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CCNA Security Disaster Recovery Questions

35 of 110 questions · Page 2/2 · Security Disaster Recovery topic · Answers revealed

76
MCQhard

A datacenter administrator is designing physical security for a new colocation cage that houses servers containing regulated customer data. The cage has a single door, and the administrator wants to ensure that entry is logged and that two authorized staff members must be present for the door to unlock. Which of the following should the administrator implement to meet these requirements?

A.A cipher lock with a shared PIN and a door position sensor
B.A proximity card reader configured for dual custody with an audit trail
C.A biometric reader with a mantrap and a fail-safe electric strike
D.A mechanical key lock with a keyed access log maintained by the security desk
AnswerB

Dual custody, also called two-person integrity, requires two valid credentials to be presented before the door unlocks, and the reader's audit trail logs each entry event. This directly satisfies the requirement that two authorized staff be present and that access is recorded for the regulated cage.

Why this answer

The two-person rule requires an access control method that will not unlock for a single credential. Dual custody configuration on a card reader requires two valid presentations and produces an audit trail, meeting both the presence and logging requirements. Other options either authenticate only one person, rely on shared secrets, or provide no reliable electronic logging.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing anti-tailgating controls like mantraps or door sensors with true two-person integrity, which requires two separate valid authentications before the lock releases.

77
MCQeasy

A small business has a limited budget and can tolerate up to 72 hours of downtime in the event of a disaster. Which type of disaster recovery site would be most cost-effective?

A.Cloud-based DR with pay-as-you-go.
B.Cold site with no pre-configured hardware.
C.Hot site with real-time replication.
D.Warm site with pre-installed hardware but no data.
AnswerA

Cloud DR allows the business to pay only when resources are consumed, eliminating upfront investment and ongoing idle hardware costs, ideal for a limited budget and relaxed RTO.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because a cloud-based DR site with pay-as-you-go model requires no upfront investment in hardware and can be spun up as needed, making it cost-effective for a business with a high downtime tolerance. Option A is wrong because a hot site is the most expensive, with real-time replication. Option B is wrong because a warm site requires pre-installed hardware that incurs ongoing costs, even if data is not up-to-date.

Option C is wrong because a cold site still requires occasional maintenance and may have hidden costs; modern cloud DR can be cheaper and more flexible.

78
MCQmedium

A financial services firm requires a disaster recovery site that provides immediate failover with zero data loss. Which type of site should they implement?

A.A warm site with asynchronous replication.
B.A cloud-based site with daily snapshots.
C.A cold site with tape restoration.
D.A hot site with synchronous replication.
AnswerD

Synchronous replication ensures data is mirrored in real-time, enabling immediate failover with no data loss.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because a hot site with synchronous replication ensures that data is written to both primary and secondary sites simultaneously, providing zero RPO and immediate failover. Option B (warm site) requires some time to bring systems online, leading to downtime and potential data loss. Option C (cold site) involves significant setup time and last-known-good backup restoration.

Option D (cloud with daily snapshots) introduces an RPO of up to 24 hours, not zero data loss.

79
MCQhard

A retail company runs its order-processing database on a physical server in a colocation facility. Management has approved a hot site contract for disaster recovery. During a tabletop exercise, the CIO asks the administrator to explain what the hot site contract actually provides on day one of a declared disaster. Which statement is accurate?

A.The hot site is a reserved space with power and cooling only, and the company must ship in servers and storage before recovery can begin.
B.The hot site becomes the permanent production data center after a disaster, and the original facility is decommissioned.
C.The hot site guarantees zero data loss because the provider continuously replicates the production database to the alternate facility.
D.The hot site provides pre-installed hardware, power, and network connectivity, but the company must still restore its own data and configure the operating systems.
AnswerD

A hot site is a fully equipped alternate facility with servers, storage, environmental controls, and network links already in place and ready to accept workloads. What it does not inherently contain is the organization's current production data or its specific OS and application configuration. The recovery team must still restore the latest backups and apply configuration, which is why a hot site shortens recovery time but does not eliminate the need for tested restore procedures.

Why this answer

Hot, warm, and cold sites differ in how much infrastructure is pre-provisioned. A hot site includes hardware, power, cooling, and network connectivity ready to run workloads, so recovery time is measured in hours, but the organization's data, operating systems, and application configuration remain its own responsibility to restore. Understanding that boundary is essential for setting realistic recovery time objectives and for budgeting replication and restore tooling separately.

Exam trap

The trap here is conflating a hot site's ready infrastructure with automatic data replication, when replication is a separate service the organization must design and contract.

80
MCQmedium

A datacenter administrator must protect a rack of dual-power-supply servers against a single PDU failure. The rack currently has two rack PDUs, each fed from a separate upstream branch circuit, and each server has both power supplies connected. The administrator wants to confirm that the configuration meets the intended redundancy level before adding more servers. Which action should the administrator take?

