

20
MCQeasy

A security analyst captures a WPA2 4-way handshake using airodump-ng. Which tool would they most likely use next to attempt to crack the PSK using a wordlist?

A.John the Ripper
B.ScoutSuite
C.Aircrack-ng
D.Reaver
AnswerC

Aircrack-ng is a comprehensive suite of tools specifically designed for auditing wireless networks, including capturing and cracking WPA/WPA2 PSK handshakes. It directly processes the captured 4-way handshake file (typically a .cap file) and attempts to crack the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) using dictionary attacks against the cryptographic nonce and EAPOL frames. Its aircrack-ng component is the definitive tool for performing dictionary-based brute-force or wordlist attacks against the captured WPA2 handshake.

Why this answer

Aircrack-ng is the standard tool for cracking WEP/WPA keys from captured packets, including WPA2 handshakes using a dictionary attack.

21
MCQeasy

Which tool is specifically designed to assess the security configuration of AWS, Azure, and GCP cloud environments by scanning for misconfigurations in services like S3, IAM, and EC2?

A.ScoutSuite
B.Pacu
C.Reaver
D.Aircrack-ng
AnswerA

ScoutSuite is an open-source multi-cloud auditing tool specifically designed to assess the security posture of cloud environments. It enumerates resources and identifies potential misconfigurations, policy violations, and security weaknesses across major providers like Amazon Web Services (AWS), Microsoft Azure, and Google Cloud Platform (GCP). This comprehensive scanning helps organizations proactively identify and remediate risks within their cloud infrastructure.

Why this answer

ScoutSuite is an open-source multi-cloud security auditing tool that checks for misconfigurations across AWS, Azure, and GCP. Pacu is an AWS exploitation framework; Aircrack-ng is for wireless; Reaver is for WPS.

22
MCQeasy

In PKI, what is the primary role of a Certificate Authority (CA)?

A.To issue and digitally sign certificates
B.To revoke user passwords
C.To generate random session keys
D.To encrypt data between client and server
AnswerA

A Certificate Authority (CA) serves as a trusted third party in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), primarily responsible for verifying the identity of entities (users, servers, organizations) and binding that identity to their public key. Upon successful verification, the CA issues a digital certificate, which it then cryptographically signs using its own private key. This digital signature assures recipients that the certificate is authentic, has not been tampered with, and was indeed issued by the stated CA, thereby establishing a chain of trust.

Why this answer

A Certificate Authority (CA) is the trusted entity in a PKI that issues digital certificates and digitally signs them with its private key, thereby binding a public key to an identity. The CA's signature allows relying parties to verify that the certificate is authentic and has not been tampered with. This is the foundational trust role of a CA.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing the CA's signing/issuance role with encryption or key generation — candidates often think the CA encrypts traffic or generates session keys, but it only signs certificates.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because revoking user passwords is an identity/access management function, not a PKI CA role; CAs revoke *certificates* via CRL/OCSP, not passwords. Option C is wrong because session key generation is typically done by the endpoints (or via key exchange protocols like TLS handshake), not by the CA. Option D is wrong because the CA does not encrypt data between client and server; it only vouches for public keys, and encryption is performed by the communicating parties using those keys.

23
MCQeasy

Which wireless security standard introduced in 2018 uses Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) to replace the pre-shared key exchange in WPA2, providing forward secrecy and resistance to offline dictionary attacks?

A.WPA3
B.802.1X/EAP
C.WEP
D.WPA2
AnswerA

WPA3, introduced in 2018, significantly enhances wireless security by implementing Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), also known as the Dragonfly handshake. This robust key exchange protocol provides strong protection against offline dictionary attacks by making it computationally infeasible to guess passwords without an active connection. Furthermore, SAE ensures forward secrecy, meaning that even if the long-term key is compromised, past session data remains encrypted and secure.

Why this answer

WPA3 uses SAE (Dragonfly handshake) to provide forward secrecy and protect against offline dictionary attacks. WPA2 used PSK which is vulnerable to dictionary attacks. WEP and 802.1X are older or different.

24
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO tools are specifically designed for cloud security auditing and exploitation? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.ScoutSuite
B.Nessus
C.Aircrack-ng
D.Nmap
E.Pacu
AnswersA, E

ScoutSuite is a comprehensive open-source multi-cloud security auditing tool designed to identify misconfigurations and potential vulnerabilities across various cloud providers, including AWS, Azure, GCP, Alibaba Cloud, and OCI. It maps out the attack surface of cloud environments by fetching configuration data via API calls and presenting it in an intuitive, interactive HTML report. This allows security professionals to quickly assess the security posture and compliance of their cloud infrastructure.

Why this answer

ScoutSuite is an open-source multi-cloud security-auditing tool that assesses the security posture of AWS, Azure, and GCP environments by checking for misconfigurations, excessive permissions, and compliance violations. Pacu is an AWS exploitation framework designed for offensive security testing, allowing penetration testers to enumerate resources, escalate privileges, and execute post-exploitation modules against cloud accounts. Both tools are purpose-built for cloud security auditing and exploitation, making them the correct choices.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between general-purpose security tools (Nessus, Nmap) and cloud-specific frameworks (ScoutSuite, Pacu), expecting candidates to recognize that tools like Aircrack-ng are strictly for wireless, not cloud, environments.

25
MCQhard

A security analyst captures network traffic and sees the following: Client sends a SYN, server responds with SYN-ACK, then client sends ACK. Immediately after, the client sends an encrypted payload. This traffic is consistent with which phase of a WPA2 attack?

A.De-authentication attack
B.WPA2 4-way handshake exchange
C.WPS PIN exchange
D.WEP initialization vector capture
AnswerA

Correct. The deauthentication attack disconnects the client; after reconnection and the 4-way handshake, the client establishes a TCP connection, as shown by the SYN/SYN-ACK/ACK sequence.

Why this answer

The traffic shown is a TCP three-way handshake followed by encrypted application data. This is not a deauthentication attack (which uses spoofed 802.11 deauthentication frames) and not the WPA2 4-way handshake (which uses EAPOL-Key frames at Layer 2). Therefore, none of the listed options correctly identifies a WPA2 attack phase.

Exam trap

The WPA2 4-way handshake is often mistaken for a TCP handshake, but it uses 802.11 management frames (EAPOL), not TCP.

26
MCQmedium

In the cloud shared responsibility model, which of the following is typically the responsibility of the customer when using AWS EC2 (IaaS)?

A.Configuring security groups and firewall rules
B.Patching the hypervisor
C.Network infrastructure redundancy
D.Physical security of data centers
AnswerA

In the cloud shared responsibility model, configuring security groups and firewall rules is a critical customer responsibility, falling under "security in the cloud." Security groups act as virtual firewalls at the instance level, controlling inbound and outbound traffic, while network access control lists (NACLs) operate at the subnet level. Customers must meticulously define these rules to protect their virtual machines, applications, and data from unauthorized network access and potential threats, ensuring proper isolation and secure communication pathways.

Why this answer

AWS is responsible for the physical host and network infrastructure; the customer manages the guest OS, applications, and security groups.

27
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are common attack vectors against IoT devices? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Firmware reversing
B.Container escape
C.SQL injection
D.Default credentials
E.Insecure protocols (e.g., MQTT, CoAP)
AnswersA, D, E

Firmware reversing involves extracting the embedded software from an IoT device, often through JTAG, UART, or memory chip dumping. Attackers then use tools like Ghidra or IDA Pro to analyze the binary code, searching for hardcoded credentials, cryptographic keys, backdoors, or exploitable buffer overflows and format string vulnerabilities. This process can uncover critical weaknesses that allow unauthorized access or control over the device.

