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HomeCertificationsFC0-U61Exam Questions

CompTIA · Free Practice Questions · Last reviewed May 2026

FC0-U61 Exam Questions and Answers

36real exam-style questions organised by domain, each with the correct answer highlighted and a plain-English explanation of why it's right — and why the others are wrong.

75 exam questions
60 min time limit
Pass: 650/1000 / 1000
6 exam domains
OverviewDomain BlueprintStudy GuideAll QuestionsSample by Domain
1. IT Concepts and Terminology2. Infrastructure3. Applications and Software4. Software Development Concepts5. Security6. Database Fundamentals
1

Domain 1: IT Concepts and Terminology

All IT Concepts and Terminology questions
Q1
easyFull explanation →

A user reports that their computer is running slowly and the hard drive activity light is constantly on. The technician checks Task Manager and sees that disk usage is at 100%. What is the most likely cause?

A

Malware infection that is encrypting files in the background

B

Insufficient RAM causing the system to use the hard drive as virtual memory excessively

High disk usage with constant activity often indicates insufficient RAM causing excessive paging.

C

A failing hard drive that needs to be replaced immediately

D

The hard drive is almost full and needs to be defragmented

Why: When RAM is insufficient, the operating system compensates by using a portion of the hard drive as virtual memory (the page file). This causes constant swapping of data between RAM and the disk, resulting in 100% disk usage and a continuously active hard drive light. Task Manager would show high disk usage even if the CPU and memory percentages appear moderate.
Q2
easyFull explanation →

A technician is setting up a small office network. Which device should be used to connect multiple computers and allow them to communicate with each other?

A

Router

B

Modem

C

Switch

A switch connects devices on a local network and forwards frames based on MAC addresses.

D

Hub

Why: A switch operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model and uses MAC addresses to forward frames only to the specific port where the destination device is connected. This allows multiple computers on the same local network to communicate directly with each other without unnecessary traffic, making it the correct device for interconnecting computers in a small office LAN.
Q3
easyFull explanation →

A user wants to ensure that a document cannot be edited by others. Which file property should be set?

A

Archive

B

Hidden

C

System

D

Read-only

Read-only prevents modifications to the file.

Why: The read-only property prevents users from modifying or deleting the file's contents, as it restricts write access to the file. When set, any attempt to edit and save the document will result in an error unless the file is saved with a new name or the property is cleared. This is the standard file attribute used in Windows and other operating systems to enforce write protection at the file system level.
Q4
mediumFull explanation →

A company wants to implement a solution that allows employees to access internal applications from home without installing software on their personal devices. Which technology should be used?

A

Remote Desktop Services (RDS)

B

Thin client

C

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)

VDI provides a full desktop experience accessible via a web browser without installing software.

Why: VDI provides hosted virtual desktops that users can access from any device, including personal ones, without installing software locally. The applications run on the server, and only screen updates are sent to the client, meeting the requirement of no software installation on personal devices.
Q5
mediumFull explanation →

A technician is troubleshooting a user's inability to access the internet. The user can ping the default gateway but cannot ping external websites. What is the most likely issue?

A

Firewall is blocking all outbound traffic

B

Default gateway is down

C

IP address is misconfigured

D

DNS server is not configured or is unreachable

Pinging external sites by name fails if DNS is not resolving.

Why: The user can ping the default gateway, which confirms that the local network configuration (IP address, subnet mask, and gateway) is correct and that Layer 3 connectivity to the router is working. However, pinging external websites fails because the DNS server is not configured or unreachable, preventing the resolution of domain names to IP addresses. This is a classic symptom: internal connectivity works, but name resolution fails.
Q6
mediumFull explanation →

A database administrator needs to ensure that a transaction either completes fully or not at all. Which property of database transactions is this?

A

Atomicity

Atomicity guarantees that a transaction is treated as a single unit, which either completes fully or not at all.

B

Isolation

C

Consistency

D

Durability

Why: Atomicity ensures that a transaction is treated as a single, indivisible unit of work: either all of its operations are committed successfully, or none are applied. This is the 'all-or-nothing' property described in the ACID model. If any part of the transaction fails, the database management system (DBMS) rolls back the entire transaction, leaving the database unchanged.

