CCSM Advanced Threat Prevention — All Questions With Answers

Question 1mediummultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

An administrator notices that Threat Emulation is failing to emulate files coming through the corporate HTTP proxy because the traffic appears to originate from the proxy's IP address. Which configuration change ensures that Threat Emulation inspects the true client IP address for logging and reputation enforcement?

Question 2hardmultiple choice

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A security analyst observes that a known evasive ransomware variant successfully bypassed Threat Extraction in a newly deployed Threat Prevention profile. The file was delivered via a macro-enabled Excel spreadsheet. Which policy adjustment should the administrator make to prevent this specific evasion technique without completely blocking all spreadsheet traffic?

Question 3hardmulti select

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Which THREE parameters can be customized when configuring custom Threat Emulation threat profile overrides in SmartConsole? (Choose THREE)

Question 4mediummultiple choice

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A security administrator needs to ensure that users cannot download any potentially malicious executable files from the internet, but they must minimize the impact on business productivity for trusted internal applications. Which Threat Emulation deployment mode and configuration should be prioritized for this requirement?

Question 5hardmultiple choice

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Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the 'tecli' command, what will happen to the next file that requires cloud-based emulation?

Exhibit

Expert@Gateway:~$ tecli show cloud query

Emulation Cloud Query: Connected
Quota: 10000
Used: 9999
Exceeded: No
Cloud Services: Available

Question 6mediummultiple choice

Read the full DNS explanation →

An administrator notices that the Anti-Bot blade is flagging multiple internal hosts for communicating with a known Command and Control (C&C) server. How does the Anti-Bot 'DNS Trap' feature assist in identifying these infected hosts?

Question 7hardmulti select

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When analyzing a SandBlast Agent Forensics report, which TWO pieces of information are critical for understanding the 'entry point' of an attack? (Select 2)

Question 8easymultiple choice

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Which Threat Prevention profile setting allows an administrator to quickly apply a pre-defined set of protections optimized for a balance between security and performance?

Question 9hardmultiple choice

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Refer to the exhibit. An administrator notices the 'Failures' count is increasing. Which of the following is the most likely cause of emulation failures in a cloud-based deployment?

Exhibit

Expert@Gateway:~$ tecli show statistics

Emulation Statistics:
-------------------
Total files emulated: 1500
Success: 1450
Failures: 50
Average processing time: 45 sec
Local queue size: 12

Question 10mediummulti select

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The IPS blade uses 'Protections' to identify malicious activity. Which THREE of the following are valid categories of IPS protections? (Select 3)

Question 11hardmultiple choice

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In a ClusterXL High Availability environment, how is the Threat Emulation state synchronized between members to ensure a seamless failover?

Question 12hardmulti select

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When configuring the Threat Emulation engine, which TWO environments can be used for sandboxing suspicious files? (Select 2)

Question 13mediummultiple choice

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An administrator observes that Threat Emulation is failing to detect a malicious file that mimics legitimate software. The file uses a custom packing algorithm to evade signature-based detection. Which configuration change best improves the capture rate for this specific threat?

Question 14hardmultiple choice

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Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is investigating why a user at 192.168.1.50 is unable to access an internal web server. Based on the CLI output, what is the primary cause of the connection drop?

Exhibit

fw ctl zdebug + drop | grep 192.168.1.50
[DATE TIME] drop: <192.168.1.50,5678,10.0.0.1,80>...Reason: Threat Prevention blocked; [action=Block, profile=Standard_Profile, blade=Anti-Bot, rule=12]

Question 15mediummultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator is tuning a Threat Prevention profile for a web server farm. The security team wants to ensure that any inbound file that is not explicitly trusted by hash is sent to the sandbox for analysis, even if the file type is normally allowed by the profile. Which Threat Prevention profile setting should the administrator configure to achieve this?

Question 16mediummultiple choice

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An administrator deploys a Check Point R81 Security Gateway with Threat Prevention enabled. Users report that downloading a legitimate business application from a trusted vendor site is being blocked. The administrator reviews the logs and sees that the Threat Emulation blade flagged the file as malicious with a verdict of 'Malicious' based on static analysis. The administrator wants to allow this specific file without disabling the blade globally. Which Check Point feature should the administrator use to create a permanent exception for this file?

Question 17easymultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator is configuring Threat Emulation for a remote branch office that has limited bandwidth. The administrator wants to minimize the impact on user traffic while still inspecting files. Which deployment mode for Threat Emulation is most appropriate in this scenario?