Why this answer

Firmware reversing (A) is a common IoT attack vector because IoT firmware is frequently extracted from flash or update images and analyzed to uncover hardcoded keys, backdoors, and exploitable services. Default credentials (D) are a leading IoT weakness since many devices ship with well-known usernames/passwords like admin/admin or root/root that are rarely changed, enabling trivial unauthorized access. Insecure protocols (E) such as MQTT and CoAP are common vectors because they often lack encryption or authentication by default, allowing eavesdropping, spoofing, and message injection on IoT networks.

Container escape (B) targets containerized workloads and orchestration platforms, not typical constrained IoT endpoints, and SQL injection (C) targets web application database queries, which is not a characteristic IoT-specific attack vector.

Exam trap

CEH often tests whether candidates can distinguish IoT-specific vectors (firmware, default creds, insecure protocols) from general application or container vectors like SQL injection and container escape.

28
MCQeasy

Which of the following cryptographic algorithms is classified as asymmetric?

A.RC4
B.3DES
C.RSA
D.AES
AnswerC

RSA is a foundational asymmetric cryptographic algorithm, distinguished by its use of a mathematically linked public and private key pair. The public key can be freely distributed for encryption or signature verification, while the private key is kept secret for decryption or digital signing. This unique key separation allows for secure communication and authentication without prior key exchange, making it the correct classification.

Why this answer

Asymmetric cryptography uses key pairs (public and private). RSA is a well-known asymmetric algorithm. AES, 3DES, and RC4 are symmetric algorithms.

29
MCQmedium

During a penetration test, a tester captures the WPA2 4-way handshake with airodump-ng and then uses aircrack-ng with a wordlist. However, the PSK is not found. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason?

A.Aircrack-ng does not support WPA2 cracking
B.The handshake was not captured correctly
C.The wordlist does not contain the PSK
D.The network uses WPA3 instead of WPA2
AnswerC

The WPA2 cracking process, once the 4-way handshake is captured, relies entirely on an offline dictionary attack against the derived Pairwise Master Key (PMK) hash. If the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) used by the target network is not present within the provided wordlist, the attack will inevitably fail to find a match. This is a fundamental limitation of dictionary attacks; they are only as effective as the comprehensiveness and relevance of the wordlist used to guess the password.

Why this answer

If the PSK is not in the wordlist, dictionary attacks will fail. Other steps (capture, cracking) were done correctly.

30
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are asymmetric encryption algorithms? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.3DES
B.ECC
C.SHA-256
D.RSA
E.AES
AnswersB, D

Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC) is an asymmetric encryption algorithm that relies on the mathematical properties of elliptic curves over finite fields to create public and private key pairs. Its security is based on the difficulty of solving the elliptic curve discrete logarithm problem, allowing it to provide comparable security strength to RSA with significantly smaller key sizes. This efficiency makes ECC particularly well-suited for resource-constrained environments like mobile devices and for securing TLS connections.

Why this answer

ECC (B) is correct because Elliptic Curve Cryptography is a public-key (asymmetric) cryptosystem whose security rests on the elliptic curve discrete logarithm problem, using a mathematically related key pair for encryption/key exchange and digital signatures. RSA (D) is correct because it is the classic asymmetric algorithm, relying on the difficulty of factoring large primes and using a public key to encrypt and a private key to decrypt. The remaining options are not asymmetric: 3DES (A) and AES (E) are symmetric block ciphers that use the same secret key for encryption and decryption, and SHA-256 (C) is a cryptographic hash function producing a 256-bit digest, not an encryption algorithm at all.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing symmetric algorithms (3DES, AES) and hash functions (SHA-256) with asymmetric ones; candidates who don't firmly categorize each algorithm by its key model pick the wrong options.

31
MCQmedium

Which of the following attacks is characterized by an attacker placing a fake wireless access point with the same SSID as a legitimate network to capture client credentials?

A.De-authentication attack
B.Evil twin attack
C.WPS PIN brute force attack
D.Replay attack
AnswerB

An Evil Twin attack is precisely characterized by an attacker setting up a rogue access point (AP) that mimics the SSID and other characteristics of a legitimate, trusted Wi-Fi network. The objective is to trick unsuspecting users into connecting to the attacker's fake AP, believing it to be the legitimate one. Once connected, the attacker can intercept, monitor, or manipulate all network traffic, potentially capturing credentials or injecting malicious content.

Why this answer

An evil twin attack involves setting up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate SSID to intercept traffic and capture credentials.

32
MCQmedium

An attacker uses Reaver against a Wi-Fi network. What vulnerability is the attacker primarily exploiting?

A.Weak WPA2 passphrase
B.WPS PIN vulnerability
C.Deauthentication attack
D.IV weakness in WEP
AnswerB

Reaver exploits a critical design flaw within the Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) protocol, specifically its PIN authentication mechanism. The 8-digit WPS PIN is validated in two halves, allowing an attacker to brute-force the first four digits and then the last three (the eighth digit is a checksum) independently. This significantly reduces the total number of attempts required from 10^8 to approximately 10^4 + 10^3, making the PIN susceptible to a practical brute-force attack that reveals the WPA2 PSK.

Why this answer

Reaver is designed to exploit the WPS PIN brute-force vulnerability, where an attacker can recover the WPS PIN and then derive the WPA/WPA2 PSK.

33
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are cryptanalysis attacks that target hash functions? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Man-in-the-middle attack
B.Preimage attack
C.Collision attack
D.Birthday attack
E.Dictionary attack
AnswersB, C, D

A preimage attack is a cryptanalytic technique where an attacker, given a specific hash output (H), attempts to find an input message (M) such that H(M) = H. This directly violates the one-way property of a secure hash function, which dictates that it should be computationally infeasible to reverse the hashing process. Successfully performing a preimage attack compromises the integrity and authenticity guarantees provided by the hash, as an attacker could forge a message with a desired hash.

Why this answer

Birthday attack exploits hash collisions, preimage attack finds an input that hashes to a given output, and collision attack finds two inputs with same hash. Man-in-the-middle is not specific to hash functions, and dictionary attack is a password cracking technique, not pure cryptanalysis.

34
MCQeasy

In the shared responsibility model for cloud computing, which of the following is typically the customer's responsibility?

A.Physical security of data centers
B.Hypervisor security
C.Network infrastructure security
D.Configuration of IAM roles and permissions
AnswerD

Customers are directly responsible for the configuration of Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles and permissions within their cloud environment. This involves defining users, groups, and roles, assigning appropriate permissions based on the principle of least privilege, and regularly auditing access policies. Proper IAM configuration is critical for controlling who can access what resources and is a primary customer security control.

Why this answer

The customer is responsible for security IN the cloud, including configuring IAM policies, encryption, and access controls.

35
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are common attack vectors for IoT devices? (Select two)

Select 2 answers
A.SQL injection
B.Default credentials
C.Insecure protocols (e.g., plain MQTT)
D.Side-channel attacks
E.ARP spoofing
AnswersB, C

Many IoT devices are manufactured with default usernames and passwords that are either hardcoded, easily guessable, or publicly known. Users often neglect to change these factory settings, creating a significant vulnerability that persists throughout the device's lifecycle. Attackers can leverage these weak or default credentials to gain unauthorized access, take control of the device, or integrate it into botnets without needing complex exploits.

