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CCNA Vulnerability Management Questions

40 questions · Vulnerability Management · All types, answers revealed

1
MCQeasy

A security analyst is reviewing a vulnerability scan report and notices a plugin that identifies a critical vulnerability with a CVSS v3.1 base score of 9.8. The CVSS vector string is AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H. Which attack vector is indicated?

A.Network
B.Adjacent network
C.Local
D.Physical
AnswerA

AV:N (Attack Vector: Network) means the vulnerable component is bound to the network stack and the attacker's path to exploit lies through a routable network connection, potentially even across the internet, rather than requiring physical or local access. This is the highest-severity attack vector value because it maximizes the pool of potential attackers, contributing to this vulnerability's near-maximum CVSS base score of 9.8 alongside low complexity and no required privileges or user interaction.

Why this answer

AV:N indicates network attack vector, meaning the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over the network without any physical or local access.

2
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is conducting a vulnerability assessment of a Kubernetes cluster. Which TWO of the following are common misconfigurations that could lead to security risks? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Setting resource limits on containers
B.Configuring network policies to restrict traffic
C.Running containers in privileged mode
D.Using read-only root filesystems
E.Using hostPath mounts
AnswersC, E

Running containers in privileged mode grants them every Linux capability, disables seccomp and AppArmor/SELinux confinement, and exposes all host devices, effectively removing isolation between the container and the host kernel. An attacker who exploits a vulnerability in a privileged container can trivially escalate to full host control, making it one of the most dangerous container misconfigurations. During a vulnerability assessment, this should immediately be flagged as a critical finding.

Why this answer

Privileged containers and hostPath mounts are common Kubernetes misconfigurations that can lead to container breakout and host access.

3
Multi-Selecteasy

A security analyst is selecting tools for vulnerability management. Which THREE of the following are vulnerability scanning tools?

Select 3 answers
A.Lynis
B.Nessus
C.Wireshark
D.Qualys
E.OpenVAS
AnswersB, D, E

Nessus is a commercial vulnerability scanner developed by Tenable that actively scans hosts and network services, comparing software versions and configurations against a comprehensive plugin database of known Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs). It supports credentialed scans, agent-based scanning, and integration with patch management and SIEM platforms, making it a primary tool for continuous vulnerability management. This directly matches the goal of identifying exploitable weaknesses across an enterprise.

Why this answer

Nessus, Qualys, and OpenVAS are well-known vulnerability scanners. Lynis is a security auditing tool for hardening, but not primarily a vulnerability scanner, and Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer.

4
MCQhard

A security analyst is evaluating a vulnerability with CVSS v3.1 base score: AV:L/AC:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:C/C:H/I:N/A:N. Which of the following best describes the scope and impact of this vulnerability?

A.Scope is unchanged, high impact on confidentiality only
B.Scope is changed, high impact on integrity only
C.Scope is unchanged, high impact on confidentiality and integrity
D.Scope is changed, high impact on confidentiality only
AnswerD

This is correct: the vector specifies S:C (Scope Changed) and C:H (high confidentiality impact), while integrity and availability are None (I:N/A:N). A Changed scope means the vulnerability affects resources outside the vulnerable component's security authority, and the only rated impact is disclosure of sensitive information. These values exactly match the analyst's finding.

Why this answer

The scope is Changed (S:C), meaning the vulnerable component impacts resources beyond its security scope. The impact is High on confidentiality (C:H), but none on integrity or availability.

5
Multi-Selecthard

A security analyst is reviewing a containerized application for vulnerabilities. The analyst uses a container image scanner and identifies several issues. Which THREE of the following are common container and Kubernetes misconfigurations that the analyst should prioritize? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Overly permissive RBAC configurations
B.Keeping container images up to date
C.Running containers with the 'privileged' flag
D.Implementing network policies to restrict pod communication
E.Using hostPath mounts
AnswersA, C, E

Excessive permissions in Kubernetes can lead to privilege escalation or unauthorized access.

Why this answer

Privileged containers grant excessive permissions, hostPath mounts allow host filesystem access, and overly permissive RBAC can lead to unauthorized actions. Keeping containers updated is important but not a misconfiguration, and network policies are a best practice.

