CISA Governance and Management of IT — Timed 25 Questions

Question 1

An organization outsources its data center operations. What is the BEST way to ensure the service provider's controls are effective?

Accepted Answer

Conduct periodic third-party audits. Independent third-party audits provide objective verification of controls. Option B is incorrect because relying solely on the provider's internal audit may lack independence. Option C is incorrect because SLAs focus on performance, not control effectiveness. Option D is incorrect because requiring all controls may be impractical and expensive.

Answer

Rely on the provider's internal audit reports

Answer

Monitor service level agreements only

Answer

Require the provider to implement all organizational controls

Question 2

A business continuity plan (BCP) includes a tabletop exercise once a year. An IS auditor finds that the exercise only involves IT staff. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation?

Accepted Answer

Invite business process owners to participate in future exercises. A BCP exercise should involve business process owners to validate that the plan supports business continuity beyond IT. Option A (failover test) is too narrow and does not address the lack of business involvement. Option B focuses on increasing the frequency of IT-only exercises, which does not solve the participation gap. Option D adds a data restoration test, which is technical and does not ensure business unit coordination.

Answer

Perform a failover test of the production environment

Answer

Increase the frequency of IT-only exercises

Answer

Include a data restoration test in the exercise

Question 3

A large enterprise recently experienced a data breach due to an insider threat. The IT governance committee is reviewing the incident and considering measures to prevent recurrence. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to address the root cause?

Accepted Answer

Implement a privileged access management (PAM) solution to control and monitor elevated access.. A privileged access management (PAM) solution directly addresses the root cause of an insider threat by controlling, monitoring, and auditing elevated access rights. Since the breach was caused by an insider, limiting and tracking privileged accounts prevents unauthorized or excessive use of administrative credentials, which is the most effective preventive measure against recurrence.

Answer

Increase logging and auditing of all user activities.

Answer

Deploy a security information and event management (SIEM) tool.

Answer

Terminate the employment of the insider who caused the breach.

Question 4

A multinational corporation is adopting a hybrid cloud strategy. The IT governance board must decide on a framework to ensure alignment with business objectives and regulatory compliance. Which framework is MOST appropriate?

Accepted Answer

COBIT 2019. COBIT 2019 is the most appropriate framework because it is specifically designed for IT governance, providing a comprehensive set of controls and processes to align IT with business objectives and ensure regulatory compliance. In a hybrid cloud strategy, COBIT 2019's focus on governance objectives, stakeholder needs, and risk management directly addresses the board's need for oversight across on-premises and cloud environments, unlike frameworks that target service management, security, or project management.

Answer

ITIL 4 Service Value System

Answer

ISO/IEC 27001 Information Security Management

Answer

PMBOK Guide

Question 5

An organization's IT strategy must be aligned with business strategy. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of this alignment?

Accepted Answer

Increased value of IT investments to business objectives. When IT strategy is aligned with business strategy, every IT investment is directly tied to achieving specific business objectives, such as increasing revenue, improving customer experience, or enabling new business models. This alignment ensures that resources are allocated to projects that deliver measurable business value, rather than being spent on technology for its own sake. The primary benefit is therefore the increased value of IT investments to business objectives, as misalignment often leads to wasted expenditure on systems that do not support core business goals.

Answer

Faster adoption of new technologies

Answer

Enhanced security posture

Answer

Reduced IT operational costs

Question 6

A financial institution is evaluating its IT governance structure. Which of the following roles is BEST suited to ensure independent oversight of IT investments?

Accepted Answer

IT Audit Committee. The IT Audit Committee is the correct answer because it provides independent oversight of IT investments by operating outside of management's direct reporting structure. Unlike the CIO, PMO director, or CISO, who are all part of management and may have vested interests in project approvals or resource allocation, the IT Audit Committee reports to the board of directors and ensures that IT investments align with enterprise strategy, risk appetite, and regulatory requirements without bias.

Answer

Chief Information Officer (CIO)

Answer

Project Management Office (PMO) director

Answer

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

Question 7

An organization is implementing a new ERP system. The project sponsor requests a change that will significantly increase project scope without additional budget. Which of the following is the BEST action for the project manager?

Accepted Answer

Initiate the formal change control process and escalate to the steering committee.. The project manager must follow the formal change control process to evaluate the impact of a scope change that lacks additional budget. Escalating to the steering committee is appropriate because they have the authority to approve or reject changes that affect project constraints, ensuring alignment with organizational governance and IT strategy.

Answer

Accept the change and adjust the project timeline accordingly.

Answer

Implement the change and inform the steering committee later.

Answer

Reject the change because it is outside the original scope.

Question 8

An IT manager needs to ensure that the organization's IT resources are used efficiently. Which of the following is the BEST metric to measure IT resource utilization?