Why this answer

Option B (Default credentials) is correct because IoT devices are frequently shipped with factory-set usernames and passwords (e.g., admin/admin, root/root) that users never change, making them trivially exploitable by botnets like Mirai. Option C (Insecure protocols such as plain MQTT) is correct because IoT devices often communicate over unencrypted protocols like MQTT on port 1883, CoAP, or HTTP, exposing credentials and telemetry to eavesdropping and man-in-the-middle attacks. Option A (SQL injection) is not a typical IoT attack vector since most IoT devices do not expose SQL databases or web forms backed by relational databases.

Option D (Side-channel attacks) requires physical proximity and specialized equipment, making it far less common than credential and protocol weaknesses in IoT threat landscapes. Option E (ARP spoofing) is a general LAN-layer attack applicable to any networked host, not a vector specific to or characteristic of IoT devices.

Exam trap

CEH often tests whether candidates pick generic network attacks (ARP spoofing, SQLi) as 'IoT vectors' when the exam expects IoT-specific weaknesses like default credentials and insecure protocols.

36
MCQhard

An analyst captures the following output from a wireless adapter: `[00:1A:2B:3C:4D:5E] 54 Mbps WPA2 CCMP PSK`. The analyst suspects a malicious rogue AP is impersonating a legitimate network. Which of the following indicators would MOST strongly confirm a rogue AP?

A.The channel number is different from the legitimate AP
B.The SSID is broadcasted with the same name as the corporate network
C.The BSSID matches a known manufacturer, but the signal strength is unusually high
D.The encryption type is WPA2 with CCMP
AnswerC

This combination is a strong indicator of a rogue AP. The Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID), which is the MAC address of the AP, contains an Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI) that identifies the manufacturer. While a rogue AP might spoof an OUI to appear legitimate, an unusually high signal strength for an AP not registered within the network's inventory strongly suggests a physically close, unauthorized device. This discrepancy between a potentially legitimate-looking identifier and an anomalous physical presence is highly suspicious.

Why this answer

A rogue AP often has a higher signal strength than expected, especially if it's placed closer to users. Additionally, a mismatch between the BSSID and the known legitimate AP can indicate spoofing.

37
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a well-known attack against the MD5 hash function that allows two different inputs to produce the same hash value?

A.Birthday attack
B.Replay attack
C.Downgrade attack
D.Dictionary attack
AnswerA

The Birthday attack leverages the mathematical 'birthday paradox' to significantly reduce the computational effort required to find two distinct inputs that produce the same hash output (a collision). For hash functions like MD5, which has a 128-bit output, finding a collision through brute force would theoretically require 2^64 attempts, making it practically feasible. This vulnerability undermines the integrity and collision resistance properties critical for cryptographic security, as demonstrated against MD5.

Why this answer

The birthday attack exploits the birthday paradox in probability theory to find two different inputs that produce the same MD5 hash value (a collision) with significantly less effort than a brute-force preimage attack. For an n-bit hash, the birthday attack requires only about 2^(n/2) operations, making MD5's 128-bit output vulnerable to collisions in roughly 2^64 attempts, which is computationally feasible today.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the birthday attack with a dictionary attack because both involve generating many inputs, but the birthday attack specifically targets collision resistance (two different inputs, same hash) while a dictionary attack targets preimage resistance (finding an input that matches a given hash).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a replay attack involves intercepting and retransmitting valid data transmissions (e.g., captured authentication tokens) to impersonate a user, not finding hash collisions. Option C is wrong because a downgrade attack forces a system to fall back to a weaker, less secure protocol or cipher (e.g., SSL stripping to HTTP), not exploiting hash function weaknesses. Option D is wrong because a dictionary attack uses a precomputed list of likely passwords or phrases to guess a password or find a preimage, but it does not find collisions between two arbitrary inputs.

38
MCQeasy

Which of the following tools is specifically designed for auditing cloud environments (AWS, Azure, GCP) for security misconfigurations?

A.John the Ripper
B.ScoutSuite
C.Aircrack-ng
D.Reaver
AnswerB

ScoutSuite is an open-source multi-cloud security auditing tool specifically engineered to assess the security posture of cloud environments. It automatically collects configuration data from various cloud providers, including AWS, Azure, GCP, Alibaba Cloud, and OCI, and then identifies potential security 'gaps' or misconfigurations. The tool generates a comprehensive report highlighting risks against best practices and compliance frameworks, making it ideal for auditing cloud infrastructure.

Why this answer

ScoutSuite is an open-source multi-cloud security auditing tool that checks for common misconfigurations.

39
MCQmedium

A security analyst runs the following command: 'wget http://example.com/bucket?list-type=2' and receives a listing of objects. Which cloud misconfiguration is this MOST likely exploiting?

A.SSRF vulnerability in the cloud application
B.Container escape vulnerability
C.Misconfigured IAM roles allowing privilege escalation
D.Publicly accessible S3 bucket with list permissions enabled
AnswerD

The `wget http` command is a standard utility for retrieving content from web servers, and when directed at an S3 bucket URL, it attempts to access the bucket without any AWS authentication. If this command successfully lists the bucket's contents, it unequivocally indicates that the Amazon S3 bucket has been misconfigured with a bucket policy or Access Control List (ACL) that grants public "s3:ListBucket" permissions to "AllUsers" or "Everyone," allowing unauthenticated enumeration of its objects.

Why this answer

An S3 bucket with public listing enabled allows anyone to list objects via HTTP GET requests.

40
MCQmedium

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason that MD5 is no longer recommended for use in digital signatures?

A.MD5 is a symmetric algorithm, not a hash function
B.MD5 is computationally too slow for large data
C.MD5 produces a 128-bit hash, which is too short for modern security
D.MD5 is vulnerable to collision attacks
AnswerD

MD5 is critically vulnerable to collision attacks, where two distinct input messages can be found that produce the exact same 128-bit hash output. Practical methods for generating such collisions have been demonstrated, allowing attackers to forge digital signatures or create malicious files that appear legitimate. This fundamental weakness in its collision resistance makes MD5 unsuitable for security-critical applications requiring integrity verification.

Why this answer

MD5 is vulnerable to collision attacks, where two different inputs produce the same hash. This undermines the integrity and non-repudiation properties required for digital signatures.

41
MCQmedium

An attacker performs a downgrade attack on a TLS connection, forcing the client and server to negotiate a weaker cipher suite. This attack exploits which of the following?

A.A vulnerability in the TLS 1.3 handshake
B.A known weakness in the Diffie-Hellman key exchange
C.The fallback mechanism in SSL/TLS implementations
D.The ability to modify the ClientHello message
AnswerC

The fallback mechanism in SSL/TLS implementations is the correct answer because many older SSL/TLS client implementations included a compatibility fallback mechanism. If the initial handshake with a preferred, stronger protocol version failed, the client would attempt to re-establish the connection using an older, less secure protocol version. An attacker exploits this by intercepting the initial ClientHello, blocking the server's preferred protocol response, and then tricking the client into initiating a connection with a vulnerable, older protocol like SSLv3, thereby enabling further exploitation.

Why this answer

Downgrade attacks (e.g., POODLE, FREAK, Logjam) exploit the SSL/TLS fallback mechanism, where a client and server negotiate down to an older, weaker protocol or cipher suite if the initial handshake fails. An attacker forces that fallback to a vulnerable option, then exploits the weakness.