6
Multi-Selectmedium

A vulnerability management team is prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation. They have a list of vulnerabilities with different characteristics. According to best practices, which TWO factors should be considered when prioritizing vulnerabilities? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.The CVSS base score
B.The asset's criticality to the business
C.The availability of a patch
D.Whether the vulnerability is listed in the CISA KEV catalog
E.The number of open ports on the asset
AnswersB, D

Asset criticality is the correct primary driver for prioritization because it directly captures the potential business impact if confidentiality, integrity, or availability is compromised. A vulnerability on a server that processes financial transactions or contains protected health information poses far greater risk than the same CVE on an internet-facing demo server with no sensitive data. This aligns with risk-based vulnerability management, where risk equals the likelihood of exploitation multiplied by the consequence to the business.

Why this answer

Asset criticality (business context) and the presence of known exploits (e.g., KEV) are key prioritization factors. CVSS base score is a factor but not as dynamic. Patch availability is important but secondary to exploitability and business impact.

7
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is performing a vulnerability assessment and needs to identify potential misconfigurations in a Kubernetes cluster. Which TWO of the following are common Kubernetes misconfigurations that should be checked? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Privileged containers
B.Using network policies
C.hostPath mounts
D.Running containers as non-root user
E.Using ConfigMaps for non-sensitive data
AnswersA, C

Privileged containers run with all Linux capabilities and disable isolation mechanisms such as seccomp, AppArmor, or SELinux, effectively granting the process root-equivalent access to the host kernel and devices. This means a malicious or compromised workload inside the container can directly attempt to escape the container and compromise the underlying node. Thus, enabling privileged mode is a critical misconfiguration that should be avoided in standard deployments.

Why this answer

Privileged containers and hostPath mounts are well-known security risks in Kubernetes. The other options are not typical misconfigurations.

8
Multi-Selecteasy

A security analyst is setting up a vulnerability management program and needs to select tools for container image scanning. Which THREE of the following are commonly used container image scanning tools? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Snyk
B.OpenVAS
C.Burp Suite
D.Clair
E.Trivy
AnswersA, D, E

Snyk provides container scanning and vulnerability management.

Why this answer

Trivy, Clair, and Snyk are well-known container image scanning tools. OpenVAS is a network vulnerability scanner, and Burp Suite is for web application testing.

9
Multi-Selecthard

A security analyst is reviewing the output of a vulnerability scanner that uses CVSS v3.1. The analyst wants to understand the impact metrics. Which THREE of the following are impact metrics in the CVSS v3.1 base score? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Scope (S)
B.Attack Vector (AV)
C.Confidentiality (C)
D.Availability (A)
E.Integrity (I)
AnswersC, D, E

Confidentiality (C) is one of the three core impact metrics in the CVSS base score, assessing the degree of unauthorized information disclosure that results from an exploit. It measures the impact on data privacy, where a rating of High means complete loss of confidentiality, such as exposing sensitive user credentials or protected records. This metric directly reflects the impact on the CIA triad's confidentiality component, making it a valid impact metric.

Why this answer

CVSS v3.1 base score includes three impact metrics: Confidentiality (C), Integrity (I), and Availability (A). Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges Required, etc., are exploitability metrics.

10
Multi-Selecthard

An organization is implementing a patch management process. Which THREE of the following are essential steps that should be included before deploying patches to production systems? (Select the three best answers.)

Select 3 answers
A.Testing patches in a staging environment
B.Reviewing vendor security advisories for patch details
C.Performing regression testing on applications
D.Deploying patches directly to all production systems simultaneously
E.Disabling all security controls to avoid conflicts
AnswersA, B, C

Testing patches in a staging environment replicates the production configuration, including operating system versions, middleware, and sample data, to validate patch behavior and compatibility before any disruption. It allows security and IT teams to detect conflicts, broken dependencies, and performance degradations early, and to develop rollback procedures. This process is foundational to a mature patch management lifecycle because it directly reduces the probability of production outages and security regressions.

Why this answer

Staging environment testing, regression testing, and vendor advisory review are key pre-deployment steps.

11
MCQmedium

A company is implementing a patch management process. Which of the following steps should be performed FIRST after a vendor releases a security patch for a critical vulnerability?

A.Schedule the patch for the next maintenance window
B.Test the patch in a staging environment that mirrors production
C.Deploy the patch to all production servers immediately
D.Create a patch compliance report
AnswerB

Testing the patch in a staging environment that mirrors production is the correct first step because it allows you to verify the patch against the exact operating system versions, applications, and configurations that exist in your live environment. This phase catches compatibility issues, dependency breaks, and security policy conflicts before they reach critical systems. It also lets you validate rollback procedures and measure any performance impact in an isolated setting. Confirming stability in staging builds the evidence needed to support a change management approval and a confident production rollout.