Accepted Answer

Average server CPU utilization. Average server CPU utilization directly measures how much of the computing capacity is being consumed over time, making it the most relevant metric for assessing whether IT resources are being used efficiently. High or low CPU utilization can indicate over-provisioning, under-utilization, or potential performance bottlenecks, enabling the IT manager to optimize resource allocation.

Answer

System uptime percentage

Answer

Number of help desk tickets resolved per day

Answer

Percentage of projects completed on time

Question 9

A company's IT governance policy requires that all critical systems have a documented business continuity plan (BCP). During an audit, an IT auditor finds that the BCP for a critical financial system has not been updated in three years. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation?

Accepted Answer

Update the BCP to reflect current processes and conduct a test.. IT governance policies require that BCPs remain current to reflect actual operational processes. An outdated BCP (three years stale) may contain obsolete recovery procedures, contact information, or dependencies, rendering it ineffective during a real incident. Updating the BCP and then testing it validates that the documented steps align with the current system architecture and can be executed successfully, which is a core requirement of the BCP lifecycle per ISACA guidelines.

Answer

Archive the outdated BCP and develop a new one from scratch.

Answer

Accept the risk because the system has been stable.

Answer

Implement a new system with built-in redundancy.

Question 10

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of an IT governance framework?

Accepted Answer

To ensure IT aligns with and supports business strategy. The primary purpose of an IT governance framework is to ensure that IT investments, strategies, and operations are aligned with and support the overall business strategy, enabling the organization to achieve its goals. This alignment is achieved through mechanisms such as strategic planning, portfolio management, and performance measurement, which are core to frameworks like COBIT 2019. Without this alignment, IT may operate in isolation, leading to wasted resources and missed business opportunities.

Answer

To ensure compliance with laws and regulations

Answer

To protect IT assets from cyber threats

Answer

To reduce IT operational costs

Question 11

An organization has implemented a new IT service management (ITSM) tool. The IT manager wants to measure the effectiveness of incident management. Which metric is MOST appropriate?

Accepted Answer

Mean time to resolve (MTTR) incidents. Mean time to resolve (MTTR) is the most appropriate metric for measuring the effectiveness of incident management because it directly reflects how quickly the IT team can restore normal service operation after an incident. In ITIL-based ITSM tools, MTTR tracks the elapsed time from incident logging to resolution, providing a clear indicator of process efficiency and team responsiveness.

Answer

Percentage of incidents resolved on first call

Answer

Number of incidents reported per month

Answer

Percentage of system uptime

Question 12

Which TWO of the following are key responsibilities of an IT steering committee?

Accepted Answer

Monitoring IT performance and value delivery. The IT steering committee is a senior-level governance body responsible for aligning IT strategy with business objectives. Monitoring IT performance and value delivery (A) is a key responsibility because the committee must ensure that IT investments generate the expected business benefits and that service levels meet agreed targets. Prioritizing IT projects and allocating resources (D) is also a core duty, as the committee decides which initiatives receive funding and staffing based on strategic importance and risk, rather than operational urgency.

Answer

Managing day-to-day IT operations

Answer

Writing and testing application code

Answer

Conducting IT audit engagements

Question 13

Which THREE of the following are components of a typical IT governance framework?

Accepted Answer

Strategic alignment of IT with business. Strategic alignment of IT with business is a core component of an IT governance framework because it ensures that IT initiatives directly support and enable the organization's business objectives and strategies. This alignment is achieved through mechanisms like balanced scorecards and IT steering committees, which prioritize IT investments based on business value. Without this component, IT may operate in a silo, leading to wasted resources and missed opportunities.

Answer

Network troubleshooting procedures

Answer

Vendor contract management

Question 14

Which TWO of the following are benefits of implementing an IT governance framework?

Accepted Answer

Improved risk management and mitigation. Implementing an IT governance framework, such as COBIT or ISO/IEC 38500, establishes structured policies, procedures, and controls that directly improve risk management and mitigation. By defining clear roles, accountability, and risk appetite, the framework ensures that risks are systematically identified, assessed, and treated, rather than being managed ad hoc. This aligns IT strategy with business objectives and embeds risk management into daily operations.

Answer

Reduction in IT staff headcount

Answer

Reduced IT operational costs

Answer

Elimination of all IT project failures

Question 15

Scenario: A mid-sized manufacturing company has recently experienced a significant IT outage that halted production for 8 hours. The root cause was a failed firmware update on a core switch that was performed outside the change management process by a senior network engineer who claimed the update was urgent to patch a critical vulnerability. The company has a well-documented change management policy that requires all changes to be reviewed by the change advisory board (CAB) before implementation, except for emergency changes which require post-implementation review within 48 hours. The engineer did not follow the emergency change process; he implemented the update directly. The IT director wants to prevent such incidents in the future. Which of the following is the BEST action?