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2

Domain 2: Infrastructure

All Infrastructure questions
Q1
mediumFull explanation →

A user reports that their computer is unable to access the internet, but can access local network resources. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

Windows Firewall blocking outbound traffic

B

Incorrect default gateway

The default gateway is needed to route traffic outside the local subnet.

C

DNS server not responding

D

Faulty Ethernet cable

Why: The default gateway is the router that connects a local subnet to other networks, including the internet. If the default gateway is incorrect, the computer can communicate within its own subnet (local resources) but cannot route packets to external networks, causing internet access to fail while local access remains functional.
Q2
easyFull explanation →

A technician needs to set up a small office network with 15 computers. The computers should be able to communicate with each other and share a single internet connection. Which device is required to enable internet sharing?

A

Modem

B

Hub

C

Router

A router connects multiple networks and provides NAT for internet sharing.

D

Switch

Why: A router is required to enable internet sharing because it performs Network Address Translation (NAT), which allows multiple devices on a local network to share a single public IP address provided by the ISP. The router also routes traffic between the local subnet and the internet, making it the essential device for both inter-device communication and internet access.
Q3
hardFull explanation →

A company's server room is experiencing intermittent overheating. The administrator notices that the perforated floor tiles are blocked by equipment. What is the most likely consequence of this obstruction?

A

Reduced cooling efficiency and hot spots

Perforated tiles deliver cold air; blocking them creates hot spots and reduces cooling.

B

Increased electrical load on the UPS

C

Increased humidity levels

D

Reduced battery backup time

Why: Blocking perforated floor tiles restricts the flow of cold air from the raised-floor plenum into the server room. This reduces the overall cooling efficiency of the HVAC system and creates localized hot spots around the obstructed tiles, which can lead to equipment overheating and failure.
Q4
mediumFull explanation →

A technician is troubleshooting a network slowdown. The technician suspects a loop in the network. Which of the following protocols would prevent such a loop?

A

STP

STP prevents loops by disabling redundant paths.

B

DNS

C

NAT

D

DHCP

Why: STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to prevent network loops in Ethernet networks by dynamically blocking redundant paths. When a loop occurs, broadcast frames can circulate endlessly, causing a broadcast storm that degrades network performance. STP ensures a loop-free topology by placing some switch ports into a blocking state while maintaining redundant links for failover.
Q5
easyFull explanation →

A small business wants to set up a wireless network. Which of the following is the BEST security method to use?

A

WEP

B

WPA2

WPA2 provides strong encryption.

C

MAC address filtering

D

Disable SSID broadcast

Why: WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) is the best security method among the options because it uses AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) with CCMP (Counter Mode CBC-MAC Protocol), providing strong encryption and integrity protection. WEP is outdated and easily cracked, while MAC filtering and disabling SSID broadcast are not encryption methods and offer minimal security against determined attackers.
Q6
hardFull explanation →

A company has a server that hosts a critical database. The server uses RAID 5 with three disks. One disk fails. What is the immediate impact on data availability?

A

Data is available only after replacing the disk

B

The server will shut down

C

All data on the array is lost

D

Data is still available, but performance may degrade

RAID 5 uses parity; with one disk missing, reads are slower.

Why: RAID 5 uses block-level striping with distributed parity. With three disks, the array can tolerate a single disk failure without data loss because the parity information on the remaining two disks can reconstruct the missing data on the fly. Therefore, data remains fully available immediately after one disk fails, though read and write performance may degrade due to the overhead of parity calculation and reconstruction.

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3

Domain 3: Applications and Software

All Applications and Software questions
Q1
easyFull explanation →

A user reports that a spreadsheet application crashes every time they try to open a specific file. The file was created in a newer version of the software. What is the most likely cause?

A

The computer does not have enough RAM.

B

The file was saved in a format incompatible with the installed version.

Newer file formats may cause crashes in older versions due to unsupported features.

C

The file is corrupted.

D

The user does not have permission to access the file.