Exam trap

The trap is picking the specific weak primitive (Diffie-Hellman) or the MITM technique (modifying ClientHello) instead of the general mechanism being exploited — the fallback path that permits downgrade.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because TLS 1.3 removed renegotiation and legacy cipher suites and does not support fallback to older versions in the same way — the attack targets the fallback path, not a TLS 1.3 handshake flaw. Option B is wrong because while Diffie-Hellman weaknesses (e.g., Logjam's export-grade DH) can be the exploited weakness, the downgrade attack itself exploits the fallback mechanism that allows the weak DH parameters to be selected. Option D is wrong because modifying the ClientHello is a man-in-the-middle technique used to trigger fallback, but the underlying vulnerability being exploited is the fallback mechanism, not the ability to alter the message.

42
MCQmedium

A penetration tester uses the tool 'Pacu' during an assessment. Which of the following actions is Pacu designed to perform?

A.Exploit vulnerabilities in Azure cloud infrastructure
B.Automate penetration testing tasks in AWS environments
C.Perform network scanning and service enumeration
D.Crack WPA2 handshakes using dictionary attacks
AnswerB

Pacu is an advanced open-source exploitation framework specifically engineered to automate various penetration testing tasks within Amazon Web Services (AWS) environments. It provides a modular approach, allowing testers to enumerate resources, identify misconfigurations, and execute post-exploitation activities against AWS services like EC2, S3, IAM, and Lambda. This automation significantly streamlines the process of discovering and exploiting security weaknesses in complex AWS deployments.

Why this answer

Pacu is an open-source AWS exploitation framework designed to automate penetration testing tasks in AWS environments. It provides a modular structure with modules for enumeration, privilege escalation, persistence, and data exfiltration, specifically targeting AWS services like IAM, S3, EC2, and Lambda. It is not used for Azure, network scanning, or wireless attacks.

Exam trap

CEH often tests the specific cloud platform a tool targets: candidates may confuse Pacu with Azure tools or general-purpose scanners, but Pacu is exclusively for AWS exploitation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Pacu is specifically built for AWS, not Azure; Azure exploitation would use tools like MicroBurst or Stormspotter. Option C is wrong because Pacu is not a network scanner; it focuses on AWS API-based attacks and post-exploitation, not port scanning or service enumeration like Nmap. Option D is wrong because cracking WPA2 handshakes is a wireless attack performed by tools like Aircrack-ng or Hashcat, not Pacu.

43
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are common attack vectors against IoT devices?

Select 3 answers
A.Container escape
B.Insecure protocols (e.g., MQTT, CoAP without encryption)
C.Firmware reversing and extraction of hardcoded secrets
D.TLS stripping attack
E.Default credentials
AnswersB, C, E

Many IoT devices rely on lightweight communication protocols such as MQTT or CoAP, which frequently lack built-in encryption or robust authentication by default. This inherent insecurity allows attackers to easily eavesdrop on sensitive data transmissions, inject malicious commands, or spoof device identities through simple network sniffing. Such vulnerabilities directly compromise data confidentiality, device integrity, and command authenticity, making them prime targets for unauthorized access and control.

Why this answer

Default credentials, insecure protocols (e.g., MQTT without TLS), and firmware reversing (to find hardcoded secrets) are common IoT attack vectors. TLS stripping is a network attack, and container escape is a cloud/container attack.

44
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are valid methods to prevent a downgrade attack on TLS? (Select 3)

Select 3 answers
A.Disable TLS 1.0 and 1.1 on the server
B.Use the TLS_FALLBACK_SCSV cipher suite
C.Use self-signed certificates to avoid CA trust issues
D.Enforce a minimum TLS version of 1.2 in server configuration
E.Disable all cipher suites except those using RC4
AnswersA, B, D

Disabling specific older TLS versions like 1.0 and 1.1 on the server directly removes the server's capability to negotiate these protocols. If the server does not support or offer these versions, an attacker cannot force a client and server to communicate using them, thereby eliminating the target for a downgrade attack. This is a fundamental server-side configuration best practice for security.

Why this answer

Disabling older TLS versions, enforcing TLS 1.2+, and using TLS_FALLBACK_SCSV prevent downgrade; disabling cipher suites does not prevent downgrade directly; using self-signed certificates increases risk.

45
MCQhard

Which cryptographic algorithm is vulnerable to a birthday attack on its hash output size of 128 bits, reducing the effective security to 64 bits against collision resistance?

A.SHA-256
B.SHA-1
C.MD5
D.RC4
AnswerC

MD5 produces a 128-bit hash value, which means its collision resistance against a birthday attack is approximately 2^64 operations. This level of complexity is well within the reach of modern computing resources, allowing for practical collision finding within a reasonable timeframe. Consequently, MD5 is widely considered cryptographically broken and highly vulnerable to birthday attacks, making it unsuitable for security-critical applications requiring collision resistance.

Why this answer

MD5 produces 128-bit hashes. Birthday attack complexity for collision is 2^(n/2) = 2^64 for n=128. SHA-1 is 160-bit, SHA-256 is 256-bit, RC4 is a stream cipher not a hash.

46
MCQhard

During a cloud penetration test, you discover an S3 bucket that allows listing objects. You find a file named 'config.json' that contains an IAM access key and secret key. Which of the following is the BEST next step?

A.Delete the bucket to prevent further data exposure
B.Use the keys to call sts:GetCallerIdentity and then enumerate permissions via IAM
C.Download all objects from the bucket and exfiltrate them
D.Immediately rotate the keys in the AWS console
AnswerB

After discovering AWS access keys, the immediate and most prudent step is to validate their authenticity and determine the associated identity using sts:GetCallerIdentity. This API call confirms the keys are active and reveals the IAM user or role they belong to. Following this, enumerating the permissions attached to that identity via IAM policies is critical to understand the full scope of access, identify potential escalation paths, and discover other high-value targets within the AWS environment.

Why this answer

The correct action is to use the discovered credentials to enumerate permissions via the AWS CLI, as they may grant further access.

47
MCQhard

A security team finds that a web application accepts a user-supplied URL and fetches it server-side without validation. The application runs on AWS EC2 with a metadata endpoint at 169.254.169.254. Which attack is MOST likely to succeed?

A.SQL injection
B.Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF)
C.Remote file inclusion (RFI)
D.Cross-site scripting (XSS)
AnswerB

The application fetches a user-supplied URL server-side without validation, enabling an attacker to craft a request to the internal AWS metadata endpoint at 169.254.169.254. This SSRF attack exploits the lack of input sanitisation to retrieve instance metadata, such as IAM credentials, because the server trusts its own network context. The stem’s constraint—unvalidated server-side URL fetching—directly enables this attack vector.

Why this answer

SSRF (Server-Side Request Forgery) occurs when an application fetches a user-controlled URL. By supplying the metadata endpoint, an attacker can retrieve IAM credentials, making this the most likely attack.

48
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are characteristics of symmetric encryption? (Select two)

Select 2 answers
A.Uses a single shared key for encryption and decryption
B.Faster than asymmetric encryption
C.Slower than asymmetric encryption
D.Provides non-repudiation
E.Uses a pair of public and private keys
AnswersA, B

Symmetric encryption algorithms, such as AES or DES, fundamentally rely on a singular, identical secret key for both the transformation of plaintext into ciphertext and the subsequent reversal of ciphertext back into plaintext. This shared secret must be securely exchanged between communicating parties prior to any encrypted data transmission. The efficiency of this method stems from using the same cryptographic key for both operations, simplifying key management for individual sessions.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because symmetric encryption is defined by the use of one single shared secret key that both encrypts and decrypts the data, unlike asymmetric algorithms that use a key pair. Option B is correct because symmetric ciphers such as AES and 3DES perform far fewer computationally expensive operations than asymmetric algorithms like RSA or ECC, making them significantly faster and better suited for bulk data encryption. Option C is incorrect because it reverses the actual performance relationship; symmetric encryption is faster, not slower, than asymmetric encryption.