Why this answer

Patches should be tested in a staging environment to ensure they do not break critical business functions before deployment.

12
Multi-Selectmedium

A security team is deploying a new web application and wants to ensure it follows secure configuration practices. Which THREE of the following are recommended configuration settings according to CIS benchmarks for web servers? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Disable directory listing
B.Use HTTP instead of HTTPS
C.Enforce HTTPS
D.Enable automatic directory browsing
E.Remove default accounts
AnswersA, C, E

Disabling directory listing on the web server prevents attackers from enumerating filenames and directory structure when no index file exists. Without this setting, requesting a directory returns a browsable list of all assets, exposing configuration backups, source code, or sensitive data. It is a core hardening step that reduces reconnaissance surface.

Why this answer

Disabling directory listing, removing default accounts, and enforcing HTTPS are common secure configuration practices recommended by CIS benchmarks.

13
Multi-Selecthard

A security analyst is reviewing the results of a web application vulnerability scan and needs to identify the vulnerabilities that are part of the OWASP Top 10 (2021) category 'Injection'. Which THREE of the following vulnerabilities fall under this category? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.SQL injection
B.OS command injection
C.Broken Access Control
D.Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
E.Security Misconfiguration
AnswersA, B, D

SQL injection is an injection flaw that occurs when untrusted data is directly concatenated into SQL queries, allowing attackers to manipulate database logic. For example, an attacker can submit a value like `' OR '1'='1` to bypass authentication or extract sensitive data. This happens because user input is not parameterized or properly sanitized before being sent to the database interpreter.

Why this answer

SQL injection, Cross-Site Scripting (XSS), and OS command injection are all types of injection flaws. XXE is also injection, but it is often listed separately; however, in OWASP Top 10 2021, Injection includes XSS, SQL injection, etc. Broken access control is a separate category.

14
MCQmedium

A security analyst is configuring a container scanning tool to identify vulnerabilities in Docker images before deployment. Which of the following tools is specifically designed for container image vulnerability scanning?

A.Burp Suite
B.Nessus
C.Trivy
D.OpenVAS
AnswerC

Trivy is purpose-built for container scanning.

Why this answer

Trivy is an open-source vulnerability scanner for container images, filesystems, and Git repositories.

15
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is reviewing the output of a vulnerability scan and sees a finding for a web application that uses a known vulnerable version of Apache Struts. Which TWO of the following actions should the analyst prioritize?

Select 2 answers
A.Remove the Apache Struts component entirely
B.Reboot the web server to clear memory
C.Update Apache Struts to the latest patched version
D.Disable the web application until further notice
E.Implement a WAF rule to block known exploit patterns
AnswersC, E

Upgrading Apache Struts to the latest patched version is the primary remediation because it replaces the vulnerable code with a release that includes the security fix for the specific CVE. This action directly addresses the root cause of the flaw and eliminates the attack vector for known exploit patterns. Vendor patches are thoroughly tested and are the most reliable way to restore a secure state.

Why this answer

Updating the component to a patched version is the primary remediation. If a patch is not immediately available, a WAF rule can provide temporary protection.

16
Multi-Selectmedium

A company uses a patch management tool to track compliance across its server fleet. The security team needs to prioritize vulnerabilities for patching. Which THREE factors should be considered when prioritizing?

Select 3 answers
A.EPSS probability score
B.Asset criticality and exposure
C.Availability of a patch from the vendor
D.CVSS base score
E.Number of plugins that detected the vulnerability
AnswersA, B, D

The EPSS probability score is a data-driven metric from FIRST that estimates the likelihood a vulnerability will be exploited in the wild within 30 days. It is derived from real-world exploit data, CVE attributes, and threat intelligence, making it a strong indicator of active exploitation risk. As a correct prioritization input, it helps security teams focus on vulnerabilities that are most likely to be attacked, rather than just those with high theoretical severity. This is a valid and important factor for risk-based prioritization.

Why this answer

CVSS score indicates severity, EPSS estimates exploitation likelihood, and asset criticality reflects business impact. Patch availability is more about remediation capability than prioritization.

17
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is using OpenVAS to scan a network. The scan identifies several vulnerabilities. Which TWO of the following are valid components of a CVSS v3.1 base score? (Select the two correct answers.)

