You must classify controls correctly and match the control to the stated risk goal. The single most important thing: distinguish preventive, detective, and corrective controls, and know whether a control is administrative, technical, or physical before selecting your answer.
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Domain overview
This domain covers governance, risk management, and control selection as tested by ISACA's CCOA exam. Questions present operational scenarios—threat modeling, access termination, control classification—and ask you to identify the correct administrative, technical, or physical control, or the primary function of governance. Expect scenario-based items requiring you to distinguish control types and apply risk treatment logic, not recall memorized definitions.
Exam objectives
Classifying controls as administrative, technical, or physical based on scenario descriptions
Applying threat modeling to select controls against impersonation and credential misuse
Identifying primary functions of an Information Security Governance program
Mapping risk treatment options—mitigate, transfer, accept, avoid—to business scenarios
Confusing administrative controls like policy and background checks with technical controls like MFA and account provisioning
Treating governance as purely technical enforcement rather than direction, oversight, and alignment with business objectives
Selecting a detective control when the scenario asks to reduce likelihood, which requires a preventive control
Click any question to see the full explanation and answer options, or start a focused practice session above.
During a risk assessment using ISO 27001, you identify an unpatched vulnerability in an edge router. Management refuses to apply the patch due to legacy software dependencies. Which risk treatment option are they exercising?
2You are performing STRIDE threat modeling on a new web application. A developer asks how to mitigate a 'Tampering' threat identified during the design phase. Which control is most effective?
3You are tasked with ensuring the 'Confidentiality' of sensitive data in transit. Which mechanism best satisfies this security principle?
4You are reviewing a cloud architecture against the NIST 800-53 control catalog. Which control family would you reference for incidents involving unauthorized data exfiltration?
5An analyst is assessing the 'Availability' of a database. Which scenario represents a threat to availability?
6A security analyst is mapping organizational assets to the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. Which category is specifically responsible for maintaining the resilience of critical infrastructure?
7Which document outlines the formal commitment of top management to support information security objectives?
8What is the primary objective of a 'Business Impact Analysis' (BIA)?
9In a FAIR (Factor Analysis of Information Risk) model, what is the 'Loss Event Frequency' composed of?
10When designing a defense-in-depth strategy, which layer should be addressed first as the primary boundary between internal and external networks?
11Which role is primarily responsible for classifying data based on its value and sensitivity to the organization?
12You are implementing ISO 27001 Annex A controls. Which control category would contain requirements for physical access to the server room?
13You are performing a quantitative risk assessment. The SLE (Single Loss Expectancy) is $10,000, and the ARO (Annualized Rate of Occurrence) is 0.5. What is the ALE (Annualized Loss Expectancy)?
14Which security framework is most commonly used by US federal agencies to manage security controls?
15Which TWO of the following are core components of the CIA Triad?
16A security analyst is reviewing access logs and notices a user with 'Administrator' rights performing daily data entry. Which principle is being violated?
17Which THREE items are typically included in a formal Risk Register?
18During threat modeling, you identify that an adversary could impersonate a service account. Which control is most effective against this?
19Which type of risk assessment approach uses descriptive scales like 'High', 'Medium', and 'Low'?
20You are utilizing the MITRE ATT&CK framework to document an incident. Which object represents the 'what' of the attack, such as the specific software or tool used?
21Which TWO elements should be included when performing threat modeling using the STRIDE methodology?
22Which THREE factors are commonly used to calculate risk in a basic qualitative model?
23Which TWO of the following are primary functions of an Information Security Governance program?
24Which TWO of the following are considered 'Technical' controls?
25Which THREE controls are considered effective 'Administrative' controls according to the NIST framework?
26A security operations analyst at a hospital is reviewing the risk register. A threat has been identified that could exploit a vulnerability in a legacy MRI machine's embedded OS, but the machine cannot be patched because the vendor no longer supports it. The CIO decides to accept the risk and document it. Which risk response strategy has been applied?
27A financial analyst is evaluating a new trading platform. The platform provider claims that their system has a 'high' level of confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The analyst needs to determine the potential impact if the system were compromised. Which term best describes the potential loss or harm that could occur if a threat exploits a vulnerability?
28A security operations center (SOC) analyst is reviewing the organization's risk management process. The analyst notes that the organization has a low risk appetite for data breaches involving customer PII. Which risk response is most appropriate when the cost of implementing a control is less than the potential loss?