Option D is incorrect because non-repudiation requires a private key known only to one party, which is a property of asymmetric cryptography, not shared-key symmetric encryption. Option E is incorrect because a public/private key pair describes asymmetric encryption, whereas symmetric encryption relies on a single shared key.

Exam trap

CEH often tests whether candidates can distinguish symmetric from asymmetric properties, so it swaps characteristics (speed, key structure, non-repudiation) between the two to catch those who memorize definitions without understanding the trade-offs.

49
MCQhard

A security analyst discovers that a containerized application running in a cloud environment can access the host's file system by mounting /var/run/docker.sock inside the container. Which type of attack does this configuration enable?

A.Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF)
B.Privilege escalation within the container only
C.Container escape to the host
D.Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack against the container runtime
AnswerC

This is the correct answer because mounting the Docker socket (`/var/run/docker.sock`) inside a container grants the container full administrative control over the host's Docker daemon. An attacker can leverage this access to execute Docker commands, such as `docker run -v /:/host_root -it ubuntu bash`, which effectively mounts the host's root filesystem into a new container, thereby achieving a complete container escape and gaining arbitrary command execution capabilities on the host system.

Why this answer

Mounting the Docker socket inside a container allows the container to communicate with the Docker daemon on the host, potentially allowing the attacker to create new containers, escape the container, and execute commands on the host.

50
MCQhard

An attacker intercepts a TLS-encrypted session and attempts to force the client and server to use a weaker cipher suite. Which type of attack is being performed?

A.Man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack
B.Birthday attack
C.Replay attack
D.Downgrade attack
AnswerD

A Downgrade attack specifically involves an attacker actively manipulating the TLS handshake process between a client and server. The attacker forces the communication parties to negotiate and use an older, less secure protocol version or weaker cipher suite than they would normally prefer or support. This significantly reduces the cryptographic strength of the session, making it easier for the attacker to decrypt intercepted data.

Why this answer

A downgrade attack tricks the communicating parties into negotiating a less secure version of TLS or a weaker cipher suite, making it easier for the attacker to break the encryption.

51
MCQmedium

A penetration tester uses the tool 'ScoutSuite' against an AWS target. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of this tool?

A.Enumerate IAM users and roles for privilege escalation
B.Perform automated penetration testing of web applications
C.Exploit vulnerabilities in cloud services
D.Audit cloud infrastructure for misconfigurations and compliance
AnswerD

ScoutSuite's core functionality involves programmatically fetching extensive configuration data from various cloud services, including AWS S3, EC2, IAM, and Security Groups, through API interactions. It then meticulously analyzes this collected data against a robust set of predefined security best practices and compliance benchmarks. This process culminates in a comprehensive, human-readable report highlighting critical misconfigurations such as publicly exposed storage buckets, overly permissive IAM policies, unencrypted resources, or unpatched instances, thereby providing a clear overview of the cloud environment's security posture.

Why this answer

ScoutSuite is an open-source multi-cloud security auditing tool that assesses cloud environments (AWS, Azure, GCP) by scanning for misconfigurations and compliance violations. It does not perform exploitation or penetration testing; instead, it checks for issues like overly permissive security groups, unencrypted S3 buckets, or unused IAM roles, aligning with option D's description of auditing cloud infrastructure for misconfigurations and compliance.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between auditing and exploitation, so the trap here is that candidates confuse 'auditing for misconfigurations' with 'exploiting vulnerabilities,' leading them to choose option C, even though ScoutSuite is purely a read-only assessment tool.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because ScoutSuite does not specifically enumerate IAM users and roles for privilege escalation; it audits all cloud resources for misconfigurations, and while it may report IAM issues, its primary purpose is not targeted enumeration for privilege escalation. Option B is wrong because ScoutSuite is not a web application penetration testing tool; it focuses on cloud infrastructure configuration, not web application vulnerabilities like SQL injection or XSS. Option C is wrong because ScoutSuite does not exploit vulnerabilities; it is a read-only auditing tool that identifies misconfigurations without performing any exploitation actions.

52
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are effective countermeasures against evil twin attacks in wireless networks? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Implementing client-side certificate validation for network authentication
B.Using WPA3-Enterprise with 802.1X authentication
C.Enabling MAC address filtering on the AP
D.Disabling SSID broadcast on the legitimate AP
E.Using a VPN over the wireless connection
AnswersA, B, E

Implementing client-side certificate validation for network authentication is a robust countermeasure because it mandates that the client verify the identity of the access point (AP) using a pre-installed, trusted digital certificate. If a rogue AP, such as an evil twin, attempts to impersonate the legitimate network, it will lack the correct certificate, causing the client to reject the connection and preventing users from inadvertently connecting to the malicious network.

Why this answer

Evil twin attacks involve a rogue AP impersonating a legitimate one. Countermeasures include using WPA3-Enterprise with 802.1X for mutual authentication, implementing client-side certificate validation, and using VPNs to encrypt traffic even over rogue APs.

53
MCQhard

During a cloud penetration test, a tester discovers an AWS S3 bucket that allows public 's3:PutObject' access. The tester uploads a file containing JavaScript that steals cookies. Which type of attack is this an example of?

A.Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) via uploaded file
B.Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF)
C.Insecure Direct Object Reference (IDOR)
D.S3 bucket privilege escalation
AnswerA

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) via uploaded file occurs when an attacker uploads malicious client-side script, typically JavaScript, to a web-accessible resource like a public AWS S3 bucket. If the bucket is configured to serve the file with an executable Content-Type (e.g., text/html or application/javascript) and a user's browser accesses this file directly, the script executes within the user's browser context. This allows the attacker to steal session cookies, deface the page, or redirect users, leveraging the trust in the S3 domain.

Why this answer

Uploading malicious content to an S3 bucket with public write access enables storage of attacker-controlled files. When users access these files, a client-side attack (like XSS) can occur. This is a classic example of a storage-based attack via misconfigured S3 bucket.

54
MCQeasy

A security analyst captures network traffic and sees multiple ARP packets with the same source MAC address but different IP addresses. Which attack is MOST likely occurring?

A.WPS PIN attack
B.De-authentication attack
C.Evil twin attack
D.ARP spoofing attack
AnswerD

ARP spoofing, also known as ARP poisoning, is a man-in-the-middle (MitM) attack where an attacker sends forged Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) messages over a local area network. The attacker's goal is to associate their own MAC address with the IP address of another host, such as the default gateway, or to associate the gateway's MAC address with the victim's IP. By doing so, the attacker intercepts network traffic intended for other devices, as the traffic is incorrectly routed through the attacker's machine, allowing for eavesdropping, modification, or redirection. This directly involves manipulating ARP packets to link a single MAC address to multiple IP addresses or vice-versa within the victim's ARP cache.

Why this answer

ARP spoofing (also called ARP poisoning) involves an attacker sending forged ARP replies to associate their MAC address with the IP address of another host (often the gateway), causing traffic to be redirected through the attacker. Multiple ARP packets with the same source MAC but different IP addresses is the classic signature of an attacker claiming multiple IPs to intercept traffic. This enables man-in-the-middle attacks, session hijacking, and traffic sniffing on the local subnet.

