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CCNA Security Operations Questions

29 questions · Security Operations · All types, answers revealed

1
MCQeasy

An analyst is using AWS GuardDuty and sees a finding that an EC2 instance is communicating with a known command-and-control (C2) IP address. What type of alert is this?

A.CASB alert investigation
B.Vulnerability scan result
C.Cloud audit log analysis
D.Threat intelligence finding
AnswerD

AWS GuardDuty actively leverages continuously updated threat intelligence feeds, including lists of known malicious IP addresses, domains, and attack signatures, to identify suspicious activity. When an EC2 instance communicates with an IP address or domain identified as a known command and control (C2) server by these feeds, GuardDuty generates a finding, indicating a high probability of compromise and C2 communication.

Why this answer

GuardDuty detects threats based on known malicious IPs, so communication with a C2 IP is a security finding indicating a potential compromise.

2
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is tuning a SIEM rule that generates alerts for every failed login attempt. The rule is causing alert fatigue. Which TWO actions would reduce false positives while maintaining security visibility?

Select 2 answers
A.Aggregate alerts by source IP and time window
B.Disable the rule entirely
C.Whitelist IP addresses of internal services that generate repeated failed logins
D.Increase the alert severity threshold
E.Increase the log retention period
AnswersA, C

Aggregating alerts by source IP and time window groups multiple failed login attempts into a single, consolidated alert, effectively suppressing repetitive notifications while still preserving detection of brute-force or credential-stuffing activity. This correlation technique condenses dozens or hundreds of individual events into one actionable incident, reducing analyst alert fatigue and allowing the security team to focus on the actual attack pattern rather than being overwhelmed by event-level noise.

Why this answer

Aggregating alerts by source IP reduces noise from individual attempts. Whitelisting known service accounts performing repeated failed logins (due to misconfigured services) also reduces false positives.

3
MCQmedium

During a network traffic analysis, a security analyst observes repeated connections from an internal host to a known malicious IP on port 4444. The payload appears to be encrypted. Which type of activity is most likely indicated?

A.Port scanning activity
B.Command and control beaconing
C.Data exfiltration via DNS tunnelling
D.Lateral movement using SMB
AnswerB

Command and control (C2) beaconing involves an infected host periodically initiating outbound connections to a C2 server, often on a non-standard port like 4444, to check for new commands or upload data. These connections are typically regular, repetitive, and consistent in their destination and port, fitting the description of repeated connections to a single IP on port 4444. This behavior establishes a persistent communication channel for remote control of the compromised system.

Why this answer

Repeated connections to a known malicious IP on a non-standard port with encrypted payloads strongly suggest command and control (C2) beaconing.

4
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is creating a YARA rule to detect a specific malware strain that uses a unique string in its code section and has a characteristic import table. The analyst wants to minimize false positives. Which THREE YARA rule elements should the analyst include?

Select 3 answers
A.File size condition
B.PE import table condition
C.Hash condition
D.String condition containing the unique string
E.Module condition (e.g., pe)
AnswersA, B, D

A file size condition in YARA, such as `filesize < 300KB`, is a fast, cheap filter that eliminates unrelated files before more expensive scanning takes place. Since many malware families produce samples with a consistent size range, imposing a size bound helps the rule avoid flagging innocuous files that happen to share other attributes. This increases precision and reduces the false-positive rate.

Why this answer

Including file size limits, a specific string, and the import table condition reduces false positives by narrowing the scope.

5
Multi-Selectmedium

A SOC analyst is triaging a SIEM alert that indicates a possible DNS tunneling attack. The alert was generated based on a correlation rule that looks for unusually high DNS query volume from a single host. Which TWO additional data sources should the analyst correlate to confirm the attack?

Select 2 answers
A.Firewall logs
B.Endpoint registry logs
C.DNS server logs
D.Authentication logs
E.NetFlow/IPFIX
AnswersC, E

DNS server logs are the primary source for detecting DNS tunneling because they contain the queried domain name, client IP, timestamp, record type (e.g., A, TXT, CNAME), and response size. Tunneling often manifests as base64-encoded subdomains, unusually long FQDNs, or high volumes of TXT/ANY queries with large response payloads—all visible directly in these logs. Correlating such patterns across multiple queries to the same domain from a single internal host provides strong, specific evidence of tunneling.