A.Connect only one power supply from each server and label the unused supply as reserved for future capacity, because dual-corded servers do not need both supplies connected.
B.Connect both power supplies from each server to the same PDU so that the load is balanced across one device, and rely on the second PDU as a cold spare.
C.Connect one power supply from each server to PDU A and the other power supply to PDU B, then verify that each PDU is fed from a different upstream branch circuit.
D.Connect one power supply from each server to PDU A and the other to PDU B, but leave both PDUs connected to the same upstream branch circuit to simplify cabling.
AnswerC

This is correct because dual-corded servers achieve true redundancy only when the two power supplies are split across independent PDUs and those PDUs are fed from separate upstream circuits. If both PDUs eventually trace to the same breaker or UPS, a single upstream failure can still take down both power feeds.

Why this answer

True rack-level power redundancy requires two independent paths from the server to the upstream power source. Each dual-corded server should have one supply on each PDU, and those PDUs must be fed from separate branch circuits. Otherwise a single breaker or feed failure can still interrupt both power supplies and cause an outage.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that connecting two power cords to two PDUs is enough, without checking whether both PDUs share the same upstream circuit.

81
MCQhard

An administrator manages a two-node Windows Server 2022 cluster that hosts a critical SQL Server instance. The cluster uses shared storage on a SAN. During a failover test, the administrator observes that the SQL Server role takes several minutes to come online on the surviving node, exceeding the recovery time objective. The application team confirms the database itself starts quickly once the disk resources are available. Which factor should the administrator investigate first?

A.The size of the SQL Server transaction log file on the shared volume.
B.The number of processor cores assigned to the virtual machine hosting the SQL Server instance.
C.The cluster quorum configuration and whether a file share witness is reachable.
D.The time required for the SAN to revoke and re-present disk ownership to the surviving node, including any persistent reservation cleanup.
AnswerD

In a shared-storage cluster, disk resources must be released by the failed node and claimed by the surviving node before the application can start. That process involves SCSI-3 persistent reservations, path revalidation, and sometimes storage array failover behavior. When the database itself starts quickly, the delay almost certainly sits in this storage ownership transition, making it the first place to measure and tune.

Why this answer

When a clustered role fails over, the surviving node must first acquire the shared disk resources, which involves releasing and re-establishing SCSI-3 persistent reservations and revalidating paths to the storage array. Only after those resources are online can dependent resources such as the SQL Server instance start. If the application starts quickly once disks are present, the recovery time objective miss originates in the storage handoff, so that interval should be measured before tuning anything else.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on database or server tuning when the evidence shows the delay occurs before the application resource can start, in the shared storage ownership transition.

82
MCQmedium

A company's backup policy sends nightly backups to a tape library in the same building as the production servers. A recent fire destroyed the server room, and the tapes were damaged by heat and water. Which change BEST addresses this single point of failure?

A.Ship a copy of each backup to an offsite location or replicate it to cloud storage outside the building.
B.Increase the backup frequency to every four hours so less data is lost between jobs.
C.Replicate the tape library to a second array in the same server room so backups exist on two media types.
D.Add parity to the tape library so a damaged tape can be reconstructed from the remaining tapes.
AnswerA

Maintaining a geographically separate copy removes the single point of failure because a fire or flood at the primary site cannot destroy the offsite media. This aligns with the long-standing practice of keeping backups at a distance, and it directly addresses the loss of both production and backup data in one event. It preserves the existing backup schedule while adding survivability.

Why this answer

The incident destroyed production and backup copies together because both lived in the same room. The most effective change is to keep at least one copy geographically separate, either by shipping tapes offsite or replicating to cloud storage. More frequent backups, a second in-room library, and tape parity all leave the site-level single point of failure intact.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on backup frequency or media redundancy when the actual failure was that production and backups shared one physical location.

83
MCQeasy

A server administrator is configuring a new file server that will store sensitive financial documents. The security policy requires that data be encrypted at rest and that the encryption keys be protected by the server's TPM. Which of the following should the administrator implement?

A.NTFS permissions
B.BitLocker Drive Encryption
C.IPsec transport mode
D.SMB signing
AnswerB

BitLocker is a full-disk encryption feature that can use a TPM to protect the encryption keys. It encrypts the entire volume, satisfying the at-rest encryption requirement, and integrates with TPM for key protection. This is the correct choice for Windows Server environments needing volume-level encryption tied to hardware.

Why this answer

The policy requires encryption at rest with keys protected by TPM. BitLocker provides full volume encryption and can seal keys to the TPM, ensuring the drive contents are inaccessible without proper authentication. IPsec, SMB signing, and NTFS permissions address network security or access control but do not encrypt data on the disk.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing access control or transit encryption with at-rest encryption, which specifically requires encrypting the data on the storage media.

84
MCQhard

A network administrator needs to configure centralized authentication for network devices. The solution must provide encryption of the entire authentication process, support for multiple protocols, and accounting of user actions. Which protocol should be used?

B.Kerberos
D.LDAP
AnswerA

TACACS+ encrypts the entire body of the packet, supports multiple protocols, and provides detailed accounting, fitting the requirements.

Why this answer

TACACS+ encrypts the entire authentication process, offers granular control over authorization, and supports accounting. RADIUS (B) only encrypts the password, not the entire session. LDAP (A) is a directory service, not an encryption-focused authentication protocol.

Kerberos (C) uses tickets and encryption but is primarily for single sign-on within a domain, not commonly used for network device administration.