Exam trap

CEH often tests whether candidates can distinguish between wireless attacks (deauth, evil twin, WPS) and Layer 2 wired attacks (ARP spoofing) — the trap is picking a wireless attack because the question mentions 'network traffic' without noting the wired ARP signature.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a WPS PIN attack targets Wi-Fi Protected Setup to brute-force the 8-digit PIN and gain network access — it does not generate ARP traffic with mismatched MAC/IP bindings. Option B is wrong because a de-authentication attack sends forged 802.11 deauth frames to disconnect wireless clients, producing wireless management frames, not ARP packets. Option C is wrong because an evil twin attack sets up a rogue access point with the same SSID as a legitimate AP — it involves beacon frames and client associations, not ARP spoofing signatures.

55
MCQmedium

An attacker gains access to a cloud environment and attempts to move laterally by assuming an IAM role with higher privileges. Which cloud attack vector is the attacker exploiting?

A.SSRF attack
B.S3 bucket misconfiguration
C.IAM misuse
D.Container escape
AnswerC

IAM misuse directly describes scenarios where an attacker exploits existing, often overly permissive, Identity and Access Management (IAM) configurations to gain unauthorized access or elevate privileges. This frequently involves assuming an IAM role that has a trust policy configured to allow a compromised identity (e.g., another role, user, or service principal) to assume it, granting the attacker the permissions associated with that role. Such an action is a direct form of privilege escalation within the cloud environment, leveraging misconfigured trust relationships or policies.

Why this answer

IAM misuse involves exploiting misconfigured IAM roles or policies to escalate privileges. Assuming a role with higher privileges is a form of privilege escalation via IAM abuse.

56
MCQmedium

Which cryptographic algorithm is classified as symmetric and uses a block cipher with key sizes of 128, 192, or 256 bits?

A.AES
B.ECC
C.Diffie-Hellman
D.RSA
AnswerA

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is correctly classified as a symmetric block cipher, meaning it utilizes the same secret key for both encrypting and decrypting data. It processes data in fixed-size blocks and supports key lengths of 128, 192, or 256 bits, making it highly efficient for bulk data encryption. Its widespread adoption as a standard for secure communication underscores its robust symmetric properties.

Why this answer

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a symmetric block cipher that supports key sizes of 128, 192, and 256 bits, and it operates on 128-bit blocks. It is the standard symmetric encryption algorithm used worldwide and is the correct answer because it matches both criteria: symmetric and block cipher with those key sizes.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing symmetric and asymmetric algorithms; candidates may pick RSA or ECC because they are well-known, but only AES is a symmetric block cipher with 128/192/256-bit key sizes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because ECC (Elliptic Curve Cryptography) is an asymmetric algorithm used for key exchange and digital signatures, not a symmetric block cipher. Option C is wrong because Diffie-Hellman is an asymmetric key-exchange protocol, not a symmetric block cipher, and it does not use 128/192/256-bit keys in the same way. Option D is wrong because RSA is an asymmetric algorithm used for encryption and digital signatures, not a symmetric block cipher.

57
MCQeasy

Which of the following cryptographic hash functions is known to be vulnerable to collision attacks and should be avoided for security applications?

A.RIPEMD-160
B.MD5
C.SHA-256
D.SHA-1
AnswerB

MD5, or Message-Digest Algorithm 5, is a widely known cryptographic hash function that produces a 128-bit hash value. It is definitively considered cryptographically broken due to the discovery of practical collision attacks, notably demonstrated in 2004. These vulnerabilities mean MD5 can no longer reliably guarantee data integrity or be used for digital signatures, making it unsuitable for secure applications.

Why this answer

MD5 is known to be vulnerable to collision attacks, making it unsuitable for security applications like digital signatures.

58
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are components of PKI (Public Key Infrastructure)?

Select 3 answers
A.Certificate Authority (CA)
B.WPA3
C.Private key and public key pair
D.Digital certificates
E.RADIUS server
AnswersA, C, D

A Certificate Authority (CA) is a trusted third party that issues, manages, and revokes digital certificates. Its primary role within a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is to verify the identity of entities (users, devices, services) and bind their public keys to that identity through a signed digital certificate. CAs are fundamental to establishing trust in a PKI, as relying parties implicitly trust certificates signed by a CA they recognize.

Why this answer

A Certificate Authority (CA) is a core PKI component because it issues, signs, and revokes digital certificates, binding a public key to an identity. A private key and public key pair is essential to PKI since asymmetric cryptography underpins key exchange, digital signatures, and certificate ownership. Digital certificates are also fundamental PKI components, as they are the signed X.509 structures that convey a subject's public key and identity, validated through the CA's trust chain.

WPA3 is a Wi-Fi security certification/protocol standard, not a PKI component, and a RADIUS server is an AAA (authentication, authorization, accounting) server often used for network access control, not a defining element of PKI itself.

Exam trap

CEH often tests whether candidates can distinguish PKI's foundational components (CA, key pairs, certificates) from technologies that merely use PKI (RADIUS, WPA3, TLS), so protocol names are inserted as distractors to catch rote memorization.

59
MCQmedium

Which of the following is a recommended countermeasure against WPA2 KRACK attacks?

A.Enable MAC filtering
B.Patch all clients and access points
C.Disable WPS
D.Switch to WEP encryption
AnswerB

Patching all clients and access points is the recommended and most effective countermeasure against Key Reinstallation Attacks (KRACK). These patches specifically modify the WPA2 protocol's 4-way handshake implementation to prevent the reinstallation of an all-zero or previously used cryptographic key. By fixing this logic flaw, devices can properly establish and maintain secure, unique session keys, thereby mitigating the attack vector.

Why this answer

KRACK (Key Reinstallation Attack) exploits the WPA2 4-way handshake by forcing nonce reuse, allowing an attacker to decrypt and potentially inject traffic. The definitive countermeasure is patching both clients and access points, because the vulnerability exists in the supplicant (client) and authenticator implementations, not in the WPA2 protocol itself. Vendors released patches that prevent key reinstallation, so updating firmware and OS on all devices is required.

Exam trap

CEH often tests whether candidates know KRACK is an implementation flaw fixed by patching, not by disabling WPS or switching encryption modes — candidates frequently confuse KRACK with WPS PIN attacks.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because MAC filtering only restricts which devices can associate and is trivially bypassed by spoofing a permitted MAC; it does nothing against KRACK's cryptographic attack. Option C is wrong because disabling WPS addresses a different vulnerability (WPS PIN brute force) and has no effect on KRACK, which targets the 4-way handshake. Option D is wrong because WEP is far weaker than WPA2 and would dramatically worsen security — it is never a valid countermeasure.

60
MCQmedium

A company wants to ensure that data in transit between its IoT devices and the cloud server is encrypted. Which protocol combination is BEST suited for this purpose?

A.MQTT without encryption
B.HTTP with SSL
C.MQTT with TLS
D.CoAP with DTLS
AnswerC

MQTT with TLS provides a robust and efficient solution for securing data in transit for IoT devices by encrypting the communication channel. TLS (Transport Layer Security) ensures confidentiality, data integrity, and server authentication, protecting MQTT control messages and payloads from eavesdropping and tampering. This combination leverages MQTT's lightweight publish-subscribe model with strong cryptographic security, making it ideal for constrained environments.