Accepted Answer

Enforce the change management policy by implementing stricter controls and disciplinary measures for non-compliance.. The root cause was a deliberate bypass of the existing change management policy, not a flaw in the policy itself. Enforcing stricter controls and disciplinary measures directly addresses the human factor by reinforcing accountability and deterring unauthorized changes, which is the most effective way to prevent recurrence when a well-documented process is already in place but ignored.

Answer

Implement automatic firmware updates to eliminate human error.

Answer

Increase the frequency of CAB meetings to weekly to expedite change approvals.

Answer

Remove the network engineer's administrative access to all network devices.

Question 16

Scenario: A healthcare organization is implementing a new electronic health records (EHR) system. The project has been delayed due to scope creep and resource constraints. The project sponsor is pressuring the project manager to accelerate the timeline by skipping user acceptance testing (UAT) and going live immediately. The organization has a governance policy that requires all IT projects to complete UAT before deployment. The project manager is concerned about quality and patient safety. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Accepted Answer

Adhere to the governance policy and escalate the risk to the steering committee for a decision.. The governance policy mandates UAT before deployment, and skipping it could compromise patient safety and data integrity in the EHR system. By escalating the risk to the steering committee, the project manager ensures that the decision is made at the appropriate governance level, balancing project pressures with compliance and quality. This approach aligns with the CISA domain of Governance and Management of IT, where adherence to policies and risk escalation are key controls.

Answer

Compromise by conducting a limited UAT on only critical functionalities.

Answer

Resign from the project due to ethical concerns.

Answer

Accept the sponsor's request and skip UAT to meet the deadline.

Question 17

An organization's IT department implemented a new change management process that requires all changes to be approved by a change advisory board (CAB). A critical security patch needs to be deployed within 2 hours to address an active zero-day vulnerability. The change request was submitted but the CAB is not scheduled to meet for another 24 hours. What is the BEST course of action?

Accepted Answer

Use the emergency change process to obtain expedited approval from a designated CAB member.. It aligns with the ITIL-based emergency change process, which allows for expedited approval from a designated CAB member or emergency authority when a critical security patch must be deployed within hours to mitigate an active zero-day vulnerability. This ensures the change is authorized without waiting for the full CAB meeting, maintaining security while preserving governance and audit trails.

Answer

Deploy the patch and inform the CAB after the fact during the next meeting.

Answer

Wait for the next scheduled CAB meeting to approve the change.

Answer

Deploy the patch immediately without any approval as it is a critical security fix.

Question 18

During an IT audit, the auditor discovers that the IT department has not conducted a business impact analysis (BIA) for three years. The organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP) is based on the previous BIA. The IT manager argues that the DRP is still valid because no major changes have occurred. What should the auditor recommend?

Accepted Answer

Recommend that a new BIA be conducted to validate and update the DRP.. A business impact analysis (BIA) is the foundation of a valid disaster recovery plan (DRP). Without a current BIA, the DRP may not reflect the organization's current critical processes, recovery time objectives (RTOs), or recovery point objectives (RPOs). Even if no major changes are perceived, subtle shifts in dependencies, resource availability, or regulatory requirements can render the DRP ineffective. Therefore, the auditor should recommend conducting a new BIA to validate and update the DRP.

Answer

Accept the IT manager's rationale and close the finding.

Answer

Recommend terminating the current DRP until the BIA is completed.

Answer

Recommend accepting the risk and documenting the decision.

Question 19

An organization is implementing a new IT governance framework. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using a framework like COBIT?

Accepted Answer

Aligning IT strategy with business goals.. COBIT is designed to bridge the gap between business objectives and IT operations by providing a framework that maps IT processes to business goals. The primary benefit is ensuring that IT strategy directly supports and enables business strategy, rather than focusing on cost reduction or risk elimination.

Answer

Reducing IT operational costs.

Answer

Eliminating all IT-related risks.

Answer

Ensuring compliance with all regulatory requirements.

Question 20

An IT manager is reviewing the service level agreements (SLAs) for a cloud-based email service. The SLA guarantees 99.9% uptime per month. The service experienced an outage of 45 minutes in a 30-day month. Did the service meet the SLA?

Accepted Answer

No, because the allowed downtime for 99.9% uptime is approximately 43 minutes.. The SLA guarantees 99.9% uptime per month. For a 30-day month (43,200 minutes), 99.9% uptime allows only 0.1% downtime, which is 43.2 minutes. The actual outage of 45 minutes exceeds this threshold, so the SLA was not met. Option D correctly identifies the allowed downtime as approximately 43 minutes.

Answer

Yes, because 45 minutes is within 0.1% of the total time.

Answer

Yes, because the SLA is calculated per day, not per month.

Answer

No, because any downtime exceeding 30 minutes is a violation.