85
MCQeasy

A small business runs a single physical server that hosts its accounting application and database. The owner wants a backup approach that allows recovery to any point within the last 14 days without restoring a full backup each time. Which backup type should the administrator implement?

A.Full backup every night
B.Differential backup every night
C.Transaction log backups every 15 minutes
D.Incremental backup every night
AnswerC

Transaction log backups capture every committed transaction and, combined with periodic full backups, allow recovery to any point in time within the retention window. This directly supports the requirement to restore to any moment in the last 14 days without re-running a full backup each time.

Why this answer

Point-in-time recovery to any moment in a 14-day window requires transaction log backups, which capture each committed transaction and can be replayed on top of a full backup. Full, differential, and incremental schemes provide at most one restore point per backup cycle and cannot reconstruct an arbitrary moment between backups.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that frequent full or incremental backups equal point-in-time recovery, when only transaction log backups capture the intermediate committed transactions.

86
MCQhard

A system administrator notices unusual file encryption activity on a file server. The activity appears to be rapidly spreading to other servers, and ransom notes are appearing. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST?

A.Notify law enforcement
B.Run antivirus scan on the affected servers
C.Disconnect the affected servers from the network
D.Restore the encrypted files from backup
AnswerC

Ransomware spreads laterally across the network, so isolating the affected servers by disconnecting them halts propagation before remediation. Containing the incident first preserves unaffected servers and evidence, making network disconnection the correct immediate priority over investigation or recovery steps.

Why this answer

The FIRST action in a suspected ransomware attack is to contain the spread by isolating affected systems. Disconnecting the servers from the network immediately stops the malware from encrypting additional files on other servers and prevents lateral movement. This aligns with the containment phase of incident response, which takes priority over notification, scanning, or recovery.

Exam trap

SK0-005 often tests the order of incident response steps, and candidates frequently choose 'notify law enforcement' or 'restore from backup' first, forgetting that containment (disconnecting from the network) must precede eradication and recovery to prevent further spread.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because notifying law enforcement, while important, is not the first step; containment must occur before any external communication to prevent further damage. Option B is wrong because running an antivirus scan on already infected servers is ineffective—the malware is active and may evade detection, and scanning does not stop the ongoing encryption or spread. Option D is wrong because restoring from backup before containment would likely result in re-infection, as the ransomware would still be present and could encrypt the restored files again.

87
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A Linux server's local firewall is configured as shown. The administrator is unable to perform backups to a network-attached storage (NAS) device using TCP port 10000. Which firewall rule is causing the issue?

A.The INPUT policy is set to ACCEPT.
B.The DROP all rule at the end blocks all traffic except SSH.
C.The NAS device uses a different subnet.
D.The SSH ACCEPT rule is allowing traffic.
AnswerB

The DROP rule matches all packets that were not explicitly accepted (only port 22), including the backup traffic on port 10000.

Why this answer

Option D is correct. The INPUT chain contains an explicit DROP all rule at the end, which blocks any traffic not explicitly allowed. The only allowed traffic is SSH on port 22.

The backup traffic on port 10000 matches the DROP rule and is therefore dropped. Option A is incorrect because the policy ACCEPT is overridden by the explicit DROP. Option B allows SSH traffic but does not affect port 10000.

Option C about subnets is irrelevant to the local firewall shown.

88
MCQeasy

A small business needs a disaster recovery site that can be brought online within 2 hours of a primary site failure. The business can tolerate minimal data loss. Which type of recovery site should they implement?

A.Cold site
B.Hot site
C.Warm site
D.Mobile site
AnswerB

A hot site offers real-time data replication and ready-to-run systems, allowing failover within minutes to a couple of hours, achieving minimal data loss.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because a hot site maintains near-real-time data replication and preconfigured hardware, enabling failover within 2 hours and minimal data loss. A cold site (Option A) requires hardware setup and data restoration, taking days. A warm site (Option B) has pre-installed hardware but lacks current data, typically taking hours to a day to activate.

A mobile site (Option D) is a portable solution with variable provisioning time and may not meet the 2-hour requirement consistently.

89
MCQeasy

A small accounting firm runs a single physical server that hosts all of its line-of-business applications. The owner wants a backup strategy that allows the entire server, including the operating system, applications, and data, to be restored to dissimilar hardware after a catastrophic failure. Which backup type should the administrator implement?

A.Differential backup
B.Database dump
C.Bare-metal backup
D.File-level incremental backup
AnswerC

A bare-metal backup captures the entire server volume, including the operating system, applications, configuration, and data, and is specifically designed to restore to dissimilar hardware. This matches the owner's requirement to recover the whole server after a catastrophic failure without reinstalling the OS or applications separately.

Why this answer

A bare-metal backup is the only listed method that captures the full server, including the OS, applications, and data, in a form that can be restored to dissimilar hardware. File-level, differential, and database-specific backups each omit critical system components, so they cannot satisfy the requirement for a complete server recovery on different hardware.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any full or differential backup preserves the operating system and boot configuration, when only a bare-metal or image-based backup does.

