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CCNA Governance Risk Compliance And Security Questions

43 questions · Governance Risk Compliance And Security topic · All types, answers revealed

1
MCQmedium

A company is conducting a risk assessment and needs to determine the impact of a potential cloud service provider outage. Which document provides the provider's commitment to uptime?

A.Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) report
B.Service Level Agreement (SLA)
C.Acceptable Use Policy
D.Privacy Policy
AnswerB

The SLA is the binding contract regarding service performance and uptime.

Why this answer

The Service Level Agreement (SLA) defines the expected service availability and compensation for downtime.

2
MCQhard

A security engineer is setting up a Web Application Firewall (WAF) to protect a public-facing application. Which feature is most effective against common SQL injection attacks?

A.Rate Limiting
B.IP Blacklisting
C.SQL Injection Managed Rule Set
D.Geo-blocking
AnswerC

Managed rule sets contain updated patterns to detect and block SQL injection.

Why this answer

WAFs use specific rules or managed rule sets to inspect web traffic and filter out malicious SQL injection patterns.

3
MCQeasy

Which cloud computing concept best describes the ability to add and remove resources based on traffic demands to maintain performance?

A.Multi-tenancy
B.Elasticity
C.High Availability
D.Scalability
AnswerB

Elasticity allows for dynamic adjustment of capacity based on current load.

Why this answer

Elasticity is the defining characteristic of cloud computing that allows scaling based on demand.

4
MCQeasy

An auditor requests evidence that an organization is managing cloud risks. Which document should the IT team provide as the primary evidence of risk mitigation strategies?

A.Risk Register
B.Cloud Service Level Agreement (SLA)
C.System Security Plan (SSP)
D.Network Topology Diagram
AnswerA

The Risk Register is the standard governance tool for tracking and managing risk.

Why this answer

The Risk Register is the formal document where identified risks, their impact, and mitigation strategies are documented.

5
MCQmedium

To ensure that no single administrator has full control over the environment, which security practice should be implemented?

A.Encryption at rest
B.Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
C.Password Complexity Policy
D.Separation of Duties
AnswerD

This ensures critical administrative functions are split across different roles.

Why this answer

Separation of duties ensures that critical tasks are divided between multiple people to prevent fraud or error.

6
MCQmedium

To meet compliance requirements, a firm must store log files for seven years in a read-only state. Which storage configuration provides this level of immutability?

A.S3 Object Lock in Compliance Mode
B.S3 Intelligent Tiering
C.S3 Standard Storage Class
D.S3 Cross-Region Replication
AnswerA

Compliance mode prevents any user, including root, from deleting the object until the retention period expires.

Why this answer

Object locking or WORM (Write Once Read Many) policies are designed for regulatory compliance in storage.

7
MCQmedium

A security analyst notices unauthorized changes to cloud infrastructure. Which service should be analyzed to identify which IAM user made the changes?

A.AWS IAM Access Analyzer
B.AWS CloudWatch
C.AWS CloudTrail
D.AWS Security Hub
AnswerC

CloudTrail logs every API request made in the AWS account.

Why this answer

CloudTrail captures API logs, providing a trail of who performed which action in the account.

8
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are effective methods for mitigating risks associated with cloud adoption?

Select 3 answers
A.Performing periodic penetration tests
B.Reducing the number of cloud regions used
C.Using only one cloud provider
D.Implementing automated compliance monitoring
E.Requiring multi-factor authentication for all users
AnswersA, D, E

Testing identifies vulnerabilities before attackers do.

Why this answer

Risk mitigation includes regular audits, automated security controls, and strict identity management.

9
MCQhard

After a security incident, it is discovered that a S3 bucket was publicly accessible. Which feature should be used to prevent this from happening in the future?

A.Access Control Lists (ACLs)
B.S3 Block Public Access
C.IAM User Policies
D.Bucket Policy
AnswerB

This feature provides a centralized control to prevent public access regardless of individual bucket policies.

Why this answer

S3 Block Public Access is a setting that overrides bucket-level permissions to prevent public exposure.

10
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are cloud security best practices?

Select 3 answers
A.Automating security configuration audits
B.Storing passwords in plain text files
C.Granting 'Full Access' to all developers
D.Enforcing the principle of least privilege
E.Encrypting all sensitive data at rest
AnswersA, D, E

Continuous audit is necessary in dynamic environments.

Why this answer

Best practices include least privilege, automation, and continuous monitoring of the environment.

11
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are characteristics of a 'Defense in Depth' security strategy?

Select 3 answers
A.Multiple layers of security controls
B.Relying on a single firewall for all protection
C.Focusing only on the network perimeter
D.Using different types of controls (physical, technical, administrative)
E.Implementing security at the application, network, and data levels
AnswersA, D, E

This is the core definition of defense in depth.