Why: Option B is correct because the most likely cause of a crash when opening a file created in a newer version of the software is a format incompatibility. Newer versions often use updated file formats (e.g., .xlsx vs. .xls in Excel) that older versions cannot parse correctly, leading to application instability or crashes. This is a common scenario in backward compatibility issues, where the installed software lacks the necessary codecs or schema to interpret the file's structure.
Q2
mediumFull explanation →

A small business needs to share documents among employees and allow real-time collaboration. Which type of application is best suited?

A

Using email to send attachments back and forth.

B

Implementing a cloud-based productivity suite.

Cloud suites like Google Workspace or Microsoft 365 allow simultaneous editing and sharing.

C

Using a web browser to access public documents.

D

Installing a local office suite on each workstation.

Why: A cloud-based productivity suite (e.g., Microsoft 365, Google Workspace) stores documents on remote servers and provides real-time co-authoring, version history, and simultaneous editing via web or client applications. This directly meets the requirement for sharing documents and enabling real-time collaboration without the overhead of manual file distribution.
Q3
hardFull explanation →

A software developer writes code that stores sensitive user data. To comply with data protection regulations, which application-level security measure should be implemented?

A

Install a firewall on the server.

B

Run regular antivirus scans.

C

Use encryption for data storage and transmission.

Encryption renders data unreadable without a key, ensuring confidentiality.

D

Require multi-factor authentication for login.

Why: Option C is correct because encryption (e.g., AES-256 for data at rest and TLS 1.3 for data in transit) renders sensitive user data unreadable to unauthorized parties, directly addressing data protection regulations such as GDPR or HIPAA that mandate confidentiality. This is an application-level security measure implemented within the software code or database layer, not a network or perimeter control.
Q4
easyFull explanation →

A user wants to create a presentation with slides, animations, and speaker notes. Which application type should they use?

A

Word processing software.

B

Database software.

C

Spreadsheet software.

D

Presentation software.

Presentation applications like PowerPoint or Keynote provide the required features.

Why: Presentation software, such as Microsoft PowerPoint or Google Slides, is specifically designed to create slide-based presentations with multimedia elements like animations, transitions, and speaker notes. The speaker notes feature allows the presenter to see private notes below each slide while the audience views only the slides, which is a core function of this application type.
Q5
mediumFull explanation →

An employee receives an email with an attachment that claims to be an invoice. The employee is unsure of the sender. What is the best practice?

A

Delete the email and report it to the IT department.

Deleting removes the threat; reporting allows IT to warn others.

B

Forward the email to a personal email for later review.

C

Reply to the sender requesting confirmation.

D

Open the attachment to verify its contents.

Why: Option A is correct because the safest response to an unsolicited email with an attachment from an unknown sender is to delete it and report it to the IT department. This follows the principle of least privilege and zero-trust security, as opening or interacting with the attachment could trigger a malware payload, such as a macro virus or ransomware, that exploits vulnerabilities in the email client or operating system.
Q6
hardFull explanation →

A company uses a legacy application that only runs on Windows 7. The IT department plans to upgrade to Windows 10. What is the best approach to ensure compatibility?

A

Use Windows 10 compatibility mode for the application.

Compatibility mode allows the app to run as if on an older OS.

B

Replace the legacy application with a modern equivalent.

C

Run the application in a virtual machine with Windows 7.

D

Install the application directly on Windows 10 without changes.

Why: Windows 10 compatibility mode allows the legacy application to run by emulating the environment of Windows 7, including specific service packs and settings. This is the best approach because it requires no additional hardware or software costs and preserves the existing application functionality without modification. Compatibility mode works by intercepting API calls and presenting the expected Windows 7 behavior to the application.

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4

Domain 4: Software Development Concepts

All Software Development Concepts questions
Q1
easyFull explanation →

A junior developer is tasked with fixing a bug where a variable is unexpectedly undefined. The developer suspects the variable is not within scope. Which programming concept describes where a variable can be accessed?

A

Loop

B

Scope

Scope determines the visibility and lifetime of a variable within a program.

C

Data type

D

Function

Why: Scope is the programming concept that defines the region of code where a variable is accessible. If a variable is unexpectedly undefined, it is often because it was declared outside the current block or function, making it out of scope. In JavaScript, for example, variables declared with `let` or `const` inside a block are not accessible outside that block.
Q2
mediumFull explanation →

A development team is using version control for their project. They need to isolate a new feature from the main codebase until it is complete. Which version control operation should they perform?