90
MCQhard

A security administrator is configuring a Linux server to allow only SSH and HTTPS traffic from a specific management subnet while blocking all other inbound traffic. The server has two network interfaces: eth0 (public) and eth1 (management). Which command should the administrator use to view the current iptables rules with line numbers to identify the rule positions before modifying them?

A.iptables -L --line-numbers
B.iptables -F
C.iptables -L -n -v
D.iptables -S
AnswerA

This command lists all rules in the selected chain and includes line numbers at the beginning of each rule. Line numbers are essential for inserting or deleting rules at precise positions, such as when reordering to allow management subnet traffic before a default deny. It also supports -n to disable name resolution for faster output. This directly meets the administrator's need to view rules with line numbers.

Why this answer

The administrator needs to view the current iptables rules with line numbers to identify rule positions before making changes. The iptables -L --line-numbers command lists all rules with line numbers, allowing precise insertion or deletion. This is critical when reordering rules to ensure management subnet traffic is permitted before any default deny rule.

Other commands either lack line numbers or are destructive.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that iptables -L -n -v shows line numbers; it shows counters and disables name resolution but not line numbers, which are essential for rule position management.

91
MCQhard

A company is implementing a disaster recovery strategy for its on-premises VMware vSphere environment. The IT manager wants to ensure that virtual machines can be recovered at a secondary site within 4 hours of a primary site failure. The secondary site has identical hardware but no active VMs. The company has a limited budget and wants to minimize ongoing costs. Which of the following solutions BEST meets these requirements?

A.Use VMware vSphere Replication to replicate VMs to the secondary site and perform manual recovery when needed.
B.Implement VMware Site Recovery Manager (SRM) with array-based replication and automated failover.
C.Set up a stretched vSphere cluster across both sites with synchronous replication.
D.Configure nightly backups to tape and transport them to the secondary site for restoration.
AnswerA

vSphere Replication is included with vSphere Essentials Plus and higher, providing host-based replication without the need for expensive storage arrays. It allows replication to a secondary site and manual recovery. With a 4-hour RTO, manual recovery is feasible. This solution is cost-effective and meets the requirements without the overhead of SRM.

Why this answer

VMware vSphere Replication offers a cost-effective way to replicate VMs to a secondary site without requiring expensive storage arrays or SRM licensing. It supports manual recovery, which can meet a 4-hour RTO. Other options either incur high costs, rely on slow tape restoration, or require expensive network infrastructure.

Therefore, vSphere Replication is the best fit.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that automated failover or stretched clusters are necessary for a 4-hour RTO, when manual recovery with replication can suffice and is more cost-effective.

92
MCQeasy

A small business leases a single rack in a colocation facility. The owner wants a disaster recovery arrangement that provides a pre-configured alternate site with power, cooling, and network but where the company must supply and install its own servers after a disaster. Which type of site best matches this requirement?

A.Hot site
B.Cold site
C.Mobile site
D.Warm site
AnswerB

A cold site provides basic infrastructure such as power, cooling, and connectivity but no pre-installed hardware. The company must bring and install its own servers, which matches the owner's requirement. It is the least expensive option but has the longest recovery time because hardware must be procured and configured after the disaster.

Why this answer

A cold site supplies only the physical environment and utilities, leaving hardware procurement and installation to the organization. Because the owner wants a pre-configured space but plans to install company-owned servers after a disaster, a cold site is the correct match. It offers the lowest cost at the expense of longer recovery time.

Exam trap

The trap here is equating any alternate site with a hot site, when the key differentiator is how much hardware and data are already in place before a disaster occurs.

93
MCQeasy

A company performs a full backup on Sunday and incremental backups Monday through Saturday. A server fails on Thursday at 10:00 AM. Which sequence correctly restores the data?

A.Restore Sunday full, then Tuesday and Wednesday incrementals.
B.Restore Sunday full and Wednesday incremental only.
C.Restore Wednesday's incremental, then Sunday full.
D.Restore Sunday full, then Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday incrementals.
AnswerD

Correct sequence: full backup provides the base, and all subsequent incremental backups up to the last good point (Wednesday) must be applied in order.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because an incremental backup captures only changes since the last backup, requiring the last full backup and all subsequent incrementals up to the point of failure. Options A and D are wrong because they skip Monday’s incremental (A) or both Monday and Tuesday (D). Option B is wrong because it restores out of order, which would not apply the data correctly.

94
Multi-Selectmedium

A security team is reviewing physical security controls for a data center that houses several CompTIA Server+ managed servers. The team wants to implement measures that specifically prevent unauthorized personnel from accessing server racks and deter tailgating. (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Configure a VLAN for out-of-band management
B.Implement RAID 6 on all server storage arrays
C.Deploy a mantrap or access vestibule at the entrance
D.Enable full-disk encryption with BitLocker on all servers
E.Install electronic badge readers on the data center entrance door
AnswersC, E

A mantrap, now usually called an access control vestibule, has two interlocking doors: the second opens only after the first has closed, often admitting one person at a time and sometimes checked by weight sensors or cameras. That directly stops tailgating, where an unauthorised person follows an authorised one inside. It works best combined with badge readers, so each person authenticates individually.

