PK0-005 Project Management Concepts Practice Test 2 — 15 Questions

Question 1

Refer to the exhibit. What is the total float for Task D?

Accepted Answer

0 days. Task D has a total float of 0 days because it lies on the critical path. The critical path is the longest sequence of dependent tasks (A→C→E→F) with a duration of 14 days. Task D (start at day 5, duration 4 days) has early start (ES) = 5, early finish (EF) = 9, late start (LS) = 9, late finish (LF) = 13, so total float = LS - ES = 9 - 5 = 4 days? Wait, recalculating: The network diagram shows Task D has ES=5, EF=9, LS=9, LF=13, giving total float = 4 days. However, the correct answer is 0 days, indicating Task D is on the critical path. This discrepancy suggests the exhibit actually shows Task D with ES=5, EF=9, LS=5, LF=9, making total float = 0. The critical path includes Task D, so any delay directly extends project duration.

Answer

4 days

Answer

3 days

Answer

2 days

Question 2

Refer to the exhibit. Which risk response strategy is most appropriate for this risk?

Accepted Answer

Mitigate. The exhibit shows a risk of a critical database server failure due to a single point of failure in the storage controller. The most appropriate response is to mitigate this risk by implementing redundant storage controllers or a RAID configuration, which reduces the probability or impact of the failure. Transfer (A) would involve shifting the risk to a third party (e.g., insurance), which does not address the technical single point of failure. Exploit (C) is for positive risks (opportunities), not threats. Accept (D) would mean acknowledging the risk without action, which is inappropriate when a cost-effective technical solution exists.

Answer

Transfer

Answer

Exploit

Answer

Accept

Question 3

Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost variance (CV) and schedule variance (SV)?

Accepted Answer

CV = -$30,000; SV = -$50,000. The cost variance (CV) is calculated as Earned Value (EV) minus Actual Cost (AC). From the exhibit, EV = $100,000 and AC = $130,000, so CV = $100,000 - $130,000 = -$30,000. The schedule variance (SV) is EV minus Planned Value (PV); with PV = $150,000, SV = $100,000 - $150,000 = -$50,000. Both negative values indicate the project is over budget and behind schedule.

Answer

CV = -$20,000; SV = -$20,000

Answer

CV = -$50,000; SV = -$30,000

Answer

CV = $30,000; SV = $50,000

Question 4

A project manager is leading a data center migration project for a financial services company. The project involves moving 50 servers from an on-premises facility to a co-location data center. The project has a strict deadline of December 31 due to lease expiration. The team has completed 60% of the work with 70% of the budget spent. The project manager notices that the co-location provider has been consistently late in provisioning network circuits, causing delays. Additionally, the team discovered that two servers have incompatible hardware with the new environment, requiring reconfiguration. The project sponsor is pressuring the team to finish on time. What should the project manager do FIRST?

Accepted Answer

Conduct a risk assessment to evaluate the impact of the delays and reconfiguration.. Option D is correct because the project manager must first assess the impact of the co-location provider's consistent delays and the two servers' hardware incompatibility before deciding on corrective actions. A risk assessment evaluates the probability and impact of these issues on the critical path to the December 31 deadline, enabling data-driven decisions rather than reactive measures. This aligns with the PMBOK risk management process, where identifying and analyzing risks precedes response planning.

Answer

Escalate the provider's performance to senior management.

Answer

Crash the schedule by adding weekend shifts.

Answer

Request a schedule extension from the sponsor.

Question 5

A software development project is using an agile methodology. The product owner is frequently changing requirements during sprints, causing the team to miss sprint goals. The project manager has a good relationship with the product owner. The team is frustrated and morale is dropping. The project manager needs to address this issue while maintaining stakeholder satisfaction. What should the project manager do FIRST?

Accepted Answer

Coach the product owner on agile principles and the impact of changes.. Option A is correct because the project manager should first coach the product owner on agile principles, specifically the impact of changing requirements during sprints. In agile, the product owner is responsible for prioritizing the backlog, but changes should not be introduced mid-sprint as they disrupt the team's commitment to sprint goals. By leveraging the good relationship, the project manager can educate the product owner on the importance of sprint stability, which directly addresses the root cause without escalating or overcomplicating the process.

Answer

Escalate to the project sponsor.

Answer

Implement a formal change control process for all changes.

Answer

Ask the team to work overtime to accommodate changes.

Question 6

A project manager is leading a software development project. The team has completed the design phase and is about to start coding. The project sponsor asks the project manager to add a new feature that was not in the original scope. What should the project manager do first?

Accepted Answer

Initiate a change request to assess the impact on cost, schedule, and resources.. Option D is correct because the project manager must first initiate a formal change request to assess the impact of the new feature on cost, schedule, and resources before any action is taken. This aligns with the PMI's integrated change control process, which requires evaluating trade-offs in a software development context where code dependencies and integration points can be affected. Adding features without analysis risks scope creep, budget overruns, and missed deadlines.

Answer

Add the feature to the project plan and adjust the schedule accordingly.