Why this answer

Defense in depth uses multiple overlapping layers of security so that if one fails, others provide protection.

12
MCQhard

An organization is subject to GDPR and needs to ensure that personal data stored in an Azure SQL Database is protected against unauthorized access. Which feature should be enabled to identify potential vulnerabilities and anomalies?

A.Azure Information Protection
B.Azure AD Conditional Access
C.Azure Firewall
D.Azure SQL Advanced Data Security
AnswerD

This feature includes vulnerability assessments and threat detection specific to database security.

Why this answer

Azure SQL Advanced Data Security provides vulnerability assessment and advanced threat protection, essential for GDPR compliance.

13
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following scenarios represent a breach of the Shared Responsibility Model?

Select 2 answers
A.Provider has a data center power outage
B.Customer leaves a database port open to the public
C.Customer fails to rotate IAM access keys
D.Customer deploys code in a private VPC
E.Provider fails to patch their physical hardware firmware
AnswersB, C

Firewall configuration is the customer's responsibility.

Why this answer

Shared responsibility requires the customer to manage what is in their control; failing to do so creates security gaps.

14
MCQhard

An enterprise is deploying a hybrid cloud model and must ensure that data moving between the on-premises data center and the cloud provider is encrypted. Which mechanism is most appropriate?

A.VPC Peering
B.IGW (Internet Gateway)
C.Direct Connect
D.Site-to-Site VPN
AnswerD

Site-to-Site VPN creates an encrypted IPsec tunnel for secure hybrid traffic.

Why this answer

A VPN tunnel provides an encrypted connection over the public internet, essential for hybrid connectivity security.

15
MCQhard

A firm must perform a third-party security audit. What type of document should they obtain from the cloud provider to prove compliance with ISO 27001?

A.Annual Financial Report
B.SOC 2 / ISO Certification Report
C.Network Infrastructure Diagram
D.Service Level Agreement
AnswerB

These independent audit reports provide validation of the provider's security controls.

Why this answer

A SOC 2 report or an ISO certification document provided by the cloud provider is the standard for proving compliance to auditors.

16
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are essential components of a Cloud Security Policy?

Select 2 answers
A.Cloud provider marketing strategy
B.Hardware procurement schedule
C.Data classification scheme
D.Network cable standards
E.Access management requirements
AnswersC, E

Defining data sensitivity is foundational to security policy.

Why this answer

Security policies must define both authorized access and the classification of data being protected.

17
MCQeasy

When following the Shared Responsibility Model, which security aspect is the customer's responsibility in an IaaS environment?

A.Hypervisor security
B.Physical security of the data center
C.Host OS patching
D.Guest OS patching
AnswerD

The customer is responsible for patching the OS they deploy.

Why this answer

In IaaS, the customer manages the guest OS, applications, and security group configurations.

18
MCQhard

To comply with data sovereignty laws, a database must remain within a specific country's borders. Which architectural strategy ensures this?

A.Content Delivery Network (CDN)
B.Global Accelerator
C.Regional Resource Placement
D.VPC Peering
AnswerC

Ensuring resources are only deployed in regions within the specific country satisfies sovereignty requirements.

Why this answer

Selecting the appropriate cloud region ensures that data remains within the physical infrastructure of a specific legal jurisdiction.

19
MCQmedium

An administrator needs to ensure that only authorized traffic enters a private subnet. Which network component should be configured as a first line of defense?

B.Security Group
C.Network ACL
D.Route Table
AnswerC

ACLs provide subnet-level traffic control.

Why this answer

Network ACLs act as a subnet-level firewall, providing the first layer of security for traffic entering or leaving a subnet.

20
MCQhard

An administrator needs to implement a centralized logging solution for multiple cloud accounts. Which service allows for aggregating security logs into a single security account?

A.AWS CloudTrail in individual accounts
B.AWS Transit Gateway
C.AWS Systems Manager OpsCenter
D.AWS Security Hub with Cross-Account Aggregation
AnswerD

Security Hub can aggregate findings from multiple accounts into a central location.

Why this answer

AWS Organizations and log shipping (using CloudWatch Logs or S3) allow for centralizing security data for auditing.

21
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are valid reasons for establishing a Cloud Center of Excellence (CCoE)?

Select 3 answers
A.Hiring software developers
B.Managing local desktop hardware
C.Centralizing security and governance
D.Standardizing cloud adoption patterns
E.Fostering cross-departmental collaboration
AnswersC, D, E

CCoE ensures consistency in security policy.

Why this answer

A CCoE helps standardize cloud best practices, fosters cross-team communication, and manages risk centrally.