Why this answer

DNS logs can show query patterns and payload sizes. NetFlow can show data transfer volumes. Both help confirm tunneling.

6
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is reviewing a CASB alert indicating a user is accessing a cloud storage application from an unusual location. The analyst needs to investigate further. Which TWO actions are most appropriate?

Select 2 answers
A.Review the cloud application's audit logs for file access or sharing events
B.Disable the user's account immediately
C.Reset the user's password without further analysis
D.Check the user's recent authentication logs for successful logins
E.Block all access to the cloud application from that location
AnswersA, D

Cloud application audit logs (e.g., Microsoft 365's Unified Audit Log or Google Workspace's Admin Log) provide a tamper-evident record of every file access, download, share, and permission change linked to a user or session. By correlating the CASB alert's timestamp, source IP, and geolocation with these logs, the analyst can determine definitively whether sensitive files were opened, downloaded, or shared externally. This evidence-first approach confirms or refutes exfiltration and helps scope the incident without causing business disruption.

Why this answer

Checking the user's recent authentication logs can confirm if the access was legitimate. Reviewing the cloud application's audit logs can provide details on the activities performed. The other options are less relevant or too broad.

7
MCQmedium

During a threat hunting exercise, an analyst creates a hypothesis that a threat actor may be using scheduled tasks for persistence. Which Windows registry key or log source should the analyst examine to confirm the hypothesis?

A.Check the Run registry keys (HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run)
B.Review the Windows Security Event Log for event ID 4698 (scheduled task creation)
C.Examine the System event log for driver loading events
D.Analyze the application event log for error messages
AnswerB

Reviewing the Windows Security Event Log for event ID 4698 is the most direct and effective method to detect the creation of new scheduled tasks. This specific event ID explicitly logs when a scheduled task is registered on the system, providing crucial forensic evidence of a potential persistence mechanism established by an attacker. Analyzing these logs allows analysts to identify the task name, creator, and associated command, which are vital details for incident response.

Why this answer

Scheduled tasks are stored in the Windows Task Scheduler and can be viewed via schtasks.exe, but the registry also contains persistence mechanisms. However, scheduled tasks are not primarily stored in the registry; they are in %SystemRoot%\Tasks. Alternatively, the analyst can use the Task Scheduler API.

But among the options, examining the 'HKLM\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows NT\CurrentVersion\Schedule' is not standard. Actually, the correct answer is to examine the Task Scheduler logs or the tasks folder. However, the question specifies registry key or log source.

The best answer is to review the Windows Security Event Log for event ID 4698 (scheduled task creation).

8
Multi-Selecthard

A threat hunter is using Velociraptor to search for signs of lateral movement across multiple endpoints. The hunter wants to identify instances where a user logged into multiple systems using the same credentials within a short time frame. Which THREE artifacts should the hunter collect from each endpoint?

Select 3 answers
A.Network connections (netstat)
B.Windows Event Logs for WMI activity
C.File system for malicious executables
D.Registry hives for persistence
E.Security Event Logs (logon events)
AnswersA, B, E

Active network connections enumerated via netstat are a primary indicator of remote access tools (RATs) and command-and-control communications, which often accompany lateral movement. The artifact lists both listening and established connections, allowing the hunter to correlate suspicious external IPs and ports with the specific process IDs that own them. In Velociraptor, this yields immediate, direct evidence of an attacker's current or recent remote access session.

Why this answer

Security Event Logs (Event ID 4624) show logon sessions, network connections show remote access, and WMI Activity logs can indicate lateral movement via WMI.

9
Multi-Selecthard

A threat hunter is analyzing network traffic and observes a system making outbound connections to multiple IP addresses on port 53 (DNS) with unusually large payload sizes. The hunter suspects DNS tunneling. Which THREE characteristics are indicative of DNS tunneling?

