ISACA · Free Practice Questions · Last reviewed May 2026
30real exam-style questions organised by domain, each with the correct answer highlighted and a plain-English explanation of why it's right — and why the others are wrong.
An organization is updating its BCP plan. Which step in the risk assessment process should occur immediately after identifying the critical assets?
Vulnerability assessment
Threat identification
Threats must be identified against the specific assets found.
Acceptable risk levels
Risk mitigation strategy
During a risk assessment using ISO 27001, you identify an unpatched vulnerability in an edge router. Management refuses to apply the patch due to legacy software dependencies. Which risk treatment option are they exercising?
Risk avoidance
Risk mitigation
Risk acceptance
The organization has acknowledged the risk and chosen not to modify the environment.
Risk transfer
You are performing STRIDE threat modeling on a new web application. A developer asks how to mitigate a 'Tampering' threat identified during the design phase. Which control is most effective?
Implement TLS encryption
Implement logging and auditing
Implement cryptographic hashing/digital signatures
Hashing and signatures ensure data integrity, preventing tampering.
Implement Role-Based Access Control
You are tasked with ensuring the 'Confidentiality' of sensitive data in transit. Which mechanism best satisfies this security principle?
Two-Factor Authentication
Hashing Algorithms
Digital Signatures
AES-256 Encryption
Encryption makes data unreadable to unauthorized parties.
You are reviewing a cloud architecture against the NIST 800-53 control catalog. Which control family would you reference for incidents involving unauthorized data exfiltration?
Access Control (AC)
Incident Response (IR)
IR controls specifically address handling security incidents.
Configuration Management (CM)
Risk Assessment (RA)
An analyst is assessing the 'Availability' of a database. Which scenario represents a threat to availability?
Packet sniffing on the wire
Replay attack
Unauthorized data modification
Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack
DDoS renders systems unavailable to legitimate users.
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Practice this domainWhich TWO of the following actions are considered best practices during the 'Containment' phase of an incident response workflow?
Re-image the compromised server immediately to restore service
Isolate the infected network segment to prevent lateral movement
Isolation prevents further spread.
Shut down the entire corporate firewall
Notify the local police department
Disable compromised user accounts
Disabling accounts prevents further authenticated access by the attacker.
You are configuring a Splunk Enterprise Security (ES) Correlation Search to detect potential brute-force activity. You need to ensure the search generates a notable event only when the threshold of 10 failed logins occurs within a 5-minute window for a specific user. Which Correlation Search attribute should be modified?
Throttle field
Notable event urgency
Time window
The time window restricts the lookback period to evaluate the threshold logic.
Risk score adjustment
You are using an ELK Stack (Elasticsearch, Logstash, Kibana) for incident response. You have identified a time-based spike in traffic. What is the most efficient way to query for the top 10 unique source IP addresses for a specific destination over the last hour using Kibana Discover?
Use the 'Top values' aggregation on the source IP field in a Lens visualization
Lens aggregations are optimized for quickly identifying top-N occurrences.
Run an 'Update By Query' API call
Use a regex filter in the search bar
Export all logs to CSV and use Excel
You are investigating an EDR alert showing suspicious PowerShell execution. You need to identify the parent process that spawned the malicious script. Which tool or view would best allow you to visualize this process tree?
Host status dashboard
Network connections tab
Process Tree view
The Process Tree visualizes the parent-child relationship of executing processes.
Event search logs
You are managing an incident where an adversary is utilizing a 'Living off the Land' (LotL) technique. Which log source is most critical to detect this activity?
Firewall denied logs
Physical access logs
SMTP gateway logs
Process creation logs (e.g., Sysmon Event ID 1)
Event ID 1 records the full command line, revealing the execution of native tools.
During a Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation, you notice that a specific alert triggered by a custom analytic rule is creating too many false positives due to a noisy service account. You want to exclude this account without disabling the entire rule. What is the most effective approach?
Delete the analytic rule and recreate it with a higher threshold
Disable the alert in the Data Connector settings
Modify the analytic rule logic using a 'where' clause to exclude the account entity from a Watchlist
Watchlists provide a scalable way to maintain inclusion/exclusion lists for KQL queries.