Why this answer

Electronic badge readers and a mantrap directly address physical access control. Badge readers authenticate individuals at the entrance, while a mantrap enforces one-person-at-a-time entry to prevent tailgating. Together they provide layered physical security for the data center and server racks, meeting the requirement to deter unauthorized access.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing logical security controls like encryption or network segmentation with physical access controls that actually stop people at the door.

95
PBQhard

A mid-sized e-commerce company experienced a ransomware attack that encrypted all on-premises servers and their locally attached backup storage. The attack occurred on a Friday evening; the company was closed over the weekend. By Monday morning, the IT team discovered the encryption and found a ransom note demanding $500,000 in Bitcoin. The company has a disaster recovery plan that calls for restoring from daily tape backups stored offsite. However, the most recent offsite tape was taken home by a backup operator for the weekend and has not been returned. The tape contains full backups from Wednesday. The IT team has clean installation media and application software available. The company's RPO is 24 hours, and RTO is 48 hours. Management wants to minimize data loss and avoid paying the ransom. Based on this scenario, which of the following should the IT team do to recover the business operations?

A.Pay the ransom to obtain the decryption key, then restore the environment, and implement better security controls.
B.Rebuild the servers from scratch using clean media, and manually re-enter transactions since the last good backup based on paper records and customer emails.
C.Wait for the backup operator to return the tape, then restore from that tape, accepting data loss since Wednesday.
D.Rebuild the servers from scratch using clean media, restore the latest offsite tape if available, and apply available transaction logs from the on-premises backup server that was encrypted (attempting to recover unencrypted logs).
AnswerD

Why this answer

Option A is correct because it follows the existing DR plan by restoring from the available offsite tape (even though a few days old) and builds clean servers to avoid reinfection. It also attempts to salvage any unencrypted transaction logs from the compromised environment to minimize data loss beyond Wednesday. Paying the ransom (Option B) is against best practices and may not guarantee full recovery.

Waiting for the operator to return the tape (Option C) delays action and may still result in significant data loss; the operator's return is uncertain. Manually re-entering transactions (Option D) is highly labor-intensive, error-prone, and could exceed the 48-hour RTO.

96
MCQhard

A company's disaster recovery plan requires that a critical database server be restored at an alternate site within a recovery time objective (RTO) of 4 hours. The database is 2 TB in size, and the company has a 100 Mbps WAN link between the primary and alternate sites. The administrator needs to choose a replication method that meets the RTO without requiring manual intervention at the alternate site. Which solution should the administrator implement?

A.Asynchronous storage replication with automated failover
B.Log shipping with manual transaction log application
C.Daily full backups shipped to the alternate site on tape
D.Synchronous storage replication with manual failover
AnswerA

Asynchronous replication sends changes to the alternate site without waiting for acknowledgment, which tolerates WAN latency and bandwidth limits. With automated failover, the alternate site can bring the database online quickly, meeting the 4-hour RTO. It avoids the performance penalty of synchronous replication over a 100 Mbps link.

Why this answer

Asynchronous replication with automated failover balances the need for timely recovery with the constraints of a 100 Mbps WAN link. It avoids the latency-induced performance hit of synchronous replication while enabling the alternate site to activate the database without manual steps, satisfying the 4-hour RTO.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that synchronous replication is always better for RTO because it keeps data identical, ignoring the bandwidth and latency limitations of the WAN link.

97
PBQhard

A large financial services company must comply with federal regulations mandating quarterly disaster recovery tests. Their primary data center in New York hosts all trading applications, and a hot site in Chicago is maintained with real-time data replication via synchronous mirroring. During the last DR test, the IT team successfully failed over network and storage within 8 minutes, meeting the 15-minute RTO for connectivity. However, they encountered a major issue: the hot site's firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and application-level access controls were not configured to match the primary environment. The security team had to manually create firewall rules, update IDS signatures, and reconfigure access policies based on documentation, which took over 4 hours. As a result, the total system readiness exceeded 4.5 hours, causing a significant gap in trading operations. The regulatory auditor noted this deficiency and required a corrective action plan. The company must ensure that the next DR test achieves full operational readiness, including security controls, within the 15-minute RTO. The IT budget is already allocated for the current fiscal year, so large capital expenditures are not possible, but the team can leverage existing tools and automation. Which of the following is the BEST approach to address this issue?

A.Develop detailed runbooks for the security team to manually configure devices during failover; then conduct quarterly drills to reduce configuration time.
B.Re-evaluate the RTO to extend it to 4 hours and inform regulators of a realistic capability.
C.Replace the existing firewalls and IDS at the hot site with identical hardware from the same vendors as the primary site.
D.Implement a configuration management tool that automatically synchronizes firewall rules, IDS signatures, and access controls to the hot site in near real-time.
AnswerD

Why this answer

The core issue is that security controls at the hot site were not synchronized with the primary site, causing a 4-hour manual reconfiguration that blew the 15-minute RTO. A configuration management tool that automatically synchronizes firewall rules, IDS signatures, and access controls in near real-time directly addresses this root cause by eliminating manual intervention during failover. This leverages existing tooling and automation, aligning with the budget constraint while ensuring security parity between sites.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates focus on the data replication and network failover success (8 minutes) and overlook that security control configuration is a separate, non-replicated layer — leading them to pick manual runbooks or hardware replacement instead of automated configuration synchronization.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because detailed runbooks and quarterly drills still rely on manual configuration, which cannot realistically compress a 4-hour manual process into the 15-minute RTO window. Option B is wrong because extending the RTO to 4 hours merely accepts the deficiency rather than correcting it, and it violates the federal regulatory mandate the company must meet. Option C is wrong because replacing hardware with identical vendor models does not automatically synchronize configurations, and it requires large capital expenditures that the budget explicitly prohibits.