Select 3 answers
A.Large DNS payload sizes
B.DNS responses with NXDOMAIN for most queries
C.Non-standard record types such as TXT or NULL
D.High frequency of DNS queries to a single domain
E.Use of standard A record queries
AnswersA, C, D

Large DNS payload sizes are a classic indicator of tunneling because standard DNS queries and responses are deliberately small—classic UDP DNS is limited to 512 bytes without EDNS0, and even with EDNS0 typical resolvers rarely see TXT records exceeding a few hundred bytes. Tunneled traffic (via TXT or NULL records) packs encoded data into the payload, causing individual DNS messages to balloon in size and break from the statistical norm. This size anomaly is often detected when the maximum payload length or the distribution of payload sizes for a domain appears abnormal.

Why this answer

DNS tunneling often involves large payloads, high query volume to a single domain, and non-standard record types to encode data.

10
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a persistence mechanism that involves modifying the Windows Registry to execute a program when a user logs in?

A.Scheduled Task
B.Run key
C.Service
D.Startup folder
AnswerB

The "Run" and "RunOnce" Registry keys are classic and highly effective persistence mechanisms. Entries added to `HKLM\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run` or `HKCU\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run` instruct Windows to automatically launch specified programs or scripts every time a user logs on. This direct Registry modification ensures the malicious payload executes without requiring user interaction, making it a prime target for attackers seeking to maintain access.

Why this answer

The 'Run' registry key is commonly used to launch programs automatically at user logon, making it a persistence mechanism.

11
Multi-Selecthard

During a threat hunt, an analyst uses Velociraptor to collect forensic artifacts from endpoints. Which THREE of the following artifacts are most useful for detecting persistence mechanisms?

Select 3 answers
A.List of installed updates
B.Scheduled tasks
C.ARP cache
D.Service configuration
E.Registry Run keys
AnswersB, D, E

Scheduled tasks are a native Windows mechanism that can trigger a binary or script when a user logs on, at system startup, or at regular intervals. Attackers routinely create named or hidden tasks to rerun malware or maintain command-and-control, and these tasks survive a reboot (unless disabled). Because the task description, action, triggers, and run-as user are all stored in the Task Scheduler database, examining it with Velociraptor can reveal suspicious persistence. This makes scheduled tasks an essential artifact in any threat hunt.

Why this answer

Scheduled tasks, registry Run keys, and service configurations are common persistence locations monitored by attackers.

12
Multi-Selectmedium

A threat hunter is reviewing endpoint telemetry and sees a process 'svchost.exe' spawning 'cmd.exe', which then executes 'reg.exe add' to create a Run key. The hunter suspects persistence. Which TWO artifacts should the hunter examine to confirm persistence?

Select 2 answers
A.Registry Run keys
B.Windows Event Logs for service creation
C.Browser history
D.Scheduled tasks
E.Network connections
AnswersA, D

The registry Run key (HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run) is a classic autostart persistence mechanism; a command using reg.exe to add a value there explicitly indicates the attacker intends to execute a payload at user logon. Inspecting this key for the malicious entry is the highest-priority action because the observed telemetry directly aligns with this persistence method, and the associated binary path or command can be identified and remediated. This is not merely incidental—the command's purpose is to modify this specific key.

Why this answer

Run keys are stored in the registry, and scheduled tasks can also be created via command line. Examining these confirms persistence.

13
Multi-Selecteasy

A SOC team is evaluating cloud-native security monitoring tools. Which TWO of the following are AWS services specifically designed for threat detection and security monitoring?

Select 2 answers
A.AWS Lambda
B.AWS CloudTrail
C.AWS GuardDuty
D.AWS Security Hub
E.AWS VPC Flow Logs
AnswersC, D

GuardDuty is a managed threat detection service that continuously monitors for malicious or unauthorized behavior using machine learning, anomaly detection, and integrated threat intelligence. It ingests and analyzes VPC Flow Logs, DNS logs, and CloudTrail management events to identify threats like compromised EC2 instances, port scanning, or crypto mining. GuardDuty generates findings that a SOC can investigate, making it a core cloud-native security monitoring tool.