Select 2 answers
A.Exploitability (E)
B.Confidence (C)
C.Remediation Level (RL)
D.Scope (S)
E.Attack Vector (AV)
AnswersD, E

Scope (S) is a correct base metric in CVSS v3.1, measuring whether a vulnerability in one vulnerable component can impact resources beyond its security scope. A changed scope indicates that exploitation may affect other components, increasing the overall severity. OpenVAS includes Scope in the base vector, so it is a valid base metric.

Why this answer

Attack Vector and Scope are both part of the CVSS v3.1 base score.

18
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is prioritizing vulnerabilities for a critical internet-facing application server. The analyst has CVSS scores, EPSS scores, and access to the CISA KEV catalog. Which TWO factors should the analyst consider as the most important for determining remediation priority? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Asset criticality and business context
B.CVSS base score
C.Number of plugins detecting the vulnerability
D.EPSS score
E.CISA Known Exploited Vulnerabilities (KEV) catalog
AnswersA, E

Asset criticality and business context are central to vulnerability prioritization because they determine the potential impact on operations, data confidentiality, and compliance. A critical internet-facing server, for example, represents a higher risk to the organization if compromised, even when the vulnerability's severity is moderate. Contextual factors such as exposure, sensitive data, and required availability turn a generic technical finding into a prioritized business risk.

Why this answer

Asset criticality and business context are crucial because the server is critical and internet-facing. KEV indicates known exploitation, which is also important. However, the question asks for two.

The best two are asset criticality (since it's critical) and known exploitation (KEV). CVSS alone doesn't account for exploitability context.

19
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is prioritizing vulnerabilities discovered during a scan. Which TWO factors should the analyst consider as part of business context to determine remediation priority? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Asset exposure
B.CVSS base score
C.Patch availability
D.Exploit availability
E.Asset criticality
AnswersA, E

Exposure determines the likelihood of attack, considering whether the asset is internet-facing or reachable by potential adversaries. It directly influences the probability of exploitation, making it a fundamental factor in prioritizing vulnerabilities. Without exposure, even a critical vulnerability on an internal system poses less immediate risk. Therefore, asset exposure is the primary determinant for prioritizing remediation efforts.

Why this answer

Asset criticality (how important the asset is to the business) and exposure (whether the asset is internet-facing or accessible to attackers) are key business context factors.

20
MCQmedium

A vulnerability management team is evaluating whether to apply a patch immediately or implement a compensating control. The patch is for a vulnerability in a legacy system that cannot be taken offline during business hours. The compensating control would involve restricting network access to the system. Which decision is MOST appropriate?

A.Ignore the vulnerability since it affects a legacy system
B.Remove the system from the network
C.Implement a compensating control and schedule patching during a maintenance window
D.Apply the patch immediately despite the outage risk
AnswerC

This approach aligns with best-practice vulnerability management by balancing the need for security against operational availability. A compensating control, such as an internal network access control list (ACL) or an updated intrusion prevention system (IPS) signature, reduces the likelihood or impact of exploitation until the patch can be installed during a scheduled maintenance window. This ensures that the system remains functional and that the patch is tested and deployed in a controlled manner, minimizing downtime and the risk of unexpected failures. It is the correct decision because it addresses the vulnerability without disproportionate disruption to the business.

Why this answer

If the system cannot be patched immediately, implementing a compensating control (network restriction) reduces risk while waiting for a maintenance window.

21
MCQeasy

An organization uses CIS Benchmarks to secure its Linux servers. The security team applies Level 1 benchmarks. Which of the following best describes Level 1 CIS benchmarks?

A.Advanced security settings that may reduce functionality
B.Required for all internet-facing systems
C.Basic security configurations with minimal operational impact
D.Only applicable to DoD environments
AnswerC

CIS Level 1 benchmarks are meticulously designed to establish a foundational security posture across various systems without significantly disrupting business operations or demanding extensive resources. These basic security configurations focus on essential hardening steps that are broadly applicable and easy to implement, ensuring a robust security baseline can be achieved with minimal risk of system instability or performance degradation. This approach makes them highly practical for widespread adoption.

Why this answer

CIS Level 1 benchmarks are basic security configurations that cause minimal disruption to business operations. Level 2 is more restrictive and may impact functionality.