29A security analyst is conducting a risk assessment for a new cloud-based CRM system. The analyst must identify TWO qualitative risk assessment techniques that can be used to prioritize risks based on expert judgment and descriptive scales. (Choose two.)
30A security administrator is implementing a new access control system. The administrator wants to ensure that users are granted the minimum level of access necessary to perform their job functions. Which principle is being applied?
31A healthcare organization's security operations team is mapping controls to the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. The CISO asks which function is primarily concerned with understanding the organization's assets, business environment, and risk appetite so that security activities can be prioritized. Which NIST CSF function should the analyst identify?
32A financial services firm has classified its customer transaction database as 'Restricted'. The CISO wants to ensure that even if the storage array is physically stolen, the data cannot be read. Which control should be implemented to directly satisfy this requirement?
33A financial services firm stores customer account data in a database. The security team is asked to ensure that even if the storage media is stolen, the data cannot be read without additional secret material. Which control best satisfies this requirement?
34A healthcare organization stores electronic protected health information (ePHI) on a database server. An analyst recommends implementing AES-256 encryption at rest with keys managed by a hardware security module (HSM). Which security objective does this control primarily address?
35A healthcare organization must comply with regulations requiring that patient records remain available during a ransomware incident. The CIO asks which principle of the CIA triad is most directly addressed by maintaining immutable offline backups. Which principle applies?
36During an internal audit, a CCOA analyst finds that the organization's data classification policy labels customer PII as 'Confidential' and requires AES-256 encryption at rest, but the backup team stores nightly database dumps on unencrypted LTO-9 tapes in a third-party vault. Which risk response strategy is the organization currently exhibiting with respect to the tape backups?
37A security analyst is performing a qualitative risk assessment for a new cloud-based customer portal. The CISO wants risk ratings that reflect both the likelihood of a threat event and the severity of its impact, using a consistent descriptive scale. Which TWO techniques should the analyst use to produce these ratings? (Choose two.)
38A security analyst is quantifying risk for a new e-commerce platform. The asset value is $500,000, the exposure factor for a successful DDoS attack is 20%, and the annualized rate of occurrence is 3. What is the annualized loss expectancy (ALE)?
39A retail bank's security team is classifying a new customer-facing mobile application. The application stores no cardholder data but processes internal marketing statistics. The team must decide whether to apply the same security controls as the core banking platform or a lighter control set. Which activity should occur FIRST to make this decision defensible?
40A financial services firm wants to reduce the likelihood that a former employee can use still-valid credentials to access internal systems after termination. Which administrative control should the security team implement FIRST?
41A CCOA analyst is building a threat model for a new API gateway that exposes internal microservices to partner organizations. The analyst wants to prioritize threats using a methodology that combines adversary capability, intent, and opportunity against the organization's specific attack surface. Which approach best fits this requirement?
42During a risk assessment, an analyst determines that a legacy payroll application has a vulnerability that could allow remote code execution. The vendor no longer issues patches, and the application is required for monthly payroll runs. The CISO accepts the residual risk and documents the decision. Which risk treatment option has the organization chosen?
43A multinational retailer must demonstrate to auditors that its security program aligns with a recognized framework for managing cybersecurity risk. The CISO wants a framework that provides a common language for communicating risk to executives and is widely accepted across industries. Which framework best meets this need?
44A hospital's risk register lists ransomware against its electronic health record system with a likelihood of 'High' and an impact of 'Critical' on a five-point qualitative scale. The CISO must select a treatment option that reduces the residual risk to an acceptable level while preserving clinical availability. Which treatment approach BEST fits this scenario?
45A security analyst is conducting a qualitative risk assessment for a new cloud-based customer relationship management (CRM) system. The team wants to prioritize risks without assigning monetary values. Which TWO factors are most relevant when using a qualitative risk matrix? (Choose two.)
46A multinational retailer must comply with a regulation requiring that personal data of European customers not be transferred to countries lacking an adequate level of data protection. The security team is asked to identify the primary principle that governs this restriction. Which principle applies?
47A software company operates a continuous integration pipeline where developers can push code directly to production branches. A recent post-incident review found that a single compromised developer credential allowed malicious code to reach customers. Which change to the pipeline's control environment MOST directly reduces this specific risk?