A

Merge

B

Commit

C

Branch

Branching creates a separate workspace for developing a feature independently.

D

Push

Why: Branching creates a separate line of development within a version control system (e.g., Git, Mercurial), allowing the team to work on a new feature in isolation without affecting the main codebase (often called 'main' or 'master'). Once the feature is complete and tested, the branch can be merged back. This directly addresses the requirement to isolate work until it is finished.
Q3
hardFull explanation →

A software application is experiencing performance degradation. The team suspects a memory leak. Which development practice should be used to identify the source of the leak?

A

Unit testing

B

Debugging

C

Profiling

Profiling tools track resource usage, including memory allocation, to identify leaks.

D

Code review

Why: Profiling is the correct practice because it involves monitoring the application's runtime behavior, including memory allocation and garbage collection. A memory profiler can track object creation and retention, pinpointing which objects are not being released and causing the leak. This is the standard approach for diagnosing memory leaks in languages like Java or C#.
Q4
easyFull explanation →

A developer needs to store a list of employee names. Which data structure is most appropriate?

A

String

B

Array

An array can hold multiple values of the same type, like a list of names.

C

Boolean

D

Integer

Why: An array is the most appropriate data structure for storing a list of employee names because it allows multiple values (strings) to be stored in a single, ordered collection. Unlike a single string, which holds only one value, an array can hold many strings and provides indexed access to each element, making it ideal for lists of items.
Q5
mediumFull explanation →

A web application is not responding to user input. The developer checks the code and finds an infinite loop. Which change will fix the infinite loop?

A

Remove the loop body

B

Add a break statement

C

Add a counter variable that increments and check it in the condition

A counter limits the number of iterations, ensuring the loop eventually ends.

D

Change from a for loop to a while loop

Why: Option C is correct because an infinite loop occurs when the loop's termination condition is never met. By adding a counter variable that increments with each iteration and checking it in the condition, the loop will eventually exit when the counter reaches a specified limit, thus breaking the infinite loop.
Q6
hardFull explanation →

A team is developing a new feature using an Agile methodology. The product owner wants to see a working version of the feature after each iteration. Which practice best supports this request?

A

Code review

B

Continuous integration

Continuous integration ensures that code changes are integrated and built frequently, providing a working version.

C

Refactoring

D

Writing comprehensive documentation

Why: Continuous integration (CI) is the practice of automatically merging and testing code changes frequently, often multiple times per day. This ensures that after each iteration (sprint), the team has a working, integrated version of the feature, directly supporting the product owner's request to see a functional build. CI relies on automated builds and tests to catch integration issues early, enabling rapid feedback and delivery.

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5

Domain 5: Security

All Security questions
Q1
mediumFull explanation →

A small business owner wants to protect sensitive customer data stored on a laptop that is frequently used on public Wi-Fi networks. The owner is considering implementing a security control that ensures data remains confidential even if the laptop is stolen. Which of the following is the BEST control for this scenario?

A

Use a VPN when connected to public Wi-Fi

B

Install antivirus software

C

Implement full-disk encryption

Full-disk encryption protects data at rest by encrypting the entire drive, so data is unreadable without the decryption key.

D

Require a strong password for user login

Why: Full-disk encryption (FDE) protects data at rest by encrypting the entire storage volume, typically using AES-128 or AES-256. Even if the laptop is stolen, the encrypted data remains unreadable without the decryption key, ensuring confidentiality. This directly addresses the requirement for data protection after physical theft.
Q2
hardFull explanation →

A security analyst is reviewing user permissions and discovers that several users have been granted more privileges than necessary to perform their job functions. The analyst wants to apply the principle of least privilege. Which TWO actions should the analyst take? (Choose TWO.)

A

Grant full administrative access to a single IT administrator

B

Audit current permissions to identify unnecessary privileges

Auditing helps identify where excessive privileges exist, which is a necessary first step.

C

Create role-based access control (RBAC) groups that match job functions

RBAC aligns permissions with job roles, ensuring users have only the access needed.