22
MCQmedium

A cloud architect needs to ensure that all cloud resources are tagged with an 'Owner' and 'Environment' tag for governance. Which service helps automate the detection and remediation of non-compliant resources?

A.AWS CloudWatch
B.AWS Trusted Advisor
C.AWS Config
D.AWS Systems Manager
AnswerC

Config Rules can be set to flag resources missing specific tags.

Why this answer

AWS Config provides rules to check for tags and can trigger automation to remediate non-compliance.

23
MCQeasy

When a data breach occurs in a cloud environment, who is responsible for notifying the regulatory authorities?

A.The local ISP
B.The cloud customer
C.The cloud provider
D.The software vendor
AnswerB

The customer is the data controller and is legally liable.

Why this answer

The customer is generally the Data Controller and holds the legal responsibility for data breach notifications, even if the cloud provider is the data processor.

24
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are common benefits of adopting a Cloud Governance framework?

Select 3 answers
A.Consistent risk management
B.Lower hardware maintenance costs
C.Better alignment with business goals
D.Increased cloud deployment speed
E.Improved auditability and compliance
AnswersA, C, E

Frameworks standardize how risks are identified and mitigated.

Why this answer

Governance frameworks improve accountability, compliance, and risk management across cloud operations.

25
MCQeasy

A project manager is reviewing cloud resource usage to ensure compliance with a budget governance policy. Which cloud service dashboard provides the most direct view of current resource costs and budget alerts?

A.AWS Cost Explorer
B.AWS Trusted Advisor
C.AWS CloudTrail
D.AWS Config
AnswerA

Cost Explorer allows for detailed visualization and budget monitoring.

Why this answer

Cloud providers use budget services to track spending and send notifications when limits are approached.

26
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following tools or methods are used to secure data in transit in the cloud?

Select 3 answers
A.TLS 1.2/1.3
B.Direct Connect with MACsec
C.Server-side encryption at rest
D.User access logs
E.VPN Tunnels (IPsec)
AnswersA, B, E

Industry standard for transport layer encryption.

Why this answer

Data in transit is secured using encryption protocols (TLS/SSL) and private networking methods (VPN/Direct Connect).

27
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are key responsibilities of a Cloud Governance Committee?

Select 2 answers
A.Installing OS patches
B.Managing individual virtual machine performance
C.Establishing security and compliance standards
D.Writing application source code
E.Defining cloud investment policies
AnswersC, E

Governance establishes the rules for security and compliance.

Why this answer

The committee manages the strategic alignment of cloud costs and security policies.

28
MCQhard

A compliance officer needs to generate a report showing all instances that are not compliant with a standard CIS benchmark. Which service should be used?

A.AWS Config
B.AWS Security Hub
C.AWS Systems Manager
D.AWS CloudTrail
AnswerB

Security Hub provides a central compliance dashboard against industry standards.

Why this answer

AWS Security Hub aggregates findings from services like Inspector to report on compliance against benchmarks like CIS.

29
MCQmedium

A company needs to ensure that only authorized devices can access internal cloud applications. Which mechanism verifies device posture before granting access?

A.Conditional Access Policies
B.Security Groups
C.MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication)
D.IAM Role Assumption
AnswerA

These policies can check if a device is managed and compliant before granting access.

Why this answer

Endpoint management and Conditional Access policies look at device state (e.g., compliant, patched) before allowing access.

30
MCQmedium

To ensure that all virtual machines in a cloud environment comply with corporate security standards (e.g., specific OS versions), which tool should be used to enforce configuration policies automatically?

A.Azure Backup
B.Azure Policy
C.Azure Resource Manager templates
D.Azure Monitor
AnswerB

Azure Policy is designed to enforce rules and effects over resources to ensure compliance.

Why this answer

Policy engines allow for the automated enforcement of configurations to ensure continuous compliance.

31
MCQeasy

An organization wants to implement an Identity Provider (IdP) to allow employees to use their corporate credentials for cloud logins. Which protocol is typically used for this purpose?

B.SSH
C.SAML
AnswerC

SAML is the standard protocol for web-based SSO.

Why this answer

SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is the industry standard for federated identity management and Single Sign-On (SSO).

32
MCQeasy

A company is evaluating the risk of moving to the cloud. Which business driver is most relevant to 'Agility' in a cloud adoption context?

A.Increased server uptime
B.Faster time-to-market for new features
C.Reduced capital expenditure
D.Improved compliance reporting
AnswerB

Agility enables rapid development and deployment.

Why this answer

Agility refers to the ability to provision resources quickly, allowing for faster experimentation and time-to-market.

33
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are benefits of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) for compliance?

