CCSM Multiple Select — 20 Questions

Question 1

Which TWO of the following troubleshooting commands are most effective for isolating VPN traffic flow issues in the kernel?

Accepted Answer

fw monitor -e 'accept host(10.1.1.1);'. Using 'fw monitor' and 'vpn debug' provides visibility into traffic encapsulation and decryption processes. 'fw monitor' intercepts packets at different inspection points, while 'vpn debug' (or 'vpn debug mon') allows administrators to see the actual VPN tunnel processing logic. These tools are critical for distinguishing between routing issues, policy drops, and cryptographic failure points within the Check Point gateway architecture.

Answer

fw ctl arp

Answer

cpconfig

Answer

cphaprob stat

Question 2

Which THREE conditions must be met for a successful Site-to-Site VPN tunnel establishment?

Accepted Answer

Both peers must agree on IKE Phase 1 and Phase 2 proposals.. Site-to-site VPNs require agreement on cryptographic parameters for two phases of negotiation, matching identity and security policies, and connectivity between the peers. These three conditions represent the foundational requirements for the IKE protocol to function. If any of these items are misconfigured, the negotiation will inevitably fail, preventing the creation of the secure tunnel required for data transmission.

Answer

The gateway must have a valid license for at least 1,000 concurrent tunnels.

Answer

Both peers must use the same vendor hardware for the VPN gateway.

Question 3

Which TWO of the following actions are available when configuring Threat Extraction to handle potentially malicious documents? (Select 2)

Accepted Answer

Extracting potentially malicious parts like macros and embedded objects.. Threat Extraction focuses on delivering safe content to users instantly by stripping away active or exploitable parts of a file. Understanding the difference between cleaning a file and converting it is essential for balancing document usability with the organization's risk tolerance and security requirements.

Answer

Encrypting the document with a password before delivery.

Answer

Quarantining the file on the local endpoint for manual review.

Answer

Automatically uploading the file to a public malware sandbox.

Question 4

Which THREE of the following operational characteristics are true regarding the behavior of the Threat Extraction blade on a Check Point Security Gateway? (Choose three)

Accepted Answer

It rebuilds supported file formats by removing active content such as macros, embedded scripts, and executable objects.. Threat Extraction actively strips potentially malicious active content from documents in real time, delivering a sanitized file instantly while optionally processing the original file asynchronously in Threat Emulation. It supports common office document formats and PDF files, ensuring enterprise productivity is never hindered by lengthy zero-day sandboxing delays.

Answer

It delays the delivery of all documents until the cloud sandbox fully executes and validates the file behavior.

Answer

It requires an active internet connection to perform local file macro-stripping without utilizing cloud resources.

Question 5

Which TWO of the following are common reasons for VPN tunnel packet fragmentation?

Accepted Answer

VPN overhead exceeding the path MTU. Fragmentation occurs when the packet size, combined with the additional overhead of VPN headers (like ESP), exceeds the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) of the path between gateways. This is a common performance killer in VPNs. It can be mitigated by reducing the MSS value in the TCP settings or by adjusting the interface MTU, ensuring packets do not need to be split and reassembled.

Answer

Incorrect IKE Phase 2 encryption algorithm

Answer

Expired IPsec security associations

Answer

High CPU utilization on the gateway

Question 6

Which TWO of the following statements accurately describe the functionality of the Threat Extraction blade in Check Point R81.x?

Accepted Answer

It removes active content like macros or embedded scripts from documents before delivery.. Threat Extraction is a proactive technology that removes potentially malicious content from documents, such as embedded scripts, macros, or active objects. It delivers a sanitized version of the file immediately to the end-user. Simultaneously, the original file is sent for Threat Emulation in the background. This ensures that business operations continue without significant latency while maintaining a high level of security against zero-day file-based threats.

Answer

It delays file delivery until the full Threat Emulation analysis is completed for the document.

Answer

It is only compatible with Windows-based file systems and cannot scan files sent via SMTP.