22
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is using Burp Suite to test a web application for vulnerabilities. Which TWO of the following are common web application vulnerabilities that can be detected using Burp Suite? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Buffer overflow
B.Insecure deserialization
C.Cross-site scripting (XSS)
D.Race condition
E.SQL injection
AnswersC, E

Cross-site scripting (XSS): XSS is a client-side injection vulnerability where an attacker injects malicious scripts into pages viewed by other users, enabling session hijacking, defacement, or credential theft. Burp Suite is highly effective at detecting XSS because its scanner automatically probes inputs with XSS payloads and its Intercepting Proxy allows manual testing of request/response pairs to confirm sanitization gaps. Since XSS appears in reflected, stored, and DOM-based forms and is pervasive in web applications, it is a classic vulnerability that Burp identifies with high confidence.

Why this answer

Burp Suite can detect SQL injection and XSS through its scanner and manual testing tools. Buffer overflow and race conditions are typically not web application vulnerabilities detected by web proxies. Insecure deserialization can be detected but is less common than SQLi and XSS.

23
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is evaluating a Kubernetes cluster for misconfigurations. Which TWO of the following are common Kubernetes misconfigurations that increase security risk? (Select the two best answers.)

Select 2 answers
A.Running containers as non-root user
B.Using hostPath mounts
C.Using privileged containers
D.Enabling Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
E.Implementing network policies to restrict traffic
AnswersB, C

hostPath mounts allow container access to host filesystem.

Why this answer

Privileged containers and hostPath mounts are known high-risk misconfigurations in Kubernetes.

24
MCQmedium

A company uses a configuration management tool to enforce CIS Benchmarks on its servers. The security team wants to apply Level 1 benchmarks to all servers to achieve a baseline security posture. Which of the following best describes the difference between CIS Level 1 and Level 2 benchmarks?

A.Level 1 benchmarks are for Linux systems, while Level 2 benchmarks are for Windows systems.
B.Level 1 benchmarks are basic security measures that do not impact system performance, while Level 2 benchmarks are more restrictive and may affect performance or usability.
C.Level 1 benchmarks are for servers, while Level 2 benchmarks are for workstations.
D.Level 1 benchmarks are mandatory, while Level 2 benchmarks are optional.
AnswerB

CIS Benchmarks define Level 1 as the core set of security configurations that can be implemented without significantly degrading system functionality or causing incompatibility, making them suitable for most environments. Level 2 extends these settings with more aggressive hardening, such as disabling legacy protocols or tightening file permissions, which may reduce performance, break existing workflows, or require additional operational overhead. This performance-versus-restriction trade-off is the intended distinction.

Why this answer

CIS Level 1 benchmarks are intended to provide a clear security benefit without significantly impacting functionality or performance. Level 2 benchmarks provide more stringent security but may reduce functionality or require additional operational effort.

25
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the BEST description of configuration drift?

A.A planned change to a system's configuration
B.The process of reverting a system to its baseline configuration
C.The gradual deviation of a system's configuration from the intended baseline
D.A vulnerability that is patched and then reappears
AnswerC

Configuration drift is the gradual and often unnoticed deviation of a system's current configuration from its intended, documented baseline. It results from incremental changes such as manual edits, emergency fixes, unpatchable workarounds, or inconsistent patch deployments that accumulate over time without change-control approval. This divergence can lead to security weaknesses, compliance violations, and unpredictable behavior, making it a central concern for configuration management.

Why this answer

Configuration drift refers to the gradual change in system configurations over time, causing deviations from the baseline or security standards.

26
MCQmedium

A vulnerability scanner reports a finding with a CVSS v3.1 base score of 7.5 and vector AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:N/I:N/A:H. What does this indicate about the vulnerability?

A.It has high impact on integrity
B.It requires authentication to exploit
C.It has high impact on confidentiality
D.It has high impact on availability
AnswerD

The A component of the CVSS v3.1 vector is H, which is the Availability Impact metric and indicates that the exploit can cause a total loss of availability, such as a denial of service. Unlike the C and I metrics, which are both N, the A metric is the only one rated high, so this option correctly identifies the finding's high impact on availability.

Why this answer

The vector shows high impact to availability (A:H) and no impact to confidentiality or integrity, so the vulnerability primarily affects availability.

27
Multi-Selecteasy

A security analyst is using a vulnerability scanner to identify missing patches on Windows servers. The scanner uses plugins that reference Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) identifiers. Which THREE of the following are components of a CVSS v3.1 base score vector?