48A multinational retailer is expanding into a new country and must comply with that country's data protection law, which requires personal data of citizens to remain within national borders. The security team is asked to recommend an architecture that satisfies this requirement while still allowing the global analytics team to process aggregated, non-personal data. Which approach BEST meets these constraints?
49A security operations analyst is reviewing a risk register entry for a web application vulnerability. The entry shows a high likelihood and high impact, but the business owner has decided to accept the risk because the application is scheduled for decommissioning in two months. Which risk treatment strategy is being applied?
50A financial services firm is updating its risk management program and wants to strengthen how it treats risks that fall outside its risk appetite. The board has asked which activities are core components of a formal risk treatment process. (Choose two.)
51A CCOA analyst is establishing a risk appetite statement for a hospital network that must balance patient safety, regulatory obligations under HIPAA, and operational availability of clinical systems. Which TWO characteristics must the risk appetite statement exhibit to be considered effective by ISACA risk governance principles? (Choose two.)
52An organization's risk register shows a customer database risk with an annualized loss expectancy of $240,000. A proposed data loss prevention and encryption program costs $90,000 per year and is expected to reduce annualized loss expectancy to $60,000. The CFO asks whether the investment is justified on a purely quantitative basis. What should the analyst report?
53A CCOA analyst is evaluating a third-party SaaS vendor that will process regulated financial data. The vendor's SOC 2 Type II report covers security and availability but excludes confidentiality. The contract includes a right-to-audit clause and a 24-hour breach notification requirement. Which remaining action is MOST important to close the assurance gap?
54A CCOA analyst at a healthcare provider is reviewing the risk treatment plan for a legacy on-premises EHR system. The system cannot be patched, and the vendor no longer supports it. The organization decides to purchase cyber insurance to cover potential losses from a breach of this system. Which risk treatment option does this decision represent?
55A CCOA analyst is performing a quantitative risk assessment for a new customer-facing API. The asset value is $500,000, the exposure factor is 40%, and the annualized rate of occurrence is 0.2. What is the annualized loss expectancy (ALE)?
56A CCOA analyst is reviewing the organization's cybersecurity policy framework. The analyst needs to identify the document that provides high-level direction and states the organization's commitment to cybersecurity, but does not include detailed procedures or technical configurations. Which type of document should the analyst reference?
57A CCOA analyst is assessing the risk of a third-party SaaS provider that will process sensitive customer data. The provider's SOC 2 Type II report shows no exceptions, but the provider will not allow on-site audits. Which action should the analyst take to best address the residual risk?
58A CCOA analyst is reviewing the organization's risk appetite statement, which states the company will accept no more than $500,000 in annualized loss expectancy (ALE) from any single risk. A newly identified risk has a single loss expectancy (SLE) of $250,000 and an annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) of 4. What is the ALE, and what should the analyst conclude?
59A CCOA analyst is conducting a risk assessment for a new cloud-based collaboration platform. The analyst must identify TWO qualitative risk analysis techniques that are appropriate for this assessment. (Choose two.)
60A CCOA analyst is mapping an identified risk to the organization's risk response strategy. The risk is a legacy internal payroll application that cannot be patched; the business unit has decided to keep running it because replacement would cost more than the potential loss, and management has signed a formal acceptance memo. Which risk response has been applied?
61A CCOA analyst is asked to explain the difference between a vulnerability, a threat, and a risk during a security awareness session. A server is missing a critical patch, a known ransomware group actively targets that flaw, and the server stores regulated data. Which statement correctly describes the relationship?
62A CCOA analyst is helping the security team select controls for a new public-facing web application. The team wants to apply the principle of defense in depth, ensuring that no single control failure exposes the application. Which two controls best demonstrate layered, independent protection for this scenario? (Choose two.)
63A CCOA analyst is reviewing the organization's residual risk position after implementing a new endpoint detection and response (EDR) tool. The original inherent risk score was 16 (high), and the control effectiveness assessment reduces it to a residual score of 6 (medium). The risk owner asks whether the risk can now be closed in the register. What is the most appropriate response?
You must classify controls correctly and match the control to the stated risk goal. The single most important thing: distinguish preventive, detective, and corrective controls, and know whether a control is administrative, technical, or physical before selecting your answer.
The Courseiva CCOA question bank contains 63 questions in the Cybersecurity Principles And Risk domain. Click any question to see the full explanation and answer breakdown.
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