Why this answer

AWS GuardDuty is a threat detection service, and Security Hub aggregates security findings. Other services like CloudTrail are for logging, not primarily detection.

14
Multi-Selectmedium

An analyst is creating a detection rule for lateral movement using SMB. Which two network indicators should be included in the rule? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Repeated failed logins to multiple hosts
B.High volume of DNS queries
C.SMB traffic between workstations
D.SMB traffic to administrative shares (e.g., IPC$)
E.Unusual outbound connections on port 443
AnswersC, D

SMB traffic between workstations is a strong lateral movement indicator because in a well-managed environment, peer-to-peer file sharing or remote administration between endpoints is uncommon; most SMB flows are client-to-server (e.g., accessing a domain controller or file server). Attackers commonly use tools like PsExec or WMIC that create SMB connections from one compromised workstation to another to copy malicious payloads, execute remote services, or access shared resources, making this traffic a precise behavioral signature for lateral spread.

Why this answer

Lateral movement over SMB often involves file writes to admin shares (IPC$) and unusual SMB traffic patterns.

15
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is configuring a vulnerability scanner for an internal network. Which two settings are most important for reducing false positives during the scan? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Disabling unnecessary plug-ins
B.Enabling credentialed scanning
C.Using a higher scan intensity
D.Scanning from multiple IP addresses
E.Scanning only during business hours
AnswersA, B

Disabling unnecessary plug-ins prevents the scanner from running checks that are not relevant to the environment, such as Windows-specific tests against Linux hosts. Each plug-in produces findings, and if it probes for software or services that are absent, it can generate false positives based on erroneous banner matches. By tailoring the active plug-in set to the actual asset inventory and exposed services, the analyst reduces meaningless alerts and focuses the scan on likely vulnerabilities. This is a core tuning step that directly reduces false positives while preserving comprehensive coverage.

Why this answer

Credentialed scans access system details for accurate results, and appropriate plug-in selection reduces irrelevant checks.

16
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is investigating a potential data exfiltration using DNS. Which TWO indicators are most consistent with DNS tunneling?

Select 2 answers
A.Frequent NXDOMAIN responses
B.DNS responses with unusually large payload sizes
C.Unusually high volume of DNS queries to a single domain
D.Queries for domains with unusual top-level domains (e.g., .tk)
E.Multiple queries from different hosts to the same legitimate domain
AnswersB, C

Normal DNS responses are typically small, often under 512 bytes when using traditional UDP limits. During DNS tunneling, attackers encode exfiltrated data into TXT records or other response fields, causing responses to be several kilobytes or larger. Such unusually large payloads are a direct and strong indicator that DNS is being used to transfer unauthorized data, making this the correct sign of data exfiltration.

Why this answer

DNS tunneling often uses high query volume and large response sizes to encode data. Unusual TLDs are less common; frequent NXDOMAIN may indicate DGA, not tunneling.

17
Multi-Selecthard

During a memory forensics investigation, a security analyst identifies a process that appears to have code injected into it. The process is 'explorer.exe' and its memory contains sections that are not part of the original executable. Which TWO memory analysis techniques should the analyst use to confirm code injection?

Select 2 answers
A.List the process's open handles
B.Examine the process's environment variables
C.Check the process's parent process
D.Scan for executable memory pages not backed by a file on disk
E.Compare the loaded DLL list with known good baselines
AnswersD, E

A definitive sign of code injection is the presence of an executable memory region that is not backed by an on-disk file. Malicious shellcode is often allocated with VirtualAllocEx and written via WriteProcessMemory, producing a private, executable page that does not map to any section object. Memory forensics tools like Volatility's malfind enumerate the Virtual Address Descriptor (VAD) tree to identify such executable pages without a backing file, making this technique a core method for detecting fileless injection.

