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CCNA Incident Response and Management Questions

32 questions · Incident Response and Management · All types, answers revealed

1
MCQmedium

When performing digital forensics, which of the following represents the correct order of volatility from most volatile to least volatile?

A.RAM, CPU registers, disk, swap, logs, archived media
B.Swap, RAM, CPU registers, disk, logs, archived media
C.Archived media, logs, disk, swap, RAM, CPU registers
D.CPU registers, RAM, swap, disk, logs, archived media
AnswerD

This is the standard order of volatility used in digital forensics, ranking evidence by how quickly it is lost. CPU registers are the most volatile, holding the CPU's current working values and disappearing in nanoseconds; RAM follows, losing all data when power is removed; swap is a disk-backed file that may persist but is overwritten and purged; then disk, logs (which are written regularly but more durable), and finally archived media, which is deliberately preserved and least volatile. Following this order ensures the most fragile evidence is collected first.

Why this answer

The order of volatility dictates that evidence should be collected from most volatile to least volatile to avoid losing transient data. CPU registers are the most volatile, followed by RAM, swap, disk, logs, and archived media.

2
Multi-Selectmedium

After a phishing incident, the security team wants to improve detection of similar attacks in the future. Which THREE actions should the team take as part of post-incident activity? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Disabling user accounts that clicked the phishing link
B.Updating email filtering rules and detection signatures
C.Sharing indicators of compromise with other organizations via a threat intelligence platform
D.Conducting a lessons learned meeting to identify process improvements
E.Reimaging all affected workstations
AnswersB, C, D

Updating email filtering rules and detection signatures is a direct, preventive improvement that uses indicators from the phishing campaign (such as sender domain, subject line patterns, and payload hashes) to enhance the email security gateway. This action hardens the environment against similar attacks by proactively blocking malicious emails before they reach users. It is a classic post-incident activity because it closes the specific vulnerability that allowed the phishing email to be delivered, reducing the likelihood of recurrence.

Why this answer

Post-incident activities include updating detection rules, sharing IOCs, and conducting lessons learned to improve processes. Reimaging is recovery, and disabling accounts is containment.

3
Multi-Selecteasy

During a post-incident review, a security analyst identifies that the mean time to detect (MTTD) for incidents is significantly higher than the industry benchmark. Which THREE actions should the analyst recommend to improve detection capabilities?

Select 3 answers
A.Implement additional network monitoring sensors.
B.Enhance SIEM correlation rules based on current threat intelligence.
C.Subscribe to threat intelligence feeds to enrich alerts.
D.Increase the frequency of vulnerability scans.
E.Reduce the retention period for logs.
AnswersA, B, C

Deploying additional network monitoring sensors at segmentation boundaries and critical ingress/egress points eliminates the blind spots that allowed this incident to go undetected. These sensors capture full packet data, NetFlow metadata, or IDS/IPS alerts, enabling analysts to detect lateral movement and command-and-control activity that passive host-based tools might miss. This is a direct corrective action to improve visibility and reduce time-to-detection for future attacks.

Why this answer

Updating detection rules, integrating threat intelligence, and improving monitoring coverage directly reduce detection time.

4
Multi-Selecthard

During a forensic investigation, an analyst must acquire digital evidence while maintaining forensic soundness. Which THREE practices should the analyst follow? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Use the suspect's operating system to copy files
B.Power on the system to capture volatile data first
C.Verify the hash of the image against the original
D.Use a write blocker when imaging the hard drive
E.Document every action taken during the acquisition
AnswersC, D, E

Verifying the hash of the acquired image against the original evidence is a critical step because it provides cryptographic proof that the image is an exact bit-for-bit replica. Using algorithms like SHA-256, any change to even a single bit in the image produces a completely different hash, so the match confirms no data was altered during acquisition. This verification is recorded and matched against the hash of the original, establishing the integrity and authenticity of the evidence for the chain of custody and courtroom admissibility.

Why this answer

Write blockers prevent modification, hash verification ensures integrity, and proper documentation maintains chain of custody.