Question 18hardmultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator is configuring Threat Extraction for a large enterprise. The security policy requires that all incoming emails with attachments are processed by Threat Extraction in 'Prevent' mode. After deployment, users report that they cannot open PDF attachments because the files are corrupted. The administrator checks the logs and sees that Threat Extraction is failing to reconstruct the files. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

Question 19hardmulti select

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A Check Point administrator is deploying Threat Emulation in a high-security environment where files must be analyzed on-premises due to data sovereignty requirements. The administrator plans to use a dedicated Threat Emulation appliance. Which TWO components are required for this deployment? (Choose two.)

Question 20hardmultiple choice

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A security engineer is tuning a Threat Prevention profile for a data center segment that hosts latency-sensitive financial trading applications. The engineer wants Check Point to inspect files for malicious behavior without holding the original file from the destination host, while still allowing the file to be delivered. Which Threat Emulation configuration should the engineer select?

Question 21mediummultiple choice

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An administrator is configuring Threat Extraction to sanitize documents. The administrator wants to ensure that the original file is retained and can be accessed by users if needed, while also providing a sanitized version. Which Threat Extraction setting should be configured to meet this requirement?

Question 22hardmulti select

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A security analyst is investigating a series of alerts from Threat Emulation indicating that a malicious executable was detected. The analyst wants to understand the behavior of the malware during emulation. Which TWO types of information are provided in the Threat Emulation report to help understand the malware's behavior? (Choose two.)

Question 23mediummultiple choice

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An administrator configures a Threat Prevention profile in a Check Point R81 environment. Users report that a legitimate internal application is being blocked when it sends files to a partner's SFTP server. The logs show the block is triggered by the Anti-Virus blade with the protection 'Malicious_File_Transfer'. The administrator verifies the file is clean and wants to prevent this specific protection from blocking the application without disabling Anti-Virus entirely. What should the administrator do?

Question 24hardmultiple choice

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A security engineer is troubleshooting why Threat Emulation is not inspecting files downloaded from a specific web server. The engineer notices that the files are downloaded over HTTPS, and the gateway is configured with HTTPS Inspection. However, the files still bypass emulation. What is the most likely cause?

Question 25hardmultiple choice

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A security analyst is investigating a series of alerts from Check Point Threat Emulation. The logs indicate that files uploaded via HTTP POST to an external server are being emulated, but the emulation is consistently timing out after 60 seconds. The files are large (over 100 MB) and are being sent to a known business partner. The analyst needs to ensure these files are not blocked due to timeouts while still maintaining security. What is the most appropriate action?

Question 26mediummultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator is configuring Threat Emulation for a remote office that has limited bandwidth. The administrator wants to minimize the amount of data sent to the Check Point ThreatCloud for emulation while still detecting malicious files. Which feature should be enabled to achieve this?

Question 27hardmulti select

Read the full DNS explanation →

A Check Point administrator is tuning an Anti-Bot policy and observes that a specific internal server is generating repeated 'DNS Tunneling' alerts. The server is a legitimate DNS forwarder that also performs large TXT queries for a business application. The administrator wants to reduce false positives without disabling DNS tunneling detection globally. Which TWO actions are appropriate? (Choose two.)

Question 28hardmulti select

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Which TWO actions occur when a file is submitted to Threat Emulation in Threat Extraction's 'Prevent' mode? (Choose TWO)

Question 29mediummultiple choice

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A security administrator needs to configure Threat Emulation to analyze suspicious files inside a secured, air-gapped network environment that lacks direct internet access to Check Point ThreatCloud. Which deployment architecture satisfies this requirement?

Question 30mediummultiple choice

Review the full subnetting walkthrough →

An administrator notices that the Anti-Bot software blade is generating numerous high-severity alerts for an internal server, but investigation reveals the traffic is generated by a legitimate corporate vulnerability scanner. Which action should the administrator take to prevent these false positives while maintaining maximum security for actual client subnets?

Question 31mediummultiple choice

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An administrator configures Threat Extraction in an environment experiencing heavy email traffic delays. Users complain that inbound emails containing ZIP archives are heavily delayed. Which setting should be adjusted to balance security and mail flow performance?

Question 32hardmultiple choice

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Refer to the exhibit.

[Warning: ThreatCloud Emulation Timeout]

File: payload.exe Action: Blocked Reason: Emulation timeout exceeded due to heavy load.

An administrator reviews the log output shown above and wants to ensure that future legitimate large executable files are not blocked solely due to emulation timeouts during peak hours. Which configuration change best addresses this issue?

Question 33mediummultiple choice

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An organization's security policy requires that all Zero-Day malware detected by Threat Emulation must be quarantined instantly and reported to the local SOC. However, the security team complains that alerts lack sufficient contextual detail to determine the attack vector. Which feature should be enabled to improve forensic visibility into these detected threats?

Question 34mediummultiple choice

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A security administrator is troubleshooting an issue where Anti-Bot is failing to block communications to a known malicious Command and Control (C&C) server. The traffic traverses the firewall via an encrypted HTTPS tunnel. Which configuration ensures that Anti-Bot can inspect and block this encrypted traffic?

Question 35hardmultiple choice

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Refer to the exhibit.

[Threat Prevention Log Summary]

Protection Name: Suspicious_HTTP_Header Confidence: Low Action: Detect Source IP: 192.168.10.50 Destination IP: 203.0.113.25

An administrator reviews the log snippet above and notices that the action taken was 'Detect' despite the threat profile being set to 'Prevent'. What is the most likely cause for this behavior?

Question 36mediummultiple choice

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An administrator configures Threat Prevention on a Check Point Security Gateway to inspect incoming SMTP traffic using Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction. A user reports that a legitimate archive file containing confidential reports was modified, and all executable files inside the archive were stripped out. Which configuration adjustment resolves this while maintaining adequate security?

Question 37hardmultiple choice

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An organization is experiencing a high volume of malicious email attachments reaching user inboxes. The administrator decides to enable the Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) on the security gateway. What is the primary advantage of using MTA mode over traditional SMTP inspection for Threat Emulation?

Question 38mediummulti select

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Which TWO of the following actions are available when configuring Threat Extraction to handle potentially malicious documents? (Select 2)

Question 39mediummultiple choice

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Which SandBlast feature is specifically designed to protect users from entering their corporate credentials into known or suspected phishing websites?

Question 40mediummulti select

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Which TWO of the following statements accurately describe the functionality of the Threat Extraction blade in Check Point R81.x?

Question 41hardmultiple choice

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You are deploying Threat Prevention across a large, distributed enterprise network. To minimize false positives while maintaining a strong security posture, which strategy is recommended for the initial implementation of the Threat Prevention policy?

Question 42hardmulti select

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An organization is concerned about data exfiltration via DNS tunneling. Which THREE configurations should be applied to the Threat Prevention policy to effectively mitigate this risk?

Question 43hardmultiple choice

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A security architect is designing a Threat Emulation deployment for a high-security research lab. The lab's most sensitive hosts run a proprietary real-time operating system (RTOS) on ARM64 processors and cannot run any endpoint agent. Analysts need every suspicious file opened on these RTOS hosts to be emulated before execution, and they require the emulation to occur locally on a dedicated appliance with no internet connectivity. Which Threat Emulation deployment mode should the architect configure?

Question 44hardmultiple choice

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A security analyst is investigating a series of alerts from the Anti-Bot blade. The logs show that an internal host is repeatedly connecting to a domain that resolves to multiple IP addresses, and the connections use HTTP with a User-Agent string that changes on each request. The analyst suspects a botnet using domain generation algorithm (DGA) and fast-flux techniques. Which Check Point feature would provide the most direct evidence to confirm this suspicion?

Question 45mediummultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator is investigating a security incident where a user's computer was infected with malware. The malware was downloaded via HTTP and executed. The administrator reviews the Threat Prevention logs and sees that the Anti-Bot blade detected communication with a known command and control server but did not block it. The logs show the action as 'Detect' instead of 'Prevent'. What is the most likely reason for this?

Question 46mediummultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator is tuning ThreatCloud Intelligence consumption on a Security Gateway that fronts a busy web farm. Internal penetration tests show that files downloaded over TLS are reaching endpoints without ever being emulated, even though the Threat Emulation blade is enabled on the gateway and shows as active. Reviewing SmartConsole, the administrator confirms the HTTPS inspection policy exists but no certificate is presented to internal clients. What is the most likely cause of the missing emulation?

Question 47mediummultiple choice

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A security administrator is configuring Threat Emulation for a new gateway. The administrator wants to ensure that files are emulated in a way that matches the actual endpoint environment as closely as possible, including the specific operating system version, installed applications, and browser plug-ins. Which Threat Emulation setting should the administrator configure to achieve this?

Question 48hardmultiple choice

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An administrator investigating slow web browsing notices that Threat Emulation is submitting every downloaded portable executable to the cloud sandbox, including files from a trusted internal software repository. The repository is on the internal network, and the administrator wants to stop emulation for those downloads without weakening protection for internet traffic. Which configuration change best addresses this requirement?

Question 49hardmultiple choice

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A security engineer is troubleshooting why Threat Emulation is not detecting a malicious document that exploits a vulnerability in a specific PDF reader version. The engineer confirms that the file is sent for emulation and that the emulation completes successfully, but no malicious activity is observed. The engineer suspects that the emulation environment does not have the vulnerable PDF reader version installed. Which action should the engineer take to resolve this issue?

Question 50mediummultiple choice

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A security operations team wants to correlate ThreatCloud verdicts with local logs. They observe that a file downloaded from an external site was blocked by Threat Emulation, but the SmartLog record shows the verdict as 'Malicious' with no forensic report attached. The administrator confirms the file was submitted successfully. Which statement best explains the missing forensic report?

Question 51mediummultiple choice

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An administrator is reviewing a Threat Prevention log and sees a high volume of 'Low Confidence' detections for a custom-protected HTTP header on a public-facing web server. The administrator wants to reduce noise while still logging these events for later analysis, without blocking legitimate traffic. What should the administrator do?

Question 52hardmulti select

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An administrator is hardening a Threat Prevention policy against zero-day exploits. The goal is to reduce exposure to unknown exploits while limiting false positives on business-critical applications. Which TWO measures are appropriate for this objective? (Choose two.)

Question 53mediummultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator is configuring the Anti-Virus blade on a Security Gateway. The organization wants to prevent users from downloading files that match known malware signatures, but also wants to avoid blocking legitimate files that are merely suspicious. Which Anti-Virus action should the administrator select for the malware signature category?

Question 54hardmultiple choice

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An administrator is deploying Threat Emulation in a data center where a Security Gateway cluster handles both north-south and east-west traffic. The team wants files to be emulated without sending them to the public cloud, because data residency rules forbid external submission. Which deployment approach satisfies the requirement while keeping emulation functional?

Question 55mediummultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator is configuring Anti-Bot to detect and block communication with command-and-control servers. The administrator wants to ensure that the gateway can identify botnet traffic even when the C&C server uses a domain generation algorithm (DGA) to frequently change its domain names. Which Anti-Bot feature should the administrator enable to address this?

Question 56mediummultiple choice

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An administrator is configuring Threat Extraction to sanitize documents. The organization requires that all active content be removed from PDF files, but the original file must be retained for auditing. Which Threat Extraction setting should be configured?

Question 57hardmultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator is tuning a Threat Prevention profile for a site that repeatedly generates 'Protected Scope' violations with the 'Prevent' action on the 'Suspicious Executable Download' protection. The administrator wants to stop blocking these downloads while still logging them, but must not weaken any other protections in the profile. What is the most precise way to accomplish this?

Question 58hardmulti select

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A security analyst is investigating a malware outbreak and needs to identify the command and control (C&C) infrastructure used by the malware. The analyst has access to Check Point ThreatCloud and SmartLog. Which two actions should the analyst take to identify the C&C servers? (Choose two.)

Question 59mediummultiple choice

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A Check Point Security Master is configuring ThreatCloud to receive and share threat intelligence. The organization's policy requires that no file content ever leave the premises, but they still want to benefit from global reputation and indicator feeds. Which ThreatCloud feature should be enabled or disabled to meet this requirement while keeping reputation services functional?

Question 60hardmulti select

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A security administrator is analyzing a Check Point Threat Emulation report for a suspicious PDF file that was emulated. The report indicates that the file attempted to connect to a remote server and download additional content. The administrator wants to identify the specific Indicators of Compromise (IOCs) from the report to block future attacks. Which TWO pieces of information should the administrator extract from the Threat Emulation report to create effective threat prevention rules? (Choose two.)

Question 61mediummultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator configures Threat Emulation to run on a Security Gateway. Files submitted for emulation are taking too long, and the administrator wants to ensure that users are not blocked indefinitely while still protecting them. Which Threat Emulation configuration best addresses this?

Question 62easymultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator is reviewing Threat Prevention logs and notices a high number of 'Detect' alerts for the protection 'Suspicious_Executable_Download' but no 'Prevent' actions. The administrator wants to ensure that this protection blocks malicious downloads in the future. What should the administrator do?

Question 63easymultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator wants to verify that Threat Prevention is inspecting traffic on a specific Security Gateway. The administrator needs a quick, built-in way to see which protections are active and whether they are logging. Which tool should be used?

Question 1mediummultiple choice

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An administrator notices that Threat Emulation is failing to emulate files coming through the corporate HTTP proxy because the traffic appears to originate from the proxy's IP address. Which configuration change ensures that Threat Emulation inspects the true client IP address for logging and reputation enforcement?

Question 2hardmultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

A security analyst observes that a known evasive ransomware variant successfully bypassed Threat Extraction in a newly deployed Threat Prevention profile. The file was delivered via a macro-enabled Excel spreadsheet. Which policy adjustment should the administrator make to prevent this specific evasion technique without completely blocking all spreadsheet traffic?

Question 3hardmulti select

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

Which THREE parameters can be customized when configuring custom Threat Emulation threat profile overrides in SmartConsole? (Choose THREE)

Question 4mediummultiple choice

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A security administrator needs to ensure that users cannot download any potentially malicious executable files from the internet, but they must minimize the impact on business productivity for trusted internal applications. Which Threat Emulation deployment mode and configuration should be prioritized for this requirement?

Question 5hardmultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the 'tecli' command, what will happen to the next file that requires cloud-based emulation?

Exhibit

Expert@Gateway:~$ tecli show cloud query

Emulation Cloud Query: Connected
Quota: 10000
Used: 9999
Exceeded: No
Cloud Services: Available

Question 6mediummultiple choice

Read the full DNS explanation →

An administrator notices that the Anti-Bot blade is flagging multiple internal hosts for communicating with a known Command and Control (C&C) server. How does the Anti-Bot 'DNS Trap' feature assist in identifying these infected hosts?

Question 7hardmulti select

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When analyzing a SandBlast Agent Forensics report, which TWO pieces of information are critical for understanding the 'entry point' of an attack? (Select 2)

Question 8easymultiple choice

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Which Threat Prevention profile setting allows an administrator to quickly apply a pre-defined set of protections optimized for a balance between security and performance?

Question 9hardmultiple choice

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Refer to the exhibit. An administrator notices the 'Failures' count is increasing. Which of the following is the most likely cause of emulation failures in a cloud-based deployment?

Exhibit

Expert@Gateway:~$ tecli show statistics

Emulation Statistics:
-------------------
Total files emulated: 1500
Success: 1450
Failures: 50
Average processing time: 45 sec
Local queue size: 12

Question 10mediummulti select

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The IPS blade uses 'Protections' to identify malicious activity. Which THREE of the following are valid categories of IPS protections? (Select 3)

Question 11hardmultiple choice

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In a ClusterXL High Availability environment, how is the Threat Emulation state synchronized between members to ensure a seamless failover?

Question 12hardmulti select

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When configuring the Threat Emulation engine, which TWO environments can be used for sandboxing suspicious files? (Select 2)

Question 13mediummultiple choice

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An administrator observes that Threat Emulation is failing to detect a malicious file that mimics legitimate software. The file uses a custom packing algorithm to evade signature-based detection. Which configuration change best improves the capture rate for this specific threat?

Question 14hardmultiple choice

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Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is investigating why a user at 192.168.1.50 is unable to access an internal web server. Based on the CLI output, what is the primary cause of the connection drop?

Exhibit

fw ctl zdebug + drop | grep 192.168.1.50
[DATE TIME] drop: <192.168.1.50,5678,10.0.0.1,80>...Reason: Threat Prevention blocked; [action=Block, profile=Standard_Profile, blade=Anti-Bot, rule=12]

Question 15mediummultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

A Check Point administrator is tuning a Threat Prevention profile for a web server farm. The security team wants to ensure that any inbound file that is not explicitly trusted by hash is sent to the sandbox for analysis, even if the file type is normally allowed by the profile. Which Threat Prevention profile setting should the administrator configure to achieve this?

Question 16mediummultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

An administrator deploys a Check Point R81 Security Gateway with Threat Prevention enabled. Users report that downloading a legitimate business application from a trusted vendor site is being blocked. The administrator reviews the logs and sees that the Threat Emulation blade flagged the file as malicious with a verdict of 'Malicious' based on static analysis. The administrator wants to allow this specific file without disabling the blade globally. Which Check Point feature should the administrator use to create a permanent exception for this file?

Question 17easymultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

A Check Point administrator is configuring Threat Emulation for a remote branch office that has limited bandwidth. The administrator wants to minimize the impact on user traffic while still inspecting files. Which deployment mode for Threat Emulation is most appropriate in this scenario?

Question 18hardmultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

A Check Point administrator is configuring Threat Extraction for a large enterprise. The security policy requires that all incoming emails with attachments are processed by Threat Extraction in 'Prevent' mode. After deployment, users report that they cannot open PDF attachments because the files are corrupted. The administrator checks the logs and sees that Threat Extraction is failing to reconstruct the files. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

Question 19hardmulti select

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

A Check Point administrator is deploying Threat Emulation in a high-security environment where files must be analyzed on-premises due to data sovereignty requirements. The administrator plans to use a dedicated Threat Emulation appliance. Which TWO components are required for this deployment? (Choose two.)

Question 20hardmultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

A security engineer is tuning a Threat Prevention profile for a data center segment that hosts latency-sensitive financial trading applications. The engineer wants Check Point to inspect files for malicious behavior without holding the original file from the destination host, while still allowing the file to be delivered. Which Threat Emulation configuration should the engineer select?

Question 21mediummultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

An administrator is configuring Threat Extraction to sanitize documents. The administrator wants to ensure that the original file is retained and can be accessed by users if needed, while also providing a sanitized version. Which Threat Extraction setting should be configured to meet this requirement?

Question 22hardmulti select

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

A security analyst is investigating a series of alerts from Threat Emulation indicating that a malicious executable was detected. The analyst wants to understand the behavior of the malware during emulation. Which TWO types of information are provided in the Threat Emulation report to help understand the malware's behavior? (Choose two.)

Question 23mediummultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

An administrator configures a Threat Prevention profile in a Check Point R81 environment. Users report that a legitimate internal application is being blocked when it sends files to a partner's SFTP server. The logs show the block is triggered by the Anti-Virus blade with the protection 'Malicious_File_Transfer'. The administrator verifies the file is clean and wants to prevent this specific protection from blocking the application without disabling Anti-Virus entirely. What should the administrator do?

Question 24hardmultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

A security engineer is troubleshooting why Threat Emulation is not inspecting files downloaded from a specific web server. The engineer notices that the files are downloaded over HTTPS, and the gateway is configured with HTTPS Inspection. However, the files still bypass emulation. What is the most likely cause?

Question 25hardmultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

A security analyst is investigating a series of alerts from Check Point Threat Emulation. The logs indicate that files uploaded via HTTP POST to an external server are being emulated, but the emulation is consistently timing out after 60 seconds. The files are large (over 100 MB) and are being sent to a known business partner. The analyst needs to ensure these files are not blocked due to timeouts while still maintaining security. What is the most appropriate action?

Question 26mediummultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

A Check Point administrator is configuring Threat Emulation for a remote office that has limited bandwidth. The administrator wants to minimize the amount of data sent to the Check Point ThreatCloud for emulation while still detecting malicious files. Which feature should be enabled to achieve this?

Question 27hardmulti select

Read the full DNS explanation →

A Check Point administrator is tuning an Anti-Bot policy and observes that a specific internal server is generating repeated 'DNS Tunneling' alerts. The server is a legitimate DNS forwarder that also performs large TXT queries for a business application. The administrator wants to reduce false positives without disabling DNS tunneling detection globally. Which TWO actions are appropriate? (Choose two.)

Question 28hardmulti select

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

Which TWO actions occur when a file is submitted to Threat Emulation in Threat Extraction's 'Prevent' mode? (Choose TWO)

Question 29mediummultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

A security administrator needs to configure Threat Emulation to analyze suspicious files inside a secured, air-gapped network environment that lacks direct internet access to Check Point ThreatCloud. Which deployment architecture satisfies this requirement?

Question 30mediummultiple choice

Review the full subnetting walkthrough →

An administrator notices that the Anti-Bot software blade is generating numerous high-severity alerts for an internal server, but investigation reveals the traffic is generated by a legitimate corporate vulnerability scanner. Which action should the administrator take to prevent these false positives while maintaining maximum security for actual client subnets?

Question 31mediummultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

An administrator configures Threat Extraction in an environment experiencing heavy email traffic delays. Users complain that inbound emails containing ZIP archives