Set the incident severity to 'Informational'
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Practice this domainYou are tasked with hardening an endpoint using the CIS Benchmark for Windows 10. You need to ensure that the 'Local Account Password Complexity' is enforced. Which GPO path should you navigate to?
Computer Configuration > System Settings > Advanced > Security
Computer Configuration > Policies > Windows Settings > Security Settings > Account Policies > Password Policy
This is the correct path to modify the local password complexity requirements.
User Configuration > Preferences > Control Panel Settings > Local Users and Groups
Computer Configuration > Administrative Templates > Windows Components > Password
You are configuring Microsoft Defender for Endpoint (MDE) to restrict USB storage access on corporate-managed Windows endpoints. Which policy setting should you configure in the Microsoft Intune Endpoint Security portal to ensure only authorized hardware IDs are permitted while blocking all others?
Modify the 'Administrative Templates' to set 'Prevent installation of removable devices'.
Set the 'USB Connection' state to 'Restricted' within the Defender for Endpoint configuration baseline.
Enable 'Removable Storage Access: Allow write access' and add the specific Hardware IDs to the 'Allow access to specific hardware IDs' setting.
This is the correct path in the Endpoint Security Device Control profile to restrict access while providing an allow-list for specific hardware.
Configure the 'Allow installation of devices that match any of these device IDs' policy.
You are performing a credentialed vulnerability scan using Nessus Professional on a Linux server. The scan reports that the 'Remote Windows SMB' service is missing patches, but the target is Linux. What is the most likely cause of this discrepancy?
The scanner is configured to run 'Non-Credentialed' scans only, resulting in false positives.
The Nessus scanner has performed a fingerprinting mismatch due to an incorrect 'Credentialed Patch Audit' policy setting.
The vulnerability scan likely applied a Windows plugin set because the credentials provided or the SSH banner allowed for a misidentification of the OS family during the initial discovery phase.
The Linux server is hosting a Windows VM, and the scanner is reporting on the guest OS.
The Linux server has Samba installed, and the vulnerability scanner is correctly identifying a vulnerability in the SMB stack.
You are managing access for a cloud-native application using AWS IAM. You need to ensure that an EC2 instance can only access a specific S3 bucket. What is the most secure way to implement this?
Use an IAM Group and add the EC2 instance to the group.
Create an IAM user with access keys and embed them in the application configuration file.
Attach an IAM Role with a policy restricted to the specific S3 bucket ARN to the EC2 instance profile.
IAM roles provide temporary credentials and are the identity-based mechanism for granting scoped access to AWS services.
Modify the S3 bucket policy to allow 'All Principals' and restrict by IP address.
While monitoring security logs in Splunk for your critical database server, you observe a spike in '401 Unauthorized' errors followed by a '200 OK' success from a known administrative account. How should you investigate this to confirm a potential credential stuffing attack?
Disable the administrative account immediately without further analysis.
Check the 'web_access.log' for the source IP of the successful login and compare the User-Agent string to previous successful logins.
Comparing User-Agent and source IP patterns against historical baselines is the standard method for identifying credential stuffing anomalies.
Restart the database service to clear the connection pool.
Increase the logging level on the database to 'Debug' to capture the password hash being transmitted.
You are using Tenable.io to manage vulnerabilities across a hybrid environment. You notice that several endpoints are not appearing in the 'Asset Inventory' dashboard despite having the Nessus Agent installed. What is the first troubleshooting step you should take?
Check the 'nessuscli agent status' on the endpoint to verify the link state and connection to the manager.
The 'nessuscli' command-line utility is the native tool for verifying agent-to-manager connectivity status.
Reinstall the Nessus Agent using the 'Force Install' flag.
Manually add the IP address of the endpoint to the 'Allowed Assets' list in Tenable.io.
Restart the Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) service.
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Practice this domainWhen analyzing a virtual machine's security, you note it is using a 'Bridged' network adapter. What is the primary security implication of this configuration?
The VM is isolated from the physical network.
The VM can only communicate with the host.
The VM uses the host's IP address.