Select 3 answers
A.Attack Vector (AV)
B.Confidentiality (C)
C.Privileges Required (PR)
D.Remediation Level (RL)
E.Exploitability (E)
AnswersA, B, C

Attack Vector (AV) is a base metric that describes the context by which a vulnerability can be exploited, such as network, adjacent, local, or physical. This metric directly influences the CVSS exploitability subscore and is fundamental because it determines the remote vs. local nature of the attack. A network attack vector is typically the most severe because it allows exploitation from anywhere on the internet without prior access.

Why this answer

Attack Vector (AV), Privileges Required (PR), and Confidentiality (C) are all part of the CVSS v3.1 base metric group.

28
MCQhard

A security team discovers a critical vulnerability in a widely used software component. The vulnerability has a CVSS score of 9.0, but there is no known exploit or patch available yet. However, the software vendor has released a workaround. According to the vulnerability management lifecycle, which action should the team prioritize first?

A.Wait for the vendor to release a patch before taking any action
B.Remove the affected component from all systems immediately
C.Increase monitoring of the affected systems but take no other action
D.Apply the workaround as a compensating control
AnswerD

Applying a workaround as a compensating control is the most appropriate immediate action when a critical vulnerability is discovered and a vendor patch is not yet available. A compensating control is an alternative security measure that reduces the risk to an acceptable level until a permanent solution can be implemented. This approach effectively mitigates the immediate threat without causing undue operational disruption, balancing security with business continuity.

Why this answer

Since no patch is available, the team should apply compensating controls to mitigate the risk. Remediation typically involves patching, but if not possible, compensating controls are the next best step.

29
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is implementing security hardening for Kubernetes clusters. Which THREE of the following are common Kubernetes misconfigurations that should be addressed? (Select THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Using namespaces to isolate workloads
B.Implementing network policies
C.Using hostPath mounts without restrictions
D.Running containers in privileged mode
E.Overly permissive RBAC roles
AnswersC, D, E

HostPath mounts allow a pod to mount an arbitrary path from the underlying node's filesystem directly into the container. Without restrictions such as requiring read-only mounts, allowing only specific directories, or disabling hostPath when possible, a compromised container can read or modify sensitive host files, plant malicious executables, or even achieve full node compromise. This is a critical misconfiguration that directly exposes the host and is absolutely a security risk.

Why this answer

Privileged containers, hostPath mounts, and overly permissive RBAC are common Kubernetes security issues. Using namespaces is good practice, not a misconfiguration. Network policies are recommended for segmentation.

30
Multi-Selecthard

A security team is implementing container security scanning in their CI/CD pipeline. They want to scan container images for vulnerabilities and Kubernetes misconfigurations. Which THREE tools from the following list are best suited for this purpose? (Select THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Burp Suite
B.Trivy
C.OpenSCAP
D.Clair
E.Snyk
AnswersB, D, E

Trivy is an open-source, fast, and comprehensive vulnerability scanner designed specifically for container images. It scans both OS packages (e.g., Alpine, Debian) and application dependencies (e.g., Python, Node.js) by comparing against a continuously updated CVE database, and it can be easily embedded into CI/CD pipelines with a simple CLI without requiring a separate server. Its low false-positive rate and support for multiple input formats (e.g., Docker, Podman, OCI) make it the most straightforward and effective choice among these options for the security team's container scanning need.

Why this answer

Trivy, Clair, and Snyk are all container image scanning tools. OpenSCAP is for compliance scanning of hosts, not containers. Burp Suite is a web application DAST tool.

31
Multi-Selecthard

A security analyst is performing an API vulnerability test using OWASP ZAP. The analyst finds several issues. Which THREE of the following are common API vulnerabilities according to OWASP? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Broken Object Level Authorization
B.Excessive Data Exposure
C.SQL Injection
D.Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
E.Broken Authentication
AnswersA, B, E

Broken Object Level Authorization (BOLA) is the most direct and correct answer because it occurs when an API fails to enforce per-object permissions, allowing an attacker to access, modify, or delete another user's data simply by substituting an object ID in an API request. For example, changing 'GET /api/user/123' to 'GET /api/user/456' can expose another user's private information if the server does not verify that the authenticated principal owns the requested object. This flaw is specifically catalogued as API1:2019 in the OWASP API Top 10 and is a primary focus of API penetration testing.

Why this answer

Broken object level authorization, excessive data exposure, and broken authentication are common API vulnerabilities listed in OWASP API Security Top 10.

32
MCQmedium

A vulnerability management team has identified a critical vulnerability with a CVSS score of 9.8. The vulnerability affects a public-facing web server that handles sensitive customer data. The team decides to apply a patch immediately without going through the normal patch testing cycle. What type of patching procedure is this?