Answer

It replaces the Anti-Virus blade by performing signature-based detection on all incoming files.

Question 7

An administrator is configuring a Check Point Management Server to send logs to an external syslog server. They need to ensure that logs are exported in a format that the syslog server can parse. Which two actions must be performed to enable syslog export? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Define the syslog server's IP address and port in the log export configuration.. To enable syslog export on a Check Point Management Server, the administrator must enable the 'Send logs to syslog server' option and specify the syslog server's IP address and port. These two actions are the core requirements. Other steps like adding the syslog server as a log server object or installing a policy are not part of the standard configuration for external syslog export.

Answer

Install a policy on the Management Server to allow outbound syslog traffic.

Answer

Restart the Management Server for the changes to take effect.

Answer

Configure the syslog server as a log server in SmartConsole.

Question 8

A Check Point Security Gateway is configured for a site-to-site VPN with a Cisco ASA. The tunnel is up, but traffic is not passing. You suspect a Phase 2 issue. Which TWO of the following should you check to resolve the problem? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Verify that the encryption domains on both gateways are symmetrical and include all necessary subnets.. The two critical checks for Phase 2 traffic issues are the encryption domains and the Phase 2 proposal. If the encryption domains are not symmetrical or are missing subnets, traffic will not be encrypted or accepted. If the Phase 2 proposal algorithms do not match, the IPsec SA cannot be established or will fail to process traffic. Both are common causes of traffic failure despite an active tunnel. Phase 1 settings like shared secret or certificates are not relevant because the tunnel is already up.

Answer

Check that the IKE Phase 1 shared secret matches on both gateways.

Answer

Verify that the peer gateway's certificate is valid and not expired.

Answer

Check that the IKE Phase 1 lifetime matches on both gateways.

Question 9

An administrator is troubleshooting an IPsec VPN that intermittently drops large file transfers while small pings succeed. The gateways are Check Point Security Gateways running R81.20. Which TWO actions should the administrator take to identify and resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Check whether the IPsec packet size exceeds the path MTU and enable MSS clamping or adjust the MTU on the external interface.. Intermittent drops during large transfers while small pings succeed point to an MTU or fragmentation problem. Checking whether IPsec packets exceed the path MTU and applying MSS clamping or MTU adjustments reduces packet size, while verifying DF bit handling and allowing ICMP type 3 code 4 ensures Path MTU Discovery works. Together these actions identify and resolve the size-dependent packet loss.

Answer

Run 'vpn debug ikeon' and analyze ike.elg for Phase 1 and Phase 2 negotiation errors.

Answer

Disable NAT-Traversal on both gateways to eliminate UDP encapsulation overhead.

Answer

Reset the user's certificate and require re-enrollment to refresh the IKE credentials.

Question 10

An administrator is deploying Threat Extraction on a Check Point R81 Security Gateway to sanitize documents downloaded from the internet. The administrator wants to ensure that the solution meets security and usability requirements. Which two statements are true regarding Threat Extraction? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Threat Extraction can be configured to provide a download link for the original file, allowing users to access it after a warning.. Threat Extraction reconstructs files to remove active content, ensuring safe delivery, and can optionally provide a link to the original file for user access with a warning. These two statements accurately describe its capabilities. The blade operates independently of Threat Emulation and does not rely on Anti-Virus verdicts to decide when to sanitize.

Answer

Threat Extraction only sanitizes files that are determined to be malicious by the Anti-Virus blade.

Answer

Threat Extraction always delivers the original file if the sanitized version cannot be created within a specified timeout.

Answer

Threat Extraction requires the Threat Emulation blade to be enabled because it relies on sandbox verdicts to decide whether to sanitize.