5
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is responding to a potential data exfiltration incident. As part of the containment strategy, the analyst must preserve evidence. Which TWO actions should the analyst take before containment? (Select two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Capture a forensic image of the affected systems
B.Change passwords for affected accounts
C.Disconnect the system from the network
D.Record current active network connections
E.Kill malicious processes
AnswersA, D

Capturing a forensic image of affected systems is the correct first step because it creates a bit-for-bit copy of the storage media while preserving file slack, unallocated space, and metadata. Using a hardware write-blocker and cryptographic hashing ensures the evidence remains intact and tamper-proof for later analysis. This action is essential for identifying how the data exfiltration occurred, which files were accessed, and what remnants remain, all without altering the original source.

Why this answer

Forensic imaging of the affected systems captures the state before containment actions alter it. Recording current network connections captures volatile evidence that may be lost when the system is isolated.

6
Multi-Selecthard

A CSIRT is investigating a ransomware incident that encrypted files on multiple servers. The team needs to determine the initial infection vector. Which THREE pieces of evidence should the team prioritize collecting? (Select three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Email gateway logs for the week prior to the incident
B.Endpoint detection and response (EDR) logs from affected servers
C.Network traffic logs from the perimeter firewall
D.Physical access logs to the data center
E.Firewall configuration backups
AnswersA, B, C

Email gateway logs are the primary source for identifying phishing payloads because ransomware often arrives via malicious attachments or embedded URLs. These logs capture sender metadata, subject lines, message IDs, and any verdicts (e.g., quarantined, spam, clean), so reviewing the week prior to the incident lets investigators trace the exact message that delivered the initial dropper and recover the full email thread for IoC extraction.

Why this answer

Email logs can reveal phishing attachments or links. Endpoint logs may show process execution or downloads. Network logs can identify C2 communication or lateral movement.

These three together help trace the initial entry.

7
Multi-Selecthard

During a forensic investigation, an analyst needs to acquire disk images from multiple suspect drives. Which THREE practices ensure forensic soundness? (Select THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Documenting the chain of custody for each drive
B.Using the fastest available imaging method without verification
C.Computing and verifying hashes (e.g., SHA-256) of the original and the image
D.Using a hardware write blocker to prevent writes to the source drive
E.Acquiring the image while the system is running (live acquisition)
AnswersA, C, D

Chain of custody documentation is critical because it creates a verifiable, chronological record of every person who handled the evidence, along with the time, purpose, and condition of each transfer. In a forensic investigation, this paper trail ensures legal admissibility; if the chain is unbroken, the court can trust that the evidence has not been tampered with or substituted. Without proper documentation, even a technically perfect disk image could be ruled inadmissible, undermining the entire investigation.

Why this answer

Forensic soundness requires maintaining evidence integrity. Using a verified write blocker prevents alteration. Hashing the original and copy ensures integrity.

Documenting the chain of custody maintains accountability.

8
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is investigating a potential data breach. The analyst needs to collect digital evidence while preserving its integrity. Which TWO actions should the analyst take? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Run a full antivirus scan on the system.
B.Delete any malicious files found during the investigation.
C.Verify the hash of the acquired image against the original.
D.Use a write blocker when imaging the hard drive.
E.Connect the suspect drive to a forensic workstation without a write blocker.
AnswersC, D

Computing a one-way cryptographic hash (such as SHA-256) of the original drive before acquisition and of the forensic image after, then comparing the two digests, is the definitive test that the image is a bit-for-bit clone with no changes introduced during capture. A matching hash validates the image for court admissibility and provides a baseline for later re-verification as part of the chain of custody.

Why this answer

Write blockers prevent modification of the original media during acquisition, and hash verification ensures the integrity of the acquired image by comparing hashes.

9
Multi-Selecteasy

An organization's incident response team is classifying an incident based on severity and priority. Which TWO factors should the team consider when determining the priority of an incident? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.The number of users reporting the issue.
B.The potential business impact of the incident.
C.The criticality of the affected systems or data.
D.The time of day the incident occurred.
E.The type of threat actor involved.
AnswersB, C

The potential business impact of an incident drives its priority because the goal of incident management is to minimize harm to the organization. Impact includes financial loss, operational disruption, regulatory fines, reputational damage, and customer trust. A high-impact incident, such as a ransomware attack on a core revenue system, necessitates immediate escalation regardless of other factors.