A.Rolling patch deployment
B.Patch compliance tracking
C.Emergency patching
D.Standard patch management
AnswerC

Emergency patching is a specialized, expedited process designed to rapidly deploy critical security updates to production systems, often bypassing standard testing and change management protocols due to the severe and immediate risk posed by a newly discovered vulnerability. Its primary objective is to quickly mitigate an active threat or prevent imminent exploitation, prioritizing risk reduction over typical operational considerations like extensive pre-deployment testing or scheduled maintenance windows. This approach is reserved for vulnerabilities deemed critical enough to warrant immediate action.

Why this answer

When a critical vulnerability is actively exploited or poses immediate risk, emergency patching procedures are used to expedite deployment without standard testing.

33
Multi-Selectmedium

A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing the configuration of a Linux server against CIS Benchmarks. The analyst notices that several settings deviate from the recommended baseline. Which TWO of the following are most likely to be considered Level 1 CIS Benchmark recommendations?

Select 2 answers
A.Remove all unnecessary packages and services
B.Enable mandatory access control (SELinux) in enforcing mode
C.Set password expiration to 90 days
D.Disable SSH root login
E.Configure audit rules for file permission changes
AnswersC, D

Setting password expiration to 90 days aligns with CIS Level 1 recommendations because it is a fundamental, low-impact security control that requires minimal configuration via PAM or Group Policy. It directly mitigates risk by limiting the window of opportunity for an attacker who has compromised a credential, ensuring that stolen passwords become invalid within a defined period. This setting rarely breaks applications or user workflows, making it a textbook Level 1 baseline requirement.

Why this answer

CIS Level 1 recommendations are basic security settings that do not cause significant operational impact. Setting password expiration and disabling root SSH login are common Level 1 items.

34
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is performing a web application security assessment and identifies a potential cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerability. The application is critical to business operations. Which TWO of the following are appropriate immediate actions?

Select 2 answers
A.Take the application offline immediately
B.Implement a web application firewall (WAF) rule to block XSS payloads
C.Ignore the finding because XSS is low risk
D.Notify law enforcement immediately
E.Report the vulnerability to the development team for remediation
AnswersB, E

Implementing a web application firewall (WAF) rule (e.g., using the OWASP Core Rule Set) immediately blocks known XSS payloads at the edge, providing a temporary mitigation that reduces exploitability without taking the application offline. The WAF can be tuned to inspect query strings, POST bodies, and headers for attack signatures, allowing the security team to protect users while the development team prepares a permanent patch. This is a standard first-line response for web vulnerabilities, but the WAF rule should be considered a compensating control, not a substitute for secure coding.

Why this answer

Reporting the vulnerability to the development team ensures awareness, and implementing a WAF rule can provide temporary protection while a fix is developed.

35
Multi-Selecthard

A vulnerability management analyst is prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation. The analyst has the following information for three vulnerabilities: CVE-2023-1: CVSS 9.8, EPSS 0.9, asset criticality high; CVE-2023-2: CVSS 7.5, EPSS 0.01, asset criticality low; CVE-2023-3: CVSS 5.0, EPSS 0.8, asset criticality medium. According to best practices, which THREE factors should the analyst consider when prioritizing? (Select THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.CVSS score
B.CVE publication date
C.Asset criticality
D.EPSS score
E.Number of vendors affected
AnswersA, C, D

CVSS is a standardized severity score that synthesizes exploitability characteristics (attack vector, attack complexity, privileges required, user interaction) and impact metrics (confidentiality, integrity, availability) into a 0–10 score. In v3.x, this score provides the critical first filter for triage, allowing an analyst to quickly separate low-severity flaws from those that demand immediate attention. However, it is only a measure of intrinsic severity, not a guarantee of real-world exploitation, so it must be combined with threat likelihood and business impact. As a severity benchmark, it remains the primary initial factor in any prioritization workflow.

Why this answer

Prioritization should consider severity (CVSS), likelihood of exploitation (EPSS), and asset criticality. KEV is not mentioned in the data. Patch complexity and vendor reputation are secondary considerations but not primary factors in this context.

36
MCQeasy

A security analyst is reviewing a vulnerability scan report and sees a critical finding with a CVSS v3.1 base score of 9.8. The vector string is AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H. Which of the following best describes the attack vector component (AV:N)?