Question 11

An administrator is troubleshooting a Security Gateway that is dropping packets unexpectedly. The administrator wants to gather advanced debugging information about the drops, including the specific reason and the chain of inspection modules involved. Which two commands should the administrator use to achieve this? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

fw ctl zdebug drop. To troubleshoot unexpected drops, the administrator needs both the specific reason for each drop and the context of the inspection modules. fw ctl zdebug drop provides real-time debug messages with drop reasons, while fw ctl chain shows the order of inspection modules, helping to understand where in the processing path the drop occurred. Together, they offer a comprehensive view of the drop scenario.

Answer

fw debug fw -d 5

Answer

fw monitor -e "drop;"

Answer

cpstat fw -f drops

Question 12

An administrator is troubleshooting a Check Point Remote Access VPN where users authenticate via LDAP but are not getting an IP address from the gateway's IP pool. The logs show 'user authenticated' but no 'IP assigned' message. Which TWO actions should the administrator take to resolve this? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Ensure the gateway's Office Mode is enabled and the correct IP pool is selected for the relevant users.. When LDAP authentication succeeds but no IP is assigned, the issue lies in the Office Mode configuration. The two critical checks are whether Office Mode is enabled with the correct IP pool for the user group, and whether the pool has available addresses. These directly address the failure to assign an IP.

Answer

Verify that the user's client software is configured to request an IP address from the gateway.

Answer

Check that the LDAP server is reachable and the user credentials are correct.

Answer

Restart the Check Point gateway to clear any temporary IP pool allocation errors.

Question 13

An administrator is planning to deploy a Check Point Security Gateway in a clustered configuration for high availability. The administrator must ensure that the cluster can fail over seamlessly and that the gateways can synchronize connection state. Which two components are required to achieve this? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

A dedicated synchronization network, also known as the sync network, between cluster members.. To achieve seamless failover and state synchronization in a Check Point cluster, ClusterXL must be configured on the cluster members, and a dedicated synchronization network is required. ClusterXL handles the clustering logic and failover, while the sync network ensures state information is exchanged. Other options like VRRP, Management HA, or multicast are not required for gateway clustering.

Answer

A Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) configuration on each gateway.

Answer

A multicast address for cluster synchronization.

Answer

Management High Availability configured between two Security Management Servers.

Question 14

An administrator is troubleshooting a Check Point VPN where a site-to-site tunnel is up, but some traffic is not being encrypted and is sent in clear text. The administrator suspects that the encryption domain is misconfigured. Which two actions should the administrator take to verify and resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Verify that the encryption domain includes all internal subnets that should be encrypted.. Clear-text traffic in an active VPN tunnel typically indicates that some packets do not match the encryption domain, so they bypass the VPN. Verifying that the encryption domain includes all intended subnets and that the VPN community is correctly configured with non-overlapping domains ensures all relevant traffic is encrypted. Other actions like changing lifetimes or enabling PFS do not affect traffic selection.

Answer

Restart the Check Point services on both gateways to apply any pending changes.

Answer

Enable Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) to ensure stronger encryption.

Answer

Increase the Phase 2 lifetime to reduce rekey frequency.

Question 15

A security analyst is investigating a malware outbreak and needs to identify the command and control (C&C) infrastructure used by the malware. The analyst has access to Check Point ThreatCloud and SmartLog. Which two actions should the analyst take to identify the C&C servers? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Query ThreatCloud for the malware's hash to retrieve associated C&C IP addresses.. ThreatCloud provides a repository of malware indicators, including C&C IPs linked to file hashes, and Anti-Bot logs capture outbound C&C traffic. Together, these actions efficiently identify C&C infrastructure. The other options are either less direct or focus on host remediation rather than network indicators.

Answer

Check the Threat Emulation report for the malware sample to see if it lists C&C domains.

Answer

Analyze firewall logs for inbound connections from known malicious IPs.

Answer

Run a full system scan on the infected host using Anti-Virus.

Question 16

A security administrator is configuring a Check Point R81.20 Management Server to use an external User Directory for administrator authentication. The administrator wants to ensure that users can log into SmartConsole using their Active Directory credentials and that group membership determines their permission profile. Which two actions must be performed to achieve this? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Configure the User Directory object in SmartConsole to point to the Active Directory server.. To enable AD authentication and group-based permissions for SmartConsole, you must configure a User Directory object pointing to the AD server and define administrator groups mapped to AD groups. This allows AD users to log in with their credentials and inherit permissions based on their group membership. Manual account creation and other options are not required.