Why this answer

Comparing the process's loaded DLL list with the expected list can reveal anomalies. Checking for executable memory pages that are not backed by a known module is another indicator.

18
MCQmedium

A cloud security analyst is investigating an alert from AWS GuardDuty that indicates an EC2 instance is communicating with a known malicious IP address. The instance is part of an auto-scaling group. What is the best immediate action?

A.Isolate the instance by modifying its security group to deny all traffic.
B.Terminate the instance immediately to stop the threat.
C.Ignore the alert because auto-scaling groups are ephemeral.
D.Update the GuardDuty threat list to ignore that IP.
AnswerA

Modifying the instance's security group to deny all inbound and outbound traffic effectively isolates it from the network. This containment strategy immediately stops any ongoing malicious activity from spreading or exfiltrating data, while crucially preserving the instance's current state, memory, and disk for subsequent forensic analysis. This allows security analysts to investigate the root cause, understand the attack vector, and gather evidence without destroying critical information.

Why this answer

Isolating the instance by removing it from the security group or using a quarantine VPC prevents further communication while preserving forensic data.

19
Multi-Selecthard

A security analyst is using osquery to hunt for persistence mechanisms on a Windows endpoint. Which THREE Windows artifacts should the analyst query to identify common persistence locations? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Scheduled tasks in the Task Scheduler
B.Windows Event Logs for login events
C.Network connections from the endpoint
D.Registry key: HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run
E.Services listed in the Service Control Manager
AnswersA, D, E

Scheduled tasks allow the operating system to launch specified commands or executables on triggers such as system startup, user logon, or defined intervals. Attackers frequently create scheduled tasks that re-download or re-execute malicious payloads, and these tasks persist across reboots by being stored in the Task Scheduler database. Osquery can enumerate them through the scheduled_tasks table, revealing the task name, path, and schedule, which helps identify malicious creations with autorun capabilities.

Why this answer

Registry Run keys (T1547.001), scheduled tasks (T1053.005), and services (T1543.003) are common persistence mechanisms. Startup folders are also common but are not listed as a separate option here; the three listed are correct.

20
Multi-Selectmedium

During a cloud security investigation, a security analyst notices unusual API calls from a compromised IAM user in AWS. The analyst wants to determine the scope of the breach and identify affected resources. Which TWO cloud-native services should the analyst use?

Select 2 answers
A.AWS Shield
B.AWS CloudTrail
C.AWS WAF
D.AWS Config
E.Amazon GuardDuty
AnswersB, E

AWS CloudTrail is the native governance, compliance, and audit service that records every API call made within an AWS account. It captures essential details such as the identity of the requester, source IP address, request parameters, and response elements, enabling a comprehensive history of user and service activity. For a security analyst investigating unusual API actions, CloudTrail is the primary source of truth because it delivers the complete, tamper-evident audit log required to trace who did what and when.

Why this answer

AWS CloudTrail records API activity, and GuardDuty provides threat detection. Both are native services for investigation.

21
MCQmedium

An analyst is creating a YARA rule to detect a specific malware family that uses the string 'evil' in its PE file. Which of the following rule structures is correct?

A.rule detect_malware { strings: $a = "evil" condition: $a }
B.rule detect_malware { strings: "evil" condition: $a }
C.rule detect_malware { condition: $a = "evil" }
D.if "evil" in file then alert
AnswerA

This is the correct YARA rule syntax. It defines a rule named detect_malware, declares a string identifier $a assigned to the literal byte sequence "evil" inside the strings section, and then uses that identifier as the condition. The condition $a evaluates to true if the string 'evil' is found anywhere in the scanned file. YARA requires a dollar-sign prefix for string identifiers, an equals sign to bind the literal value, and a condition that references the identifier without quotes or further assignment. This rule compiles and will trigger a match when the file contains the specified string.

Why this answer

The standard YARA rule structure includes rule name, meta section, strings section, and condition section. The condition must reference the string.