Why this answer

The best choice for encrypting data in transit between IoT devices and a cloud server is MQTT with TLS. MQTT is a lightweight, publish-subscribe protocol ideal for IoT, and TLS provides robust encryption. While CoAP with DTLS is also secure, it is typically used for constrained device-to-device communication, not as the primary protocol for cloud connectivity.

HTTP with SSL is too heavy for many IoT devices, and MQTT without encryption lacks security. Therefore, MQTT with TLS is the optimal combination.

61
MCQmedium

An attacker sets up a rogue access point with the same SSID as a legitimate corporate network and broadcasts a stronger signal. Clients connect to the rogue AP. What type of attack is this?

A.WPS PIN attack
B.De-authentication attack
C.Evil twin attack
D.MAC spoofing attack
AnswerC

An evil twin attack precisely describes the scenario where an attacker sets up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate one by using the same Service Set Identifier (SSID). The objective is to deceive unsuspecting users into connecting to the malicious AP, allowing the attacker to intercept their network traffic, capture credentials, or inject malware.

Why this answer

An evil twin attack is defined by a rogue access point that impersonates a legitimate AP by broadcasting the same SSID, often with a stronger signal to lure clients into associating with it. Once clients connect, the attacker can capture credentials, perform man-in-the-middle interception, or serve malicious content. The scenario described matches this definition exactly.

Exam trap

CEH often tests the confusion between evil twin and de-authentication attacks, since deauth is frequently used to force clients off the legitimate AP before they reconnect to the evil twin, but the defining characteristic of the evil twin is the SSID impersonation itself.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a WPS PIN attack exploits the Wi-Fi Protected Setup PIN mechanism to recover the WPA/WPA2 pre-shared key, not to impersonate an AP via SSID spoofing. Option B is wrong because a de-authentication attack floods 802.11 deauth frames to disconnect clients from a legitimate AP, which is often a precursor to an evil twin but is not the impersonation itself. Option D is wrong because MAC spoofing changes a device's MAC address to bypass filtering or impersonate another device, and does not involve creating a rogue AP with a matching SSID.

62
MCQmedium

A security team discovers that an attacker has been intercepting and modifying traffic between a client and server by impersonating both endpoints. Which type of cryptographic attack is this?

A.Man-in-the-middle attack
B.Replay attack
C.Downgrade attack
D.Birthday attack
AnswerA

A Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack involves an attacker secretly relaying and potentially altering the communication between two parties who believe they are directly communicating with each other. The attacker positions themselves between the victim and the legitimate server, intercepting all traffic and often impersonating both ends. This allows for real-time eavesdropping, data modification, and session hijacking, directly matching the scenario of an attacker intercepting communication.

Why this answer

A man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack involves the attacker positioning themselves between the client and server to intercept and modify traffic.

63
MCQeasy

In the shared responsibility model for cloud computing, which of the following is typically the responsibility of the customer?

A.Physical security of data centers
B.Patch management of the virtualization platform
C.Data classification and encryption of customer data
D.Network infrastructure security (e.g., hypervisor, network cables)
AnswerC

Customers retain full responsibility for classifying their data based on sensitivity and implementing appropriate encryption mechanisms for their data, both at rest and in transit. This is a crucial "security in the cloud" responsibility because only the customer understands the regulatory, compliance, and business impact of their specific data. While the cloud provider offers encryption tools, the customer must configure and manage these data protection controls.

Why this answer

The customer is responsible for data classification and account management, while the provider secures the physical infrastructure.

64
MCQmedium

A security analyst captures WPA2 handshake packets using airodump-ng and then runs aircrack-ng with a wordlist. After several minutes, aircrack-ng reports 'KEY FOUND!' followed by a hex string. Which attack was successfully performed?

A.Dictionary attack on the 4-way handshake
B.Hash length extension attack on the MIC
C.Rainbow table attack on the WPA2 handshake
D.Brute-force attack against the PSK
AnswerA

A dictionary attack is the most practical method for cracking WPA2-PSK when a 4-way handshake has been captured. Tools like Aircrack-ng take a wordlist and for each entry, derive the Pairwise Master Key (PMK) using PBKDF2 with the SSID as a salt. This derived PMK is then used to reconstruct the Message Integrity Code (MIC) from the captured handshake. If the calculated MIC matches the one in the captured handshake, the wordlist entry is confirmed as the correct Pre-Shared Key (PSK).

Why this answer

Running aircrack-ng with a wordlist against a captured WPA2 4-way handshake is a dictionary attack: aircrack-ng computes the PMK/PTK for each candidate passphrase and compares the resulting MIC to the captured handshake. When it reports 'KEY FOUND!', it has matched a passphrase from the wordlist. This is the classic WPA2 PSK cracking workflow.

Exam trap

CEH often tests the distinction between dictionary and brute-force attacks — candidates see 'wordlist' and may still pick brute-force, but a wordlist-based attempt is definitionally a dictionary attack.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because hash length extension attacks target Merkle–Damgård constructions (e.g., MD5, SHA-1) in MAC schemes, not the WPA2 MIC, which uses HMAC-style keyed hashing with the PTK. Option C is wrong because rainbow tables precompute hashes for a fixed algorithm; WPA2 uses PBKDF2 with the SSID as salt, so a rainbow table would need to be SSID-specific and is not what aircrack-ng does — it computes on the fly. Option D is wrong because a brute-force attack tries every possible character combination, whereas aircrack-ng with a wordlist is by definition a dictionary attack.

65
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are examples of asymmetric cryptography? (Select 2)

Select 2 answers
A.RSA
B.ECC
C.3DES
D.MD5
E.AES
AnswersA, B

RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman) is a foundational asymmetric encryption algorithm that relies on the mathematical difficulty of factoring the product of two large prime numbers. It employs a distinct public key for encryption and a corresponding private key for decryption, enabling secure communication and digital signatures without prior key exchange. This public/private key pair structure is the defining characteristic of asymmetric cryptography, making it a correct example.

Why this answer

RSA and ECC are asymmetric algorithms. AES and 3DES are symmetric. MD5 is a hash function.

66
MCQeasy

A security analyst captures a large number of initialization vectors (IVs) on a WEP-protected network. Which tool is most commonly used to crack the WEP key using IVs?

A.Aircrack-ng
B.Reaver
C.Kismet
D.John the Ripper
AnswerA

Aircrack-ng is specifically engineered to exploit the cryptographic weaknesses inherent in the WEP protocol, primarily by collecting a sufficient number of Initialization Vectors (IVs). It leverages statistical attacks, such as the FMS attack, to deduce the WEP key from patterns observed in these IVs, which are often reused or predictable due to WEP's design flaws. The tool then performs a brute-force or dictionary attack on the derived key space, making it highly effective when a large volume of IVs has been captured.

Why this answer

Aircrack-ng is the standard tool for cracking WEP keys by capturing IVs. Reaver is for WPS, Kismet is a sniffer, and John the Ripper is a general password cracker.

67
MCQmedium

An IoT device uses the MQTT protocol without TLS. An attacker on the same network subscribes to all topics and captures messages. What is the MOST significant security risk?

A.Firmware corruption
B.Denial of service
C.Replay attacks
D.Loss of message confidentiality
AnswerD

The absence of Transport Layer Security (TLS) means that all MQTT communication, including connection requests, published messages, and subscription acknowledgments, is transmitted in cleartext over the network. Any attacker with network access can easily intercept and read these unencrypted messages using packet sniffers. This direct exposure of sensitive data, commands, or telemetry being exchanged between IoT devices and the MQTT broker constitutes an immediate and severe loss of message confidentiality.