Select 2 answers
A.Increasing the speed of physical repairs
B.Automatically detecting insider threats
C.Ensuring consistent and repeatable deployments
D.Reducing the number of cloud regions
E.Providing a clear audit trail of configuration changes
AnswersC, E

IaC prevents 'configuration drift' by using templates.

Why this answer

IaC allows for version control and consistent, repeatable deployments that can be audited for compliance.

34
MCQmedium

A company is migrating sensitive financial data to AWS and needs to ensure that all data is encrypted at rest using customer-managed keys. Which service should the administrator configure to manage these keys while maintaining audit logs for compliance?

A.AWS Secrets Manager
B.AWS CloudHSM
C.AWS Key Management Service (KMS)
D.AWS Certificate Manager (ACM)
AnswerC

KMS allows for the creation and management of customer-managed keys with integrated auditing.

Why this answer

AWS KMS is the standard service for managing cryptographic keys and provides audit logs through CloudTrail, satisfying compliance requirements for customer-managed keys.

35
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are key steps in a Cloud Incident Response process?

Select 2 answers
A.Purchasing new hardware for the data center
B.Notifying the cloud provider's sales team
C.Conducting a post-incident review
D.Updating the company's social media
E.Identifying and containing the threat
AnswersC, E

Lessons learned help prevent future recurrences.

Why this answer

Incident response requires structured preparation, containment, and post-incident analysis.

36
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are common threats to cloud-based data integrity?

Select 2 answers
A.Network latency increases
B.Unauthorized data modification
C.Code injection attacks
D.Database snapshot frequency
E.System-wide power failure
AnswersB, C

This directly impacts the integrity of the data.

Why this answer

Integrity threats include unauthorized modification of data and malicious code injection that alters application logic.

37
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following represent common compliance risks in a cloud environment?

Select 3 answers
A.Data sovereignty violations
B.Resource naming conventions
C.High monthly electricity bills
D.Cloud resource misconfiguration
E.Unauthorized access to sensitive data
AnswersA, D, E

Storing data in prohibited jurisdictions is a compliance risk.

Why this answer

Compliance risks involve misconfigurations, lack of data sovereignty, and unauthorized access to protected data.

38
MCQmedium

What is the primary risk mitigation strategy when storing data in a single availability zone?

A.Using stronger encryption
B.Implementing MFA
C.Increasing compute power
D.Multi-AZ deployment
AnswerD

Multi-AZ provides redundancy against localized facility failures.

Why this answer

If an entire availability zone fails, data in that zone is lost; using multi-AZ deployments mitigates this risk.

39
MCQmedium

To ensure that all data is encrypted before being sent to the cloud, which encryption method should the organization employ?

A.Server-side encryption
B.TLS 1.2
C.Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
D.Client-side encryption
AnswerD

Encrypting before transit ensures that even the provider cannot read the plaintext.

Why this answer

Client-side encryption ensures that data is encrypted at the source, before it enters the cloud provider's network.

40
MCQmedium

A company is using a SaaS application for email. Which part of the security responsibility remains with the company?

A.Identity and access management
B.Server physical security
C.Patching the application software
D.Database engine version
AnswerA

The customer must manage who can access their data within the SaaS app.

Why this answer

In SaaS, the provider manages the application and infrastructure, but the customer retains responsibility for identity and data access.

41
MCQmedium

A developer is writing code that accesses an API key. Instead of hardcoding the key, which service should they use to retrieve it securely at runtime?

A.AWS Secrets Manager
B.Environment Variables
C.Parameter Store
D.IAM Roles
AnswerA

Secrets Manager provides secure storage and dynamic retrieval for credentials.

Why this answer

Secrets Manager is specifically designed to store and retrieve API keys, database credentials, and secrets securely.

42
MCQmedium

Which IAM entity should be created to delegate temporary access to a third-party service provider without sharing long-term credentials?

A.IAM Role
B.IAM Group
C.IAM Access Key
D.IAM User
AnswerA

Roles allow for temporary access, ideal for third-party delegation.

Why this answer

IAM Roles are designed for temporary, cross-account, or service-based access via tokenized credentials.

43
MCQmedium

A cloud architect is defining a security group for a web server. To adhere to the principle of least privilege, which inbound rule should be configured to allow only standard HTTPS traffic?

A.Allow TCP 443 from 0.0.0.0/0
B.Allow TCP 80 from 0.0.0.0/0
C.Allow all TCP from 0.0.0.0/0
D.Allow UDP 443 from 0.0.0.0/0
AnswerA

Allowing only port 443 ensures secure traffic access.

Why this answer

HTTPS traffic uses TCP port 443; limiting the rule to this specific port minimizes the attack surface.

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