Why this answer

Priority is often based on the criticality of the affected assets and the potential business impact, as these determine how quickly the incident needs to be addressed.

10
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the FIRST step in the NIST SP 800-61 incident response lifecycle?

A.Detection and Analysis
B.Post-Incident Activity
C.Preparation
D.Containment, Eradication, and Recovery
AnswerC

Preparation is the first phase in the NIST SP 800-61 incident response lifecycle, and it occurs before any incident actually happens. It entails building an incident response team, establishing communication plans, deploying necessary tooling (such as SIEM and EDR), creating playbooks, and conducting training and tabletop exercises. Without this pre-emptive groundwork, downstream phases like detection and analysis lack the required procedures and resources, making Preparation the non-negotiable starting point.

Why this answer

The NIST SP 800-61 lifecycle begins with Preparation, which includes establishing policies, tools, and training before an incident occurs.

11
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is investigating a potential malware infection on a Windows workstation. The analyst needs to collect evidence while preserving the order of volatility. Which TWO pieces of data should the analyst collect FIRST? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.System event logs
B.Contents of the hard drive
C.Registry hives
D.Contents of RAM
E.Running processes and network connections
AnswersD, E

RAM is the most volatile data source because it holds running code, decrypted data, cached credentials, and the current state of the operating system. This information disappears the instant the system loses power or is rebooted, so capturing a memory dump is the highest-priority step. Without it, analysts lose the only copy of in-memory malware behavior and live artifacts.

Why this answer

According to the order of volatility, the most volatile data should be collected first. CPU registers and cache are at the top of the order, followed by routing table, ARP cache, process table, kernel statistics, and then memory. However, among the options, running processes (memory) and network connections are among the most volatile.

Typically, memory (RAM) is collected before disk data.

12
Multi-Selecthard

A security analyst is investigating a potential data exfiltration incident. The analyst captures memory from a Windows system and finds a process that is injecting code into other processes. Which THREE indicators from the memory analysis would MOST strongly suggest malicious activity? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.The process has memory regions with RWX permissions.
B.The process is hidden from the task manager.
C.The process is making calls to WriteProcessMemory and CreateRemoteThread.
D.The process name is a known Windows system process.
E.The process has a valid digital signature.
AnswersA, B, C

RWX (read-write-execute) memory pages in a process are a high-confidence indicator of injected shellcode because modern operating systems enforce W^X (write XOR execute) policies; legitimate code typically resides in read-only executable regions or uses explicit VirtualProtect transitions. While some Just-In-Time (JIT) engines may briefly allocate RWX, persistent regions outside known JIT heaps warrant immediate investigation.

Why this answer

Suspicious memory regions (like RWX), unusual API calls (e.g., WriteProcessMemory), and hidden processes are strong indicators of malware or code injection.

13
Multi-Selectmedium

An incident response team is conducting post-incident activities after a ransomware attack. The team wants to improve detection and response for future incidents. Which TWO actions are most appropriate for updating detection rules? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Conduct a tabletop exercise for the incident response team.
B.Increase the frequency of vulnerability scans.
C.Create YARA rules to identify the ransomware file hashes and patterns.
D.Share IOCs with external threat intelligence platforms.
E.Update the SIEM correlation rules to detect the TTPs observed.
AnswersC, E

YARA rules are highly effective for endpoint detection of a known ransomware strain because they can match on multiple characteristics beyond simple hashes—such as unique strings, mutex names, byte patterns, PE section anomalies, and file metadata. By creating a rule that evaluates file content and structure, the team can identify the malicious payload regardless of filename or hash mutation (e.g., hash-busting variants), enabling rapid triage on forensic images and live systems. This directly addresses the immediate need to recognize the specific ransomware artifacts that were observed during the incident.

Why this answer

Updating SIEM correlation rules based on the attack TTPs and creating YARA rules for the ransomware family will enhance detection of similar threats.