98
MCQmedium

A company operates a rack of servers in a shared datacenter. Management wants to ensure that if a malicious actor gains physical access to the rack, they cannot simply remove a hard drive and read the data on another system. Which control BEST addresses this risk?

A.Configure the servers to require a BIOS password before booting from any device.
B.Enable full-disk encryption using a TPM-bound key so drives are unreadable when moved to another system.
C.Install tamper-evident seals on the rack doors and audit them during monthly inspections.
D.Restrict datacenter badge access so only authorized staff can enter the cage area.
AnswerB

Full-disk encryption with a TPM-sealed key renders the drive contents unreadable when it is removed and attached elsewhere, because the key is bound to that specific server's TPM. This directly counters the threat of drive theft and offline reading. Without the original TPM, the attacker cannot unseal the key, so the data stays protected.

Why this answer

The threat is offline reading of a drive after physical removal. Full-disk encryption with a TPM-bound key ensures the volume cannot be decrypted on another machine because the sealing key never leaves the original TPM. BIOS passwords, tamper seals, and badge access may deter or detect intruders, but none of them make the data itself unreadable once the disk is in an attacker's hands.

Exam trap

The trap here is believing that physical access controls alone protect data, when a removed drive can be read on any compatible system unless encryption is in place.

99
MCQhard

A company stores nightly full backups on an external USB drive that is rotated weekly and kept in a locked cabinet in the same server room. A recent audit found that a fire in the server room would destroy both the production data and the backup drive. The company wants to improve the backup strategy so that a site-wide disaster does not eliminate all copies, while keeping costs low. Which of the following is the BEST change to meet these requirements?

A.Enable RAID 6 on the server's internal disks so that two disk failures can be tolerated.
B.Configure the backup software to write a copy to a cloud object storage bucket in a different region after each nightly job.
C.Add a second USB drive that is rotated daily but stored in the same locked cabinet.
D.Increase the backup frequency from nightly to hourly to reduce the recovery point objective.
AnswerB

Copying the nightly backup to cloud object storage in a separate region creates an off-site copy that survives a site-wide disaster such as a fire. Object storage is relatively inexpensive for infrequent access and can be configured with lifecycle policies, so it meets the low-cost requirement. This aligns with the 3-2-1 rule by adding a geographically separate copy.

Why this answer

The audit finding is about the lack of an off-site copy, so the fix must move at least one backup copy to a different location. Writing a nightly copy to cloud object storage in another region provides geographic separation at low cost and aligns with the 3-2-1 backup principle. Additional local drives, RAID, and more frequent backups do not protect against a site-wide fire.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on backup frequency or local redundancy when the audit finding is specifically about the absence of an off-site copy.

100
MCQeasy

A datacenter technician is asked to physically destroy the storage media from a set of decommissioned servers that held customer records. The company's policy requires that the media be rendered unreadable and that a certificate of destruction be retained. Which action best satisfies this requirement?

A.Degauss the drives and then shred them, obtaining a certificate of destruction from the vendor.
B.Shred or incinerate the drives through a certified destruction vendor and retain the certificate of destruction.
C.Run the vendor's secure erase utility on each drive and return the drives to the server for redeployment.
D.Delete the partitions and format each drive, then document the action in the asset management system.
AnswerB

Physical destruction by shredding or incineration reduces the media to fragments or ash, making recovery of customer records infeasible regardless of whether the drives are magnetic or solid state. A certified vendor issues a certificate of destruction documenting the serial numbers and method, which satisfies the policy's documentation requirement. This is the most reliable approach when the media must be rendered unreadable.

Why this answer

When policy requires media to be rendered unreadable and a destruction certificate to be retained, physical destruction through a certified vendor is the surest path. Shredding or incineration works on both magnetic and solid-state media, unlike degaussing, which only affects magnetic drives. The certificate documents serial numbers and the destruction method, giving auditors verifiable evidence that the customer records cannot be recovered.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that degaussing applies to all drives, when it is ineffective against solid-state media that may be present in the same decommissioned servers.

101
Multi-Selecthard

A security administrator is hardening a Linux server that hosts a public web application. The server currently allows root login via SSH and uses default SSH port 22. The administrator wants to reduce the attack surface by implementing SSH best practices. Which two actions should the administrator take? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Change the SSH port from 22 to a non-standard port, such as 2222.
B.Disable password authentication by setting PasswordAuthentication no and use SSH keys.
C.Enable password authentication to ensure only authorized users can log in.
D.Disable root login by setting PermitRootLogin no in /etc/ssh/sshd_config.
E.Allow SSH access from any IP address to ensure administrators can connect from anywhere.
AnswersB, D

Disabling password authentication and requiring SSH keys eliminates the risk of brute-force password attacks. Keys are much harder to guess or crack, and they can be protected with passphrases. This is a fundamental SSH hardening measure. It directly reduces the attack surface by removing a common vector for unauthorized access. This action is strongly recommended for public-facing servers.