22
Multi-Selecthard

A security analyst is investigating a potential advanced persistent threat (APT) that uses living off the land binaries (LOLBins). The EDR has flagged several processes. Which THREE process behaviors are most indicative of LOLBin abuse? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.mshta.exe executing JavaScript from a remote URL
B.explorer.exe opening the Start menu
C.notepad.exe opening a .txt file in the user's Documents folder
D.wmic.exe creating a process on a remote system
E.certutil.exe downloading an executable from a remote server
AnswersA, D, E

mshta.exe is a Microsoft HTML Application host that runs .hta files containing VBScript or JavaScript. When invoked with a remote URL, it executes attacker-supplied script directly from the internet, bypassing many application control policies and acting as a living-off-the-land binary (LOLBin). This behavior is highly suspicious because legitimate mshta execution is typically local and user-initiated, not a network fetch of script code.

Why this answer

LOLBin abuse often involves using native tools in unusual ways: wmic for remote execution, mshta for executing malicious scripts, and certutil for downloading payloads. Bitsadmin is also used, but it's less common.

23
Multi-Selectmedium

During a threat hunt, an analyst is looking for signs of lateral movement using pass-the-hash. Which three of the following log sources would be most useful for detecting this technique?

Select 3 answers
A.DNS query logs
B.Sysmon Event ID 3 (network connection)
C.Domain controller authentication logs
D.Sysmon Event ID 1 (process creation)
E.Windows Security Event Log (Event ID 4624)
AnswersB, C, E

Sysmon Event ID 3 is the correct choice because it records every inbound and outbound TCP/UDP connection with source/destination IP and port, giving a direct network trace of lateral movement. In pass-the-hash, an attacker typically connects from one compromised host to many others on SMB port 445 (or RPC ports) to access admin shares and execute remote code; a single host rapidly spamming connections to many distinct internal IPs on port 445 is a strong indicator. Additionally, Event 3 includes the initiating process, so an analyst can link a suspicious process like a Mimikatz-injected one directly to the anomalous traffic.

Why this answer

Pass-the-hash involves using NTLM hashes to authenticate. Windows Event ID 4624 (successful logon) can show logon type 3 (network) with unusual source IPs. Sysmon Event ID 3 (network connection) can show outbound connections.

Authentication logs on domain controllers show NTLM authentication attempts.

24
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is creating a Sigma rule to detect use of the LOLBin 'certutil' for downloading payloads. Which THREE command-line arguments should the rule look for to indicate malicious use?

Select 3 answers
A.-urlcache
B.-split
C.-encode
D.-decode
E.-verify
AnswersA, B, D

Used to download files from a URL.

Why this answer

Certutil can be abused to download files using the '-urlcache' and '-split' arguments (or '-f' for force). The combination of '-urlcache' with a URL and output file is typical for downloading malicious payloads. '-verify' is legitimate, '-encode' and '-decode' are used for encoding/decoding, but '-urlcache' and '-split' are key for download.

25
Multi-Selecthard

An analyst is investigating a potential data exfiltration incident. The analyst observes repeated HTTPS connections to a cloud storage provider from a server that does not normally use that service. Which three additional artifacts would strengthen the case for exfiltration?

Select 3 answers
A.The data transfer volume is significantly higher than normal for that server
B.The connections are occurring during non-business hours
C.The connections are made to a known malicious IP
D.The connections occur during business hours only
E.The server is using a non-standard port for HTTPS (e.g., 8080)
AnswersA, B, E

A sudden or sustained increase in outbound data volume compared to the server's rolling baseline is one of the strongest indicators of exfiltration. Attackers often stage, compress, and encrypt data before bulk transfer to avoid detection, which typically manifests as an anomalous spike in bytes sent from the server. This signal is only meaningful when juxtaposed with the server's historical traffic patterns, so without baselining, a high volume could be dismissed as routine maintenance or backup activity.

Why this answer

Large outbound data volume, connections outside business hours, and use of non-standard ports (e.g., 443 for https but custom port for tunneling) are classic exfiltration indicators.

26
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is reviewing network traffic and suspects a host is infected with malware that uses a domain generation algorithm (DGA) for C2 communication. Which two of the following indicators are most consistent with DGA activity?