Why this answer

MQTT without TLS transmits messages in plaintext, so an attacker subscribing to all topics can read all message payloads. The most significant risk is loss of message confidentiality, as sensitive data (credentials, telemetry) is exposed. While other risks exist, confidentiality loss is the direct and primary impact.

Exam trap

CEH often tests whether candidates focus on integrity or availability risks when the scenario describes passive eavesdropping, where confidentiality is the primary concern.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because firmware corruption requires write access or exploitation, not just passive message capture. Option B is wrong because denial of service involves disrupting availability, not reading messages. Option C is wrong because replay attacks require capturing and retransmitting messages, which is possible but secondary to the immediate confidentiality breach.

68
MCQmedium

A security analyst notices that a web application's SSL/TLS certificate is issued by a CA that is not trusted by modern browsers. Which type of attack could this enable?

A.Man-in-the-middle attack
B.Downgrade attack
C.Birthday attack
D.Replay attack
AnswerA

A Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack occurs when an attacker intercepts communication between two parties, impersonating each to the other. If a client is configured to trust an untrusted or compromised Certificate Authority (CA), an attacker can leverage this trust to issue fraudulent SSL/TLS certificates for legitimate domains. This allows the attacker to decrypt, inspect, and re-encrypt traffic, effectively becoming the "man in the middle" without the client's browser raising certificate warnings, thereby compromising confidentiality and integrity.

Why this answer

Using a self-signed or untrusted CA certificate can allow an attacker to perform a man-in-the-middle attack by presenting their own certificate that the browser may accept with user warning.

69
MCQhard

During an IoT assessment, a tester examines a smart thermostat that uses the MQTT protocol. The tester finds that the device connects to a broker without any authentication. Which of the following attacks is MOST likely to succeed?

A.Publishing arbitrary messages to control the device and subscribing to data topics
B.Firmware extraction via UART
C.Reversing the firmware to find hardcoded credentials
D.Performing a dictionary attack on the Wi-Fi PSK
AnswerA

If the smart thermostat utilizes an unauthenticated MQTT broker, an attacker can directly publish arbitrary control commands (e.g., set temperature, change mode) to the device's designated topic. Concurrently, subscribing to the device's telemetry topics allows the attacker to intercept sensitive data like temperature readings, occupancy status, or operational logs. This demonstrates both device control compromise and data exfiltration without requiring any prior authentication or credentials, making it a primary and immediate vulnerability in many IoT deployments.

Why this answer

Without authentication on MQTT, an attacker can publish malicious commands (e.g., change temperature) and subscribe to all topics to eavesdrop on sensor data.

70
MCQhard

A penetration tester discovers that a cloud application is vulnerable to Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF). Which of the following is a potential impact of this vulnerability?

A.Cross-site scripting (XSS) in the browser
B.Remote code execution via command injection
C.Access to cloud instance metadata
D.SQL injection in the database
AnswerC

Cloud providers expose internal metadata services (e.g., AWS EC2 metadata service at `http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/`) that contain highly sensitive information about the instance, including temporary security credentials, instance roles, and network configurations. An SSRF vulnerability allows an attacker to force the vulnerable server to make requests to this internal, unauthenticated endpoint. This enables the exfiltration of critical data, such as IAM role credentials, which can lead to significant compromise and privilege escalation within the cloud environment.

Why this answer

SSRF allows the attacker to make requests from the server, potentially accessing internal services like metadata endpoints (e.g., http://169.254.169.254) that are not publicly accessible.

71
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a hashing algorithm that produces a 160-bit (20-byte) hash value?

A.MD5
B.SHA-256
C.SHA-1
D.SHA-512
AnswerC

SHA-1 (Secure Hash Algorithm 1) generates a 160-bit (20-byte) hash value, typically represented as a 40-character hexadecimal string. Historically, SHA-1 was a prevalent cryptographic hash function used for digital signatures and integrity verification, making it a common answer in questions about specific hash lengths. Despite its past widespread adoption, SHA-1 is now considered cryptographically insecure due to practical collision attacks and has been deprecated for most security-critical applications.

Why this answer

SHA-1 produces a 160-bit hash. MD5 produces 128 bits, SHA-256 produces 256 bits, and SHA-512 produces 512 bits.

72
MCQeasy

Which cryptographic algorithm is classified as symmetric and uses a block cipher with a fixed block size of 128 bits, supporting key sizes of 128, 192, and 256 bits?

A.RC4
B.3DES
C.AES
D.RSA
AnswerC

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is the correct answer because it is a symmetric block cipher that processes data in fixed-size blocks of 128 bits. AES supports various key sizes, including 128, 192, and 256 bits, providing strong security. Its design as a robust and efficient block cipher has established it as the global standard for symmetric encryption, fulfilling both the symmetric classification and the 128-bit block size requirement.

Why this answer

AES is a symmetric block cipher with a block size of 128 bits and supports key sizes of 128, 192, and 256 bits. It is the most widely used symmetric encryption standard.

73
MCQmedium

A security analyst captures a WPA2 4-way handshake using airodump-ng. To crack the PSK, which tool would they MOST likely use next?

A.Kismet
B.Aircrack-ng
C.John the Ripper
D.Reaver
AnswerB

Aircrack-ng is the definitive suite of tools for auditing wireless networks, specifically engineered for tasks like cracking WPA/WPA2-PSK keys. After capturing a complete 4-way handshake, the `aircrack-ng` component can efficiently perform dictionary attacks or brute-force attempts. It takes a wordlist and iteratively computes the Pairwise Master Key (PMK) for each candidate password, comparing the resulting Message Integrity Check (MIC) with the one contained within the captured handshake to validate the correct passphrase.

Why this answer

The correct tool for cracking a WPA2 PSK from a captured handshake is aircrack-ng, which performs dictionary attacks against the handshake file.

74
MCQmedium

A penetration tester uses the following command to attack a WPS-enabled AP: 'reaver -i mon0 -b 00:11:22:33:44:55 -vv'. What is the primary goal of this attack?

A.Perform a de-authentication attack on all clients
B.Capture a WPA2 4-way handshake for offline cracking
C.Scan for hidden SSIDs in the area
D.Obtain the WPS PIN and subsequently the WPA2 PSK
AnswerD

Reaver is a dedicated tool for exploiting the Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) vulnerability. It systematically brute-forces the 7-digit WPS PIN in two halves, significantly reducing the number of attempts required compared to a full 8-digit PIN. Once the correct WPS PIN is identified through this process, Reaver can then request and display the WPA2 Pre-Shared Key (PSK) directly from the access point, effectively compromising the network's security.

Why this answer

Reaver is used to brute force the WPS PIN, recovering the PIN and ultimately the WPA2 PSK.

75
MCQhard

A security team discovers that an S3 bucket configured for static website hosting is exposing sensitive documents. The bucket policy allows public read access. Which AWS misconfiguration is MOST likely present?

A.The bucket policy allows s3:GetObject for all principals
B.The bucket versioning is disabled
C.The bucket is not using server-side encryption
D.The bucket ACL grants write access to authenticated users
AnswerA

A bucket policy explicitly allowing the "s3:GetObject" action for "Principal": "*" (all principals) directly grants public read access to all objects within that S3 bucket. This configuration overrides default private settings, making the bucket's contents accessible to anyone on the internet without authentication. Such a policy is the primary mechanism for intentionally exposing S3 objects publicly for read operations.

Why this answer

Public read access to the bucket and objects is the direct cause. Blocking public access would prevent this.

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