14
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is performing incident response for a suspected malware outbreak. Which TWO actions are examples of long-term containment? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Apply security patches to all systems
B.Isolate the affected network segment
C.Disable compromised user accounts
D.Block malicious IPs at the firewall
E.Rebuild compromised systems from known good media
AnswersA, E

Patching is the definitive root-cause remediation because it closes the precise vulnerability (e.g., an unpatched remote code execution flaw in an internet-facing service) that the attacker exploited for initial access. Unlike containment actions, it eliminates the possibility of the same attack vector being reused, even after cleanup or rebuilding. Without applying the patch, any other remediation leaves the underlying weakness exposed, allowing rapid reinfection.

Why this answer

Long-term containment includes actions that permanently remediate the threat, such as patching vulnerabilities and rebuilding systems. Isolating the network is short-term.

15
Multi-Selectmedium

During dynamic analysis of a suspicious file in a sandbox environment, which THREE behaviors are considered indicators of compromise (IOCs) that suggest malicious activity? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Creating a registry run key to achieve persistence.
B.Outbound network connections to a known malicious IP.
C.The file reading its own content.
D.Dropping an executable file in the startup folder.
E.Opening a text file that was already present.
AnswersA, B, D

A registry Run key (e.g., HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run) is an autostart extension point that launches a specified executable at user logon. Malware frequently adds entries here to achieve persistence, ensuring the malicious code runs on every subsequent login. Sandbox analysis treats this as high-risk because legitimate programs rarely modify such keys during a single execution, especially with randomly named or masqueraded values.

Why this answer

Dynamic analysis monitors behavior. Outbound connections to known bad IPs, creation of suspicious registry keys, and dropping files in startup folders are common malicious behaviors.

16
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is investigating a phishing incident that resulted in credential theft. Which TWO actions should the analyst take as part of short-term containment? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Block the phishing domain at the email gateway
B.Rebuild the affected workstations from a clean image
C.Conduct a full vulnerability scan of the network
D.Change all user passwords in the domain
E.Disable the compromised user accounts
AnswersA, E

Blocking the phishing domain at the email gateway is immediate containment because it prevents subsequent emails carrying the same malicious payload from reaching other recipients, thereby reducing the number of users exposed to the lure. This email gateway control is fast, reversible, and can also block outbound traffic if needed, but it does not remediate credentials that have already been stolen.

Why this answer

Short-term containment aims to stop the immediate threat. Disabling accounts and blocking malicious domains are quick containment actions.

17
MCQeasy

During the preparation phase of the NIST SP 800-61 incident response lifecycle, which of the following is the MOST important activity to ensure effective incident response?

A.Using YARA rules to detect malware in the environment
B.Implementing network segmentation to limit lateral movement
C.Conducting a root cause analysis after each incident
D.Creating and training the incident response team
AnswerD

This is a core preparation activity that ensures the team is ready to respond.

Why this answer

Preparation includes creating and training the incident response team, acquiring tools, and establishing procedures. A well-trained team is critical to executing the response effectively.

18
MCQhard

During a forensic investigation, an analyst needs to acquire volatile memory from a compromised Linux server running a critical application. The server cannot be powered off. Which tool should the analyst use to capture memory with the least impact on the system?

A.LiME
B.avml
C.WinPmem
D.dd
AnswerA

LiME is designed for Linux memory acquisition and minimizes interference with the running system.

Why this answer

LiME (Linux Memory Extractor) is a loadable kernel module that captures memory with minimal footprint, suitable for live acquisition on Linux systems.

19
Multi-Selecthard

During a forensic investigation, an analyst must preserve evidence in accordance with forensic sound procedures. Which THREE of the following practices should the analyst follow? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Run a full antivirus scan on the target drive
B.Document all actions taken in a chain of custody form
C.Use a write blocker when imaging a hard drive
D.Create a cryptographic hash of the original media before imaging
E.Boot the system to ensure it is operational
AnswersB, C, D

Maintaining a complete chain of custody form is essential because it documents every interaction with the evidence — who collected it, when, where, and how it was handled, transferred, and secured. In court, opposing counsel will attack a gap in this record as evidence tampering or mishandling. A continuous, written log of all actions taken during acquisition and analysis preserves the integrity narrative and is what makes the forensic evidence legally admissible.

Why this answer

Forensic sound procedures include using write blockers to prevent alteration, verifying integrity with hashes, and documenting the chain of custody. Running a live scan would alter data.