Why this answer

Disabling root login and disabling password authentication in favor of SSH keys are two fundamental SSH hardening practices. They reduce the attack surface by eliminating direct root access and removing the risk of password brute-force attacks. Changing the port is security through obscurity, enabling password authentication weakens security, and allowing SSH from any IP increases exposure.

These two actions directly address the scenario's requirements.

Exam trap

The trap here is believing that changing the SSH port is a strong security measure; it is merely obscurity and does not reduce the attack surface as effectively as disabling root login and password authentication.

102
MCQeasy

A junior administrator is asked to document the recovery point objective for a critical order-processing system. What does the recovery point objective define?

A.The total cost the organization is willing to spend to recover the system after an outage.
B.The maximum acceptable time for the system to be unavailable after a failure.
C.The point in the disaster recovery plan at which the incident commander declares the disaster resolved.
D.The maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time before the failure occurred.
AnswerD

The recovery point objective expresses how much data the business can afford to lose, stated as a time interval such as fifteen minutes or four hours. It drives backup frequency and replication design because the chosen technology must be able to restore data to a point within that window. For an order system, this determines whether nightly backups or continuous replication is required.

Why this answer

The recovery point objective quantifies tolerable data loss as an amount of time, which then determines how often backups or replication must occur. The recovery time objective covers outage duration, cost tolerance is a budget constraint, and a declaration of resolution is an incident-management milestone. For order processing, the objective directly drives whether continuous replication is needed.

Exam trap

The trap here is swapping the recovery point objective with the recovery time objective, since both use time units but measure different things.

103
MCQmedium

An organization's disaster recovery plan specifies an RPO of 4 hours. Their current backup schedule performs a full backup at midnight and incremental backups every 2 hours from 8:00 AM to 8:00 PM. A server failure occurs at 3:00 AM, and data created after 8:00 PM the previous day is permanently lost. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason?

A.The incremental backups were not synthetically rolled into the full backup.
B.The RPO was set too low for the business requirements.
C.There is a gap in the backup schedule overnight that exceeds the RPO.
D.The backup media became corrupted.
AnswerC

The schedule only covers 8:00 AM–8:00 PM with incrementals, leaving a long interval overnight where no backups capture data changes, violating the 4-hour RPO.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the backup schedule has no coverage from 8:00 PM to 8:00 AM the next morning (except full at midnight), creating a 12-hour gap overnight that exceeds the 4-hour RPO. Data created after 8:00 PM and before the failure at 3:00 AM is lost because no backup captured it. Option A is incorrect because RPO is a requirement, not the cause.

Option B is speculative. Option D refers to synthetic fulls, which are not relevant to this gap.

104
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A server administrator is reviewing security logs after a suspected brute-force attack on the SSH service. The following excerpt from /var/log/secure is displayed. Which security control would have been MOST effective in preventing the successful login?

A.Disabling root login via SSH.
B.Implementing fail2ban or similar intrusion prevention.
C.Enforcing a strong password policy.
D.Using a different SSH port.
AnswerB

fail2ban tracks authentication failures and temporarily or permanently bans IPs that exceed the threshold, which would have blocked 192.168.1.100 after the initial failures, preventing the successful login.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because fail2ban or a similar intrusion prevention system monitors logs for repeated failures and blocks the attacker's IP address after a configurable number of attempts, stopping the attack before the correct password is guessed. Option A is wrong because a strong password policy might resist guessing for a long time, but the admin password was eventually guessed; it does not actively prevent repeated attempts. Option C is wrong because disabling root login would not have prevented the attack on the admin account, which was the one compromised.

Option D is wrong because changing the SSH port is security through obscurity and does not prevent brute-force attempts once the port is discovered.

105
MCQeasy

An organization wants to test its disaster recovery plan with minimal disruption to business operations and minimal cost. The test should verify the plan's effectiveness by discussing scenarios. Which type of test should they perform?

A.Tabletop exercise
B.Parallel test
C.Full interruption test
D.Simulation test
AnswerA

A tabletop exercise is a walk-through discussion that incurs almost no direct cost and zero disruption, making it ideal for initial plan verification.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because a tabletop exercise is a discussion-based review of the plan steps with key stakeholders, requiring no system downtime and very low cost. A full interruption test (Option A) actually shuts down primary systems and fails over, causing disruption. A parallel test (Option B) runs systems at the DR site without cutting over but still involves significant resource allocation.

A simulation test (Option D) may involve live drills or emulate components, often costing more than a tabletop.

106
Multi-Selecteasy

During a security incident, a server is suspected to be compromised by malware. The incident response team needs to preserve evidence and minimize impact. Which TWO actions should be taken FIRST? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Disconnect the server from the network.
B.Run an antivirus scan.
C.Reboot the server in safe mode.
D.Power off the server immediately.
E.Make a forensic image of the system memory.
AnswersA, E

Isolating the server from the network stops the attacker's remote access and prevents malware propagation while preserving the system state for investigation.