D

Allow users to request temporary elevation of privileges for specific tasks

E

Remove all permissions from users and add them back only when requested

Why: Auditing current permissions (Option B) is the first step in applying least privilege because it identifies exactly which users have excessive rights. Creating RBAC groups (Option C) then allows the analyst to assign permissions based on job functions, ensuring users only have the access necessary to perform their roles. Together, these actions systematically reduce privilege levels without disrupting operations.
Q3
easyFull explanation →

A help desk technician receives an alert from the security monitoring system showing multiple events like the one in the exhibit. The technician is investigating a possible brute-force attack. Based on the exhibit, which of the following is the primary attack vector being used?

A

VPN brute-force attack

B

RDP brute-force attack

Logon Type 10 indicates a remote interactive logon, commonly used by RDP.

C

SSH brute-force attack

D

Web application attack

Why: The exhibit shows repeated failed authentication attempts targeting TCP port 3389, which is the default port for Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). A brute-force attack on RDP involves systematically trying many username/password combinations to gain unauthorized remote access to a Windows system. This matches the definition of an RDP brute-force attack.
Q4
hardFull explanation →

You are the IT security administrator for a mid-sized law firm that handles sensitive client data. The firm has a mix of Windows 10 workstations, a Windows Server 2019 domain controller, and a network printer. All users have standard user accounts. The senior partner recently received a phishing email that appeared to be from a known client, requesting that he click a link to review a document. He clicked the link and entered his domain credentials on a fake login page. Shortly after, the firm's file server began encrypting files and displaying a ransom note. The incident response team isolated the infected server and restored files from backup. However, the senior partner now reports that he cannot access the file server from his workstation. He receives an 'Access Denied' message. You check his account in Active Directory and find that his account is not locked out and the password is correct. The file server is back online and accessible by other users. You verify that the senior partner's workstation has network connectivity and can ping the file server. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the access issue?

A

The senior partner's password was changed during incident response, and his workstation has cached old credentials

After credential compromise, passwords are often reset. The workstation may be using cached old credentials, causing authentication failure despite network connectivity.

B

The senior partner's account was disabled by the automatic containment script

C

The ransomware modified the file server's permissions to deny access to the senior partner's account

D

The senior partner's workstation IP address was blacklisted on the file server

Why: The senior partner's password was likely changed during the incident response process to prevent further unauthorized access using his compromised credentials. When a password is changed in Active Directory, the user's workstation still caches the old credentials (NTLM hash) until the user logs off and back on. Since the partner has not logged off, his workstation continues to present the old, invalid credentials to the file server, resulting in an 'Access Denied' error despite the account being active and the password being correct.
Q5
easyFull explanation →

Which TWO of the following are examples of social engineering attacks?

A

Adware

B

Spoofing

C

Tailgating

Tailgating is a social engineering attack where an unauthorized person follows an authorized individual into a restricted area.

D

Phishing

Phishing is a social engineering attack that uses deceptive emails or messages to trick users into revealing sensitive information.

E

Shoulder surfing

Why: Tailgating (option C) is a social engineering attack where an unauthorized person physically follows an authorized individual into a restricted area, bypassing access controls such as card readers or biometric scanners. This exploits human courtesy or inattention rather than technical vulnerabilities, making it a classic social engineering technique.
Q6
hardFull explanation →

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst reviews the NTFS permissions on the C:\Shared folder. Which user or group has the ability to delete files created by other users?

A

Users

Users have Modify (M) permissions, which include the ability to delete files and subfolders, even those created by other users.

B

No user or group

C

Admin

D

Everyone

Why: The 'Users' group in Windows NTFS has the 'Modify' permission on the C:\Shared folder by default, which includes the 'Delete Subfolders and Files' advanced permission. This allows members of the Users group to delete files created by other users, even if they are not the owner of those files. The 'Delete' permission alone only allows deletion of one's own files, but 'Delete Subfolders and Files' overrides that restriction for the container.

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6

Domain 6: Database Fundamentals

All Database Fundamentals questions
Q1
easyFull explanation →

A user needs to store customer information including name, address, and order history. Which database type is most appropriate?

A

Hierarchical database

B

Flat-file database

C

NoSQL database

D

Relational database

Relational databases use tables, keys, and relationships to efficiently store and query structured data like customer info and orders.