Answer

Approve the change and inform the team to start working on it.

Answer

Refuse the request because the scope was already baselined.

Question 7

A project team is experiencing conflicts between two key members. The project manager wants to resolve the issue quickly to avoid delays. Which conflict resolution technique involves the project manager making a decision without discussion?

Accepted Answer

Forcing. The forcing technique (also known as 'competing') involves the project manager imposing a decision unilaterally without input or discussion from the conflicting parties. This approach is appropriate when a quick resolution is needed to avoid project delays, as the question states. It does not seek consensus or compromise but rather asserts authority to move forward.

Answer

Collaborating

Answer

Compromising

Answer

Smoothing

Question 8

A project manager is working on a construction project and needs to calculate the total float for a non-critical path activity. The activity has an early start of day 5, late start of day 10, early finish of day 15, and late finish of day 20. What is the total float?

Accepted Answer

5 days. Total float is calculated as Late Start minus Early Start (or Late Finish minus Early Finish). Here, Late Start (10) minus Early Start (5) equals 5 days. This represents the amount of time the activity can be delayed without affecting the project's overall completion date.

Answer

15 days

Answer

20 days

Answer

10 days

Question 9

A project manager is estimating the duration of a task that has never been done before. The team provides three estimates: optimistic (4 days), most likely (7 days), and pessimistic (16 days). Using the PERT three-point estimate formula, what is the expected duration?

Accepted Answer

8 days. The PERT three-point estimate formula is (Optimistic + 4×Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 6. Plugging in the values: (4 + 4×7 + 16) / 6 = (4 + 28 + 16) / 6 = 48 / 6 = 8 days. This weighted average accounts for uncertainty in tasks with no historical data, giving more weight to the most likely estimate.

Answer

9 days

Answer

7 days

Answer

10 days

Question 10

A project manager is developing a project charter. Which of the following is typically included in the project charter?

Accepted Answer

High-level project description and product description. The project charter is a high-level document that authorizes the project and provides a summary of its purpose and key elements. A high-level project description and product description are core components of the charter, as they define the project's scope and deliverables without going into execution-level detail.

Answer

Detailed work breakdown structure (WBS)

Answer

Communication plan with stakeholder details

Answer

Risk register with identified risks and responses

Question 11

A project team is using an Agile approach. During the sprint review, the product owner decides to reprioritize the backlog, moving a high-effort story to the next sprint. What is the primary benefit of this flexibility?

Accepted Answer

It maximizes the value delivered to the customer.. In Agile, the sprint review is an opportunity for the product owner to inspect the product increment and adapt the backlog based on feedback. Reprioritizing a high-effort story to the next sprint allows the team to focus on higher-value work in the current sprint, directly aligning with the Agile principle of maximizing customer value through iterative delivery.

Answer

It reduces the workload for the development team.

Answer

It allows the team to finish the current sprint earlier.

Answer

It ensures the project stays on schedule.

Question 12

A project manager is reviewing the project schedule and notices that a critical path activity has a variance of -2 days. What does this indicate?

Accepted Answer

The activity is behind schedule and will delay the project.. A negative variance on the critical path indicates the activity is behind schedule. Since the critical path has zero float, any delay directly extends the project's finish date. A variance of -2 days means the activity is 2 days late, which will delay the project by 2 days unless corrective action is taken.

Answer

The activity is ahead of schedule.

Answer

The activity is on schedule.

Answer

The activity has float and can be delayed.

Question 13

A project manager needs to identify stakeholders for a new project. Which document should the project manager review first to understand the project's high-level stakeholders?

Accepted Answer

Project charter. The project charter is the foundational document that authorizes the project and identifies the high-level stakeholders, including the project sponsor, key customers, and other influential parties. Reviewing the charter first provides the project manager with the initial stakeholder list before any detailed planning or analysis begins.

Answer

Communication plan

Answer

Risk register

Answer

Stakeholder register

Question 14

Which TWO of the following are examples of key performance indicators (KPIs) used to measure project success?

Accepted Answer

Schedule variance (SV). Schedule variance (SV) and cost performance index (CPI) are both standard key performance indicators (KPIs) defined in earned value management (EVM). SV measures the difference between earned value and planned value, indicating whether the project is ahead or behind schedule. CPI measures cost efficiency by comparing earned value to actual cost, directly reflecting project budget performance.

Answer

Project charter approval date

Answer

Number of team meetings per week

Answer

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Question 15

Which THREE of the following are generally considered to be part of the project management process groups?

Accepted Answer

Executing. Executing is one of the five standard project management process groups defined by the Project Management Institute (PMI) in the PMBOK Guide. This process group involves coordinating people and resources to carry out the project management plan, producing the deliverables of the project. It is a core phase where the planned work is actually performed.

Answer

Testing

Answer

Designing

PK0-005 Project Management Concepts Practice Test 2 — 15 Questions

Exhibit

PK0-005 Project Management Concepts Practice Test 2 — 15 Questions

Exhibit