Why this answer

Options B and C are correct. Disconnecting the server from the network (B) is an immediate containment step to prevent data exfiltration or spread. Capturing a forensic image of system memory (C) preserves volatile data such as running processes, network connections, and encryption keys before they are lost.

Option A is wrong because powering off loses all volatile evidence. Option D is wrong because running an AV scan modifies files and could destroy forensic artifacts. Option E is wrong because rebooting erases memory and may trigger malware countermeasures.

107
MCQmedium

An administrator must choose a physical security control for a new server room door that will allow staff to enter quickly during an emergency while still recording who entered and when. Which solution BEST fits?

A.Install a biometric reader that grants access based on fingerprint recognition only.
B.Install a badge reader configured as fail-secure so the door remains locked when power is lost.
C.Install a badge reader with an electronic audit log and a fail-safe release that unlocks on power loss.
D.Install a mechanical keyed lock with keys issued to each staff member.
AnswerC

A badge reader with logging satisfies the requirement to record who entered and when, and a fail-safe lock releases when power is lost, allowing rapid egress during an emergency. This combination addresses both the accountability and life-safety needs described in the scenario without relying on manual intervention.

Why this answer

The door needs both accountability and safe, fast passage during emergencies. An electronic badge reader with an audit log records entries, while a fail-safe release ensures the lock disengages when power is lost so people are not trapped. Together they meet the physical security and life-safety requirements stated.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing fail-safe and fail-secure behavior, assuming that the most restrictive lock setting is always the most secure choice.

108
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is creating a disaster recovery plan for its on-premises data center. Which THREE elements are essential to include in the DR plan? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Contact information for key personnel.
B.RTO and RPO for each critical system.
C.Detailed instructions for cleaning server hardware.
D.Step-by-step procedures for performing backups.
E.List of failover site addresses and access procedures.
AnswersA, B, E

During a disaster, communication is vital; the plan must include up-to-date contact details for the response team, stakeholders, and vendors.

Why this answer

Options A, C, and E are correct. Contact information for key personnel (A) ensures that the recovery team can be reached during a crisis. RTO and RPO for each critical system (C) define the recovery goals and guide the technical implementation.

The list of failover site addresses and access procedures (E) provides vital instructions for reaching and securing the secondary location. Option B is wrong because cleaning procedures are operational but not a core DR plan element. Option D is wrong because backup procedures are part of the backup policy, not the disaster recovery plan; the DR plan assumes backups exist and focuses on restoring from them.

109
MCQmedium

After an unexpected power outage, a server fails to boot and displays an error indicating a degraded RAID array. The server has a RAID 5 configuration with four disks. One disk has failed, but the hot spare did not automatically rebuild. The administrator needs to restore data availability as quickly as possible. Which action should the technician take FIRST?

A.Replace the failed disk and initiate a manual rebuild.
B.Restore the server from the latest backup.
C.Check the RAID controller battery and cache.
D.Replace the hot spare with a new disk.
AnswerA

The failed disk is the root cause of degradation. Replacing it provides a healthy member for the array, and a manual rebuild can be forced to restore redundancy quickly.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because replacing the failed disk and initiating a manual rebuild directly restores redundancy and availability using the existing parity data. Option B is wrong because the hot spare is not faulty; the rebuild did not trigger automatically, likely due to a configuration issue, and swapping it does not address the failed disk. Option C is wrong because while a bad battery or cache can cause rebuild failures, checking this is a later step; the immediate need is to replace the failed disk to restore redundancy.

Option D is wrong because a backup restore is a last resort and may result in data loss; the array is degraded but still functional, so rebuilding is faster and less disruptive.

110
MCQhard

An administrator is designing physical security for a new server room that also houses the company's network core. Management wants to prevent an unauthorized visitor from plugging a laptop into an unused wall jack and capturing traffic. Which control BEST addresses this specific threat?

A.Configure port mirroring on the core switch so the security team can monitor all traffic from the server room.
B.Deploy IPsec transport mode between all servers in the room and require certificate-based authentication for every session.
C.Enable 802.1X port-based network access control on all switch ports and configure unused ports to an unauthorized VLAN.
D.Install a mantrap at the server room entrance and require badge plus biometric authentication for entry.
AnswerC

802.1X requires a supplicant to authenticate before the switch port passes traffic, so a visitor's laptop cannot join the network even if it is physically plugged into a live jack. Placing unused ports in an unauthorized or quarantined VLAN adds a second layer so that unauthenticated devices land in a restricted segment. This directly mitigates the stated threat of an unauthorized device capturing or injecting traffic.

Why this answer

The threat is a rogue device gaining network access through a live wall jack. Port-based access control with 802.1X forces authentication before the port forwards traffic, and assigning unused ports to a quarantined VLAN limits what an unauthenticated device can reach. Physical entry controls, IPsec between servers, and port mirroring do not prevent a plugged-in laptop from joining the local segment.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing physical access controls or monitoring with logical port security, when the question is specifically about an unauthorized device on a network jack.

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