20
MCQhard

A security analyst is performing dynamic malware analysis using a sandbox. The analyst observes that the malware creates a scheduled task that executes a PowerShell command to download a payload from a remote server. Which of the following behavioral IOCs should be prioritized for detection?

A.The domain name of the remote server
B.The hash of the initial malware sample
C.The IP address of the remote server
D.The creation of a scheduled task
AnswerD

The creation of a scheduled task is a strong behavioral Indicator of Compromise (IOC) because it represents a common and critical persistence mechanism for malware. This action leaves distinct and observable artifacts within the operating system, such as registry entries or file system changes, which are consistent across different malware variants and environments. Detecting this behavior provides a robust and enduring method for identifying compromise.

Why this answer

The scheduled task creation is a persistent mechanism that can be detected via monitoring for new scheduled tasks.

21
MCQmedium

During the detection and analysis phase of incident response, a security analyst identifies suspicious outbound traffic from a finance workstation to a known malicious IP address at 2:00 AM. The analyst checks the firewall logs and sees a single connection. Which action should the analyst take FIRST according to NIST SP 800-61?

A.Validate the incident by reviewing additional data sources.
B.Run a full antivirus scan on the workstation.
C.Isolate the workstation from the network immediately.
D.Notify law enforcement per the incident response plan.
AnswerA

Validating the incident is the crucial initial step in the detection and analysis phase. This involves corroborating the initial alert by reviewing additional data sources such as logs from firewalls, intrusion detection systems, endpoint detection and response (EDR) tools, and network flow data. This process helps to confirm if the alert represents a true security incident, thereby minimizing false positives and preventing the premature allocation of valuable incident response resources to non-threats.

Why this answer

NIST SP 800-61 emphasizes that during detection and analysis, the first step is to validate the incident as a true positive before escalating or containing. The analyst should confirm the alert is not a false positive by gathering additional evidence.

22
MCQmedium

A security analyst is triaging an alert indicating that a user's workstation has been infected with ransomware. The file server shows signs of encryption. The analyst needs to contain the incident. Which action should the analyst take FIRST to minimize damage?

A.Running a full antivirus scan on the workstation
B.Disabling the user's Active Directory account
C.Rebuilding the workstation from a known good image
D.Disconnecting the workstation from the network
AnswerD

Disconnecting the workstation from the network is the most immediate and effective short-term containment action for an active ransomware infection. This action physically isolates the compromised system, preventing the ransomware from communicating with command-and-control servers, exfiltrating data, or attempting to spread laterally to other network resources, shares, or systems. It buys critical time for incident responders to analyze the threat and plan further remediation steps without risking wider network compromise, thus limiting the overall impact of the incident.

Why this answer

Disconnecting the infected workstation from the network stops the ransomware from spreading to other systems via network shares.

23
MCQmedium

An incident responder is called to a server room where a critical database server is exhibiting signs of compromise. The responder must preserve evidence while preventing further damage. Which of the following is a short-term containment strategy that also preserves evidence?

A.Reboot the server into safe mode.
B.Disconnect the network cable from the server.
C.Power off the server to freeze the system state.
D.Run a memory dump with WinPmem before any action.
AnswerB

Disconnecting the network cable immediately isolates the compromised server from the network, preventing further malicious activity such as data exfiltration, lateral movement, or command-and-control communication. This crucial containment step preserves the current volatile system state for subsequent forensic acquisition without introducing significant changes, allowing for a more accurate investigation.

Why this answer

Disconnecting the network cable (Option B) is the correct short-term containment strategy because it immediately isolates the compromised database server from the network, preventing further lateral movement or data exfiltration, while preserving the volatile system state (memory, running processes, open network connections) for forensic analysis. This action stops active network-based attacks without altering the contents of RAM or disk, which is critical for evidence integrity.

Exam trap

In the CompTIA CySA+ exam, the trap is that candidates may select Option C (power off) thinking it 'freezes' the state, but this destroys volatile evidence and does not contain the incident if the attacker has remote access. Option D (memory dump) is a forensic step, not containment. Option A (reboot) modifies the system.