A.The attacker can exploit the vulnerability over a network from a remote system
B.The attacker must be on the same physical network segment
C.The attacker requires local access to the target system
D.The attacker must be physically present at the device
AnswerA

In the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS), an Attack Vector of Network (AV:N) means the vulnerability is exploitable from any remote system that can reach the target over a network connection. This includes sending specially crafted IP packets, protocol-specific requests, or application-layer payloads without requiring any prior authentication or local access. The attacker does not need to be co-located on the target's local subnet, merely capable of network connectivity.

Why this answer

AV:N means the vulnerability can be exploited over a network, such as the internet, without requiring physical or local access.

37
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is investigating a reported vulnerability in a web application. The team uses Burp Suite for DAST scanning. Which TWO of the following findings would be classified as injection vulnerabilities according to OWASP Top 10?

Select 2 answers
A.Use of a component with known vulnerabilities
B.Broken access control allowing privilege escalation
C.Stored XSS in the comment section
D.Security misconfiguration exposing directory listing
E.SQL injection in the login form
AnswersC, E

Stored XSS in the comment section is an injection vulnerability because the attacker injects executable client-side script (e.g., JavaScript) that is persisted on the server and later rendered in other users' browsers. Unlike SQL injection, which targets the database layer with structured query language, XSS targets the interpretation context of HTML/JavaScript in the victim's browser. The comment field fails to sanitize or encode user input, enabling script execution that can steal session cookies, deface pages, or perform actions on behalf of the target user.

Why this answer

SQL injection and Stored XSS are both injection flaws. SQL injection is classic injection, and XSS is also a form of injection.

38
Multi-Selecthard

A security analyst is conducting a dynamic application security testing (DAST) scan of a REST API. The scanner reports a potential Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) vulnerability. The analyst needs to confirm the finding manually. Which TWO of the following techniques are most appropriate for validating SSRF?

Select 2 answers
A.Submit a payload that triggers the server to send a request to an attacker-controlled external server (e.g., Burp Collaborator)
B.Craft a request that causes the server to make a request to an internal IP address (e.g., 127.0.0.1) and observe the response
C.Inject malicious SQL queries into input fields to see if they are executed
D.Attempt to upload a malicious file to the server
E.Modify HTTP headers to test for cross-site scripting
AnswersA, B

An out-of-band (OAST) SSRF test uses an external callback server like Burp Collaborator to detect when the application fetches an attacker-specified URL. If a DNS lookup or HTTP hit is received, it proves the server-side component is making the request as the victim, even when the response body is not reflected to the tester. This technique is essential for blind SSRF, where the application processes the response internally without echoing it back. It also confirms the vulnerability independently of any firewall or filtering on the inbound path.

Why this answer

SSRF can be confirmed by making requests to internal resources (e.g., localhost) and observing responses, or by using an external collaborator service to detect out-of-band callbacks.

39
MCQmedium

A security analyst reviews a Nessus scan result for a web server. The plugin output indicates a critical vulnerability with CVSS v3.1 base score 9.8. The CVSS vector is AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H. Which of the following best describes the attack complexity?

A.Low
B.Critical
C.Medium
D.High
AnswerA

The CVSS vector string 'AC:L' explicitly denotes a Low Attack Complexity. This means that a successful attack does not require specialized conditions beyond the attacker's control, nor does it demand extensive preparation or specific timing. Attackers can typically exploit such vulnerabilities with readily available techniques and resources, making the attack relatively straightforward and increasing its likelihood.

Why this answer

In the CVSS vector, AC:L means Attack Complexity is Low, indicating no special conditions are required for exploitation.

40
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation. Which THREE factors from the CISA Known Exploited Vulnerabilities (KEV) catalog should the analyst consider? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.EPSS probability score
B.Date the vulnerability was added to the catalog
C.CVSS base score
D.Vulnerability name or CVE ID
E.Affected vendor or product
AnswersB, D, E

The KEV catalog includes a 'Date Added' field that records when a vulnerability was first identified as known exploited, allowing security teams to prioritize based on how recent and relevant the active exploitation is. This date is crucial because newer entries often warrant immediate attention, as attackers may be actively leveraging them. In contrast to CVSS or EPSS scores, this date is a distinct component of the KEV record itself, making it the right field when consulting the catalog for prioritization.

Why this answer

The KEV catalog lists vulnerabilities known to be exploited in the wild, including the date added, vendor name, and a brief description.

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