The VM acts as a direct node on the physical network.
Bridged mode bypasses host-level NAT, making the VM visible to other hosts on the LAN.
You need to identify unauthorized modifications to system binaries on a Red Hat Enterprise Linux server. Which tool is best suited for this integrity verification?
firewalld
systemctl status
yum check-update
AIDE
AIDE creates a database of file hashes and compares them to detect changes.
You are troubleshooting a Windows Server service that refuses to start due to a permission issue. Which tool allows you to audit the effective permissions of the service account against the executable file?
Task Manager - Details tab
Local Security Policy (secpol.msc)
Advanced Security Settings - Effective Access
This tool computes the final permissions for an account based on group memberships and explicit ACLs.
Event Viewer - System Log
In a cloud environment, you are configuring a Security Group for an EC2 instance. To allow only incoming web traffic over HTTPS from a specific subnet, which configuration is most secure?
Protocol: TCP, Port: 443, Source: 10.0.1.0/24
This restricts traffic to the necessary port and limits access to the specific subnet.
Protocol: UDP, Port: 443, Source: 10.0.1.0/24
Protocol: TCP, Port: 80, Source: 10.0.1.0/24
Protocol: All Traffic, Port: All, Source: 0.0.0.0/0
During a forensic investigation, you find an entry in the Windows Registry under 'Run' keys. How can you determine if this entry is malicious?
Verify the digital signature of the referenced executable.
Legitimate services are almost always digitally signed by a trusted publisher.
Delete the registry key.
Reboot the server.
Rename the file to .txt.
Which protocol is most appropriate for secure remote management of network infrastructure devices?
SNMPv1
Telnet
SSH
SSH provides strong encryption for remote administrative sessions.
HTTP
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Practice this domainYou are auditing an environment for 'T1083 File and Directory Discovery'. Which log source provides the most visibility into this activity?
Sysmon Event ID 11
Event ID 11 tracks FileCreate events, often associated with enumeration.
NetFlow
DHCP logs
Firewall logs
While analyzing an EDR alert, you observe a process modifying 'HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run'. What is the primary adversary objective at this stage?
Discovery
Persistence
Registry modifications for startup ensure the malware survives a reboot.
Execution
Privilege Escalation
In the context of the MITRE ATT&CK framework, what distinguishes 'T1059 Command and Scripting Interpreter' from 'T1204 User Execution'?
There is no distinction
T1059 is for Windows, T1204 is for Linux
T1059 is the technique, T1204 is the outcome
T1059 describes the execution mechanism, T1204 describes the delivery
T1059 is about the interpreter, T1204 requires user interaction to launch.
You are configuring a YARA rule for CrowdStrike Falcon to detect Cobalt Strike Beacon traffic. Which specific technique should you look for in the process memory that indicates process hollowing?
CreateServiceW
GetSystemTime
WriteProcessMemory to a remote process
Writing to the memory space of a suspended process is required for hollowing.
RegCreateKeyEx
You are reviewing logs in Splunk and identify a suspicious process spawning 'cmd.exe' from 'wsmprovhost.exe'. Which MITRE ATT&CK tactic does this behavior most directly align with?
Credential Access
Exfiltration
Lateral Movement
Using WinRM/PowerShell Remoting to execute commands is a primary technique for Lateral Movement.
Persistence
An adversary uses 'vssadmin.exe delete shadows /all /quiet' during an attack. Which tactic is this technique categorized under?
Impact
This action destroys data, fulfilling the goal of service disruption.
Credential Access
Defense Evasion
Initial Access
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Practice this domainThe CCOA exam has 200 questions and must be completed in 120 minutes. The passing score is 700/1000.
Scenario-based questions covering exam objectives with detailed answer explanations.
The exam covers 5 domains: Cybersecurity Principles And Risk, Incident Detection And Response, Securing Assets, Technology Essentials, Adversarial Tactics. Questions are weighted by domain — higher-weight domains appear more on your actual exam.
No. These are original exam-style practice questions written against the official ISACA CCOA exam objectives. They are not copied from the real exam. Courseiva focuses on genuine understanding, not memorisation of braindumps.
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