Only Option B isolates while preserving volatile data.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because rebooting into safe mode will overwrite volatile memory (RAM) and modify system logs, destroying critical forensic evidence such as active network connections, running malware processes, and encryption keys. Option C is wrong because powering off the server causes a hard shutdown that erases all volatile memory data and may trigger anti-forensic mechanisms (e.g., self-deleting scripts), losing the most time-sensitive evidence. Option D is wrong because running a memory dump with WinPmem before any containment action is a forensic acquisition step, not a containment strategy; it takes time and does not stop ongoing damage or network-based attacks.

24
Multi-Selecteasy

A security analyst is reviewing IOCs from a threat intelligence feed. The analyst wants to enrich the IOCs using open-source tools. Which THREE tools are commonly used for IOC enrichment? (Select three.)

Select 3 answers
A.WHOIS
B.Wireshark
C.VirusTotal
D.Shodan
E.Nmap
AnswersA, C, D

WHOIS queries domain registration databases, returning registrar, registrant contact, creation and expiration dates, and nameserver records. For an IOC like a known malicious domain, WHOIS enables analysts to pivot on registration metadata, identify shared infrastructure, or detect typosquatting and recently registered domains. It is a read-only lookup service, not a traffic analysis tool, making it a first-line passive enrichment source.

Why this answer

VirusTotal provides file and URL reputation. Shodan gives information about exposed services. WHOIS reveals domain registration details.

These are standard enrichment sources.

25
Multi-Selectmedium

An incident responder is performing containment of a ransomware incident that has encrypted files on several file servers. Which THREE actions are appropriate for long-term containment and recovery? (Select THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Blocking the ransomware's command-and-control IP at the firewall
B.Patching the vulnerability exploited by the ransomware
C.Rebuilding affected servers from known-good backups
D.Rotating all service account credentials
E.Isolating the affected network segment
AnswersB, C, D

Patching the specific vulnerability that the ransomware exploited is a definitive eradication measure because it closes the door at the root cause, preventing both the current strain and any similar variations from re-entering through the same path. This step, derived from the incident's root cause analysis, is essential for protecting not only the affected hosts but also all other unpatched systems in the environment. Without this patch, even after rebuilding or credential rotation, the same hole remains, leaving the network vulnerable to immediate reinfection.

Why this answer

Long-term containment aims to prevent recurrence and restore normal operations. Rebuilding systems from clean backups ensures removal of malware. Rotating credentials prevents attacker re-entry.

Patching vulnerabilities closes the initial attack vector.

26
Multi-Selectmedium

A company has experienced a ransomware attack that encrypted critical servers. The incident response team is in the containment, eradication, and recovery phase. Which THREE actions are part of long-term containment? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Apply security patches to vulnerable systems
B.Rotate all privileged account credentials
C.Isolate the infected systems from the network
D.Block the ransomware's C2 domain at the firewall
E.Rebuild affected servers from clean backups
AnswersA, B, E

Apply security patches to vulnerable systems is the definitive root-cause remediation for a ransomware outbreak. If the initial infection exploited a known software flaw, patching closes the exact vulnerability the attacker used, preventing the same binary from reinfecting hosts after cleanup. This action breaks the kill chain at the exploitation stage and is mandatory before restored systems are placed back on the production network. Without patching, any unpatched host still exposed to the same entry vector will likely be re-encrypted within hours.

Why this answer

Long-term containment involves actions to prevent recurrence, such as patching, rebuilding systems, and rotating credentials.

27
Multi-Selecthard

A security analyst is investigating a potential insider threat where a user is suspected of exfiltrating sensitive data via USB drives. The analyst needs to gather evidence while preserving the chain of custody. Which THREE actions should the analyst perform? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Creating a forensic image of the USB drive using a write blocker
B.Disabling the user's network account immediately
C.Interviewing the user about their activities
D.Documenting the chain of custody for the USB drive
E.Computing a hash of the original USB drive and the forensic image
AnswersA, D, E

This captures the drive data without alteration.

Why this answer

Forensic sound procedures include imaging the drive, hashing to verify integrity, and documenting the chain of custody. Disabling the account is containment, and interviewing is not part of evidence collection.