Answer

Install a Check Point identity awareness blade on the Management Server.

Answer

Enable LDAP over SSL (LDAPS) on the Management Server to encrypt authentication traffic.

Answer

Create an administrator account for each AD user and manually assign permission profiles.

Question 17

A security administrator is analyzing a Check Point Threat Emulation report for a suspicious PDF file that was emulated. The report indicates that the file attempted to connect to a remote server and download additional content. The administrator wants to identify the specific Indicators of Compromise (IOCs) from the report to block future attacks. Which TWO pieces of information should the administrator extract from the Threat Emulation report to create effective threat prevention rules? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

The URL or IP address of the remote server contacted by the PDF.. The two most valuable IOCs from the Threat Emulation report are the SHA-256 hash of the malicious file and the URL or IP address of the remote server it contacted. These can be directly used to create blocking rules in Check Point Threat Prevention, preventing similar attacks. Other details like file size or author are not reliable for detection.

Answer

The date and time the PDF was created.

Answer

The file size of the PDF.

Answer

The name of the PDF author from the document properties.

Question 18

An administrator is troubleshooting a VPN tunnel that is not establishing between two Check Point Security Gateways. They suspect an issue with IKE negotiation. Which TWO commands are most appropriate to debug the IKE negotiation process? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

vpn debug trunc. The commands vpn debug ikeon and vpn debug trunc are both used to enable and manage IKE debugging. vpn debug ikeon starts logging IKE negotiation details, while vpn debug trunc truncates the log and can also start debugging. Together, they provide the necessary information to diagnose IKE failures. The other commands either show packet-level information without IKE payload or provide general VPN statistics, which are less useful for this specific issue.

Answer

fw ctl zdebug drop

Answer

cpstat -f vpn

Answer

fw monitor -e 'accept;'

Question 19

An administrator is deploying a new R81 Security Gateway with Threat Prevention blades. The administrator needs to ensure that Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction work together to protect against zero-day threats in email attachments. Which TWO of the following statements accurately describe the combined operation of these blades? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Threat Extraction sanitizes attachments before delivery, while Threat Emulation analyzes the original file in a sandbox.. Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation are complementary. Threat Extraction immediately sanitizes files to remove active content, providing a safe version for users. Meanwhile, Threat Emulation analyzes the original file in a sandbox to detect unknown malware. If malicious, the file is blocked, but the sanitized version may still be delivered. This dual approach ensures both immediate and dynamic protection.

Answer

Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation cannot be enabled on the same gateway due to performance constraints.

Answer

Threat Extraction requires Threat Emulation to be disabled to function properly.

Answer

Threat Emulation only scans files that have been sanitized by Threat Extraction.

Question 20

An administrator is hardening a Threat Prevention policy against zero-day exploits. The goal is to reduce exposure to unknown exploits while limiting false positives on business-critical applications. Which TWO measures are appropriate for this objective? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Enable the relevant IPS protections, including those marked as high confidence for the affected services, and set the profile to Prevent.. Hardening against zero-day exploits calls for complementary layers. Enabling high-confidence IPS protections in Prevent mode blocks known exploitation techniques on the services in use, while Threat Emulation detonates unknown files delivered to critical hosts and blocks malicious ones. Scoping emulation to critical hosts manages performance, and high-confidence IPS keeps false positives low, together reducing exposure without broadly exempting valuable assets.

Answer

Add broad exceptions for all protections on business-critical servers to eliminate any chance of false positives.

Answer

Rely solely on Anti-Bot to block command-and-control callbacks, since exploit traffic is always part of a botnet.

Answer

Disable IPS protections rated as low confidence to reduce noise, leaving only medium and high confidence enabled.