Select 2 answers
A.All DNS queries are to internal DNS servers
B.Frequent DNS queries to domains with random-looking, long subdomains
C.DNS queries to domains with a high Alexa ranking
D.High volume of DNS queries resulting in NXDOMAIN responses
E.Consistent DNS query intervals to a single IP
AnswersB, D

Frequent queries to domains with random-looking, long subdomains are a hallmark of Domain Generation Algorithms (DGAs). Malware uses DGAs to generate pseudorandom domain names as rendezvous points with command-and-control (C2) servers, often producing long, alphanumeric subdomains that appear nonsensical. The high query rate to such domains is a strong indicator of compromise because legitimate users rarely make repeated queries to random subdomains.

Why this answer

DGA domains are often algorithmically generated, resulting in random-looking, long domain names. High NXDOMAIN rates occur because many generated domains are not registered at the time of query.

27
Multi-Selecthard

A threat hunter is using osquery to look for persistence mechanisms on a set of Windows endpoints. Which THREE registry keys or scheduled tasks should the hunter check for common persistence?

Select 3 answers
A.HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\AppInit_DLLs
B.User's Startup folder
C.HKLM\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Services
D.HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run
E.Scheduled tasks in Task Scheduler
AnswersC, D, E

Services are a high-value persistence target because they can be set to AUTO_START, allowing an adversary to execute payloads with SYSTEM privileges at boot, before any user logs on. The osquery services table exposes fields such as name, path, start_type, and status, making it easy for hunters to spot anomalies like a non-standard executable path or a suspicious service name. Because services run independently of user sessions, survive reboots, and often run with the highest integrity level, they are one of the strongest and most frequently abused persistence techniques.

Why this answer

Run keys, scheduled tasks, and services are common persistence locations. Startup folder is also common, but osquery can check Run keys directly. AppInit_DLLs is less common.

28
Multi-Selecteasy

An analyst is configuring correlation rules in a SIEM. Which TWO data sources are essential for detecting lateral movement using pass-the-hash attacks?

Select 2 answers
A.Firewall logs
B.Authentication logs (e.g., Windows Event ID 4624)
C.DNS logs
D.Endpoint process creation logs (e.g., Event ID 4688)
E.Vulnerability scan results
AnswersB, D

Authentication logs, specifically Windows Event ID 4624, are central to detecting pass-the-hash because they record successful and failed logon events, including the logon type, authentication package (e.g., NTLM), source workstation, and target account. In a PtH attack, an attacker uses an NTLM hash as if it were a password; the logon event will typically show a network logon (Type 3) using NTLM, often from a non-domain host or in conjunction with suspicious source IP addresses. Correlating these 4624 events with known user activity patterns can reveal an attacker authenticating with a hash from an unauthorized source.

Why this answer

Pass-the-hash involves using NTLM hashes to authenticate. Authentication logs show logon events, and endpoint logs show process creation (e.g., wmic, psexec). Firewall logs may show network connections but are not specific to PtH.

29
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is tuning a SIEM rule that generates alerts for any failed login attempt. The rule produces too many alerts, overwhelming the team. Which TWO actions would most effectively reduce false positives while maintaining detection of actual brute-force attacks?

Select 2 answers
A.Exclude failed logins from known service accounts
B.Disable the rule entirely
C.Increase the alert severity to critical for all failed logins
D.Add a correlation rule to trigger on successful login after multiple failures
E.Require a minimum threshold of 5 failed attempts from the same source IP within 10 minutes before alerting
AnswersA, E

Service accounts frequently generate legitimate failed-login noise from scheduled password rotations, expired credentials in automation scripts, or misconfigured connection strings, none of which represent an attacker probing for access. Suppressing these known, expected sources removes a large share of benign alert volume without weakening detection against genuine unauthorized login attempts from unexpected accounts or sources.

Why this answer

Aggregating alerts by source IP reduces noise; excluding known service accounts eliminates expected failures.

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