28
Multi-Selecteasy

An incident response team is conducting post-incident activities after containing a malware outbreak. Which TWO activities should be included in the lessons learned phase? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Deleting all logs from the incident.
B.Conducting a root cause analysis.
C.Rewriting the organization's security policy from scratch.
D.Updating detection rules based on IOCs.
E.Patching all systems immediately.
AnswersB, D

Conducting a root cause analysis is the central activity of the lessons-learned phase, as it systematically identifies the underlying human, technical, or procedural factors that allowed the incident. Using structured methods like "5 Whys" or fault tree analysis, the team traces the chain of events back to initial conditions, distinguishing the immediate trigger from the deeper vulnerabilities or gaps. This analysis drives targeted remediation—such as revised hardening standards or additional training—so that similar incidents are less likely to recur.

Why this answer

Lessons learned involves analyzing the incident to improve future response. Updating detection rules based on IOCs and conducting a root cause analysis are key activities.

29
Multi-Selecteasy

An incident response team is analyzing indicators of compromise (IOCs) from a phishing campaign. Which THREE of the following are commonly used IOC types? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.CPU registers
B.IP addresses
C.Domain names
D.Software version numbers
E.File hashes
AnswersB, C, E

IP addresses are fundamental network-level IOCs because they denote the source or destination of malicious traffic observed in logs, packet captures, or DNS queries. When an infection communicates with a command-and-control (C2) node or an attacker launches a brute-force attack, that IP address becomes a repeatable, searchable value in firewall logs, SIEM alerts, and threat feeds. Sharing an IP address allows other organizations to block the endpoint, but note that IPs can change quickly, making them a time-sensitive indicator.

Why this answer

Common IOC types include IP addresses, file hashes, domains, URLs, and email indicators. Software versions are not typically IOCs.

30
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is performing forensic analysis of a compromised system. The analyst needs to acquire disk evidence in a forensically sound manner. Which TWO actions should the analyst take to ensure the integrity of the evidence? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Calculate a hash of the original drive before imaging
B.Disable the write blocker to speed up the imaging process
C.Use a write blocker when connecting the source drive
D.Power on the system and run a full antivirus scan before imaging
E.Reboot the system to clear any temporary files
AnswersA, C

Computing a cryptographic hash (e.g., SHA-256) of the original drive before imaging establishes a baseline integrity value. This baseline lets the examiner later hash the acquired image and confirm it is bit-for-bit identical to the source, proving the imaging process did not alter or omit data. Recording the hash in chain-of-custody documentation also provides legal defensibility.

Why this answer

Using a write blocker prevents alteration of the original disk, and computing a hash verifies that the acquired image is an exact copy.

31
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is experiencing a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack targeting its web servers. The incident response team is implementing containment strategies. Which TWO actions are appropriate for short-term containment of a DDoS attack? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Rerouting traffic through a DDoS mitigation service or scrubbing center
B.Disabling the accounts of the attackers
C.Applying a security patch to the web server software
D.Rebuilding the web servers from clean images
E.Blocking the attacking IP addresses at the firewall
AnswersA, E

Rerouting traffic through a DDoS mitigation service or scrubbing center is the most effective response because these services employ specialized filtering, rate limiting, and behavioral analysis to distinguish legitimate user requests from malicious traffic, forwarding only clean traffic to the origin. This approach is well-suited for both volumetric floods and application-layer attacks, and it can be activated quickly by updating DNS or BGP to redirect traffic.

Why this answer

Short-term containment for DDoS includes blocking attack traffic at the network perimeter and diverting traffic via a scrubbing center. Patching servers does not stop the attack, and rebuilding is recovery.

32
MCQmedium

An organization uses MISP (Malware Information Sharing Platform) to share threat intelligence with trusted partners. Which of the following standards is commonly used by MISP to structure and exchange threat intelligence data?

A.NetFlow
B.SNMP
C.STIX/TAXII
D.Syslog
AnswerC

STIX and TAXII are open standards for threat intelligence sharing, widely used in MISP.

Why this answer

STIX (Structured Threat Information Expression) and TAXII (Trusted Automated Exchange of Indicator Information) are standards for exchanging cyber threat intelligence. MISP supports STIX and TAXII for sharing.

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