Why: A relational database is the most appropriate choice because it organizes data into tables with rows and columns, allowing efficient storage and retrieval of structured customer information (name, address) while supporting relationships to order history via foreign keys. This structure enables ACID compliance and complex queries using SQL, which is ideal for transactional data with clear schema requirements.
Q2
hardFull explanation →

A database analyst is designing a schema for a library system. Each book can have multiple authors, and each author can write multiple books. Which relationship type should be used?

A

Many-to-one

B

One-to-many

C

Many-to-many

Many-to-many is correct because a book can have multiple authors and an author can write multiple books, requiring a junction table.

D

One-to-one

Why: The correct relationship is many-to-many because a book can have multiple authors and an author can write multiple books. In database schema design, this requires a junction table (also known as a linking or associative table) to resolve the many-to-many relationship into two one-to-many relationships, ensuring referential integrity and avoiding data redundancy.
Q3
mediumFull explanation →

A database administrator is troubleshooting a slow query on a large table. Which index type would improve performance for an exact match search on a single column?

A

Clustered index

B

B-tree index

B-tree indexes are ideal for exact match and range queries, providing fast lookup.

C

Bitmap index

D

Hash index

Why: A B-tree index is the correct choice for an exact match search on a single column because it organizes data in a balanced tree structure that allows O(log n) lookups, making it highly efficient for equality searches. In a large table, the B-tree index reduces the number of disk I/O operations by quickly navigating to the leaf node containing the exact key value.
Q4
mediumFull explanation →

A developer writes a query: SELECT * FROM Employees WHERE Department = 'Sales'. Which statement about this query is true?

A

It sorts results by Department

B

It returns all columns for employees in Sales

SELECT * returns all columns, and the WHERE clause filters for Sales department.

C

It returns only the Department column

D

It returns all rows from the Employees table

Why: The SELECT * clause retrieves all columns from the specified table, and the WHERE Department = 'Sales' filter restricts the result set to only those rows where the Department column has the value 'Sales'. Therefore, the query returns every column for employees in the Sales department, making option B correct.
Q5
easyFull explanation →

A database designer wants to ensure that no two employees have the same email address. Which constraint should be applied to the Email column?

A

UNIQUE

UNIQUE constraint ensures no duplicate email addresses.

B

PRIMARY KEY

C

CHECK

D

FOREIGN KEY

Why: The UNIQUE constraint ensures that all values in the Email column are distinct, preventing any two employees from having the same email address. Unlike PRIMARY KEY, UNIQUE allows NULL values (though typically email columns are set to NOT NULL), and it can be applied to non-key columns. This directly enforces the business rule of unique email addresses without requiring the column to be the table's primary identifier.
Q6
hardFull explanation →

A database administrator notices that a transaction that updates two tables is failing halfway, leaving data inconsistent. Which property of ACID ensures that the database returns to its original state if the transaction fails?

A

Consistency

B

Durability

C

Isolation

D

Atomicity

Atomicity guarantees that all parts of a transaction succeed or none do, allowing rollback on failure.

Why: Atomicity (option D) ensures that a transaction is treated as a single, indivisible unit of work. If any part of the transaction fails (e.g., updating the second table), the entire transaction is rolled back, and the database returns to its original state before the transaction began. This prevents partial updates that would leave data inconsistent.

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Frequently asked questions

How many questions are on the FC0-U61 exam?

The FC0-U61 exam has 75 questions and must be completed in 60 minutes. The passing score is 650/1000.

What types of questions appear on the FC0-U61 exam?

Multiple-choice and performance-based questions covering IT security, networking, and operations. Some questions are performance-based (PBQs), asking you to complete tasks in a simulated environment.

How are FC0-U61 questions organised by domain?

The exam covers 6 domains: IT Concepts and Terminology, Infrastructure, Applications and Software, Software Development Concepts, Security, Database Fundamentals. Questions are weighted by domain — higher-weight domains appear more on your actual exam.

Are these the actual FC0-U61 exam questions?

No. These are original exam-style practice questions written against the official CompTIA FC0-U61 exam objectives. They are not copied from the real exam. Courseiva focuses on genuine understanding, not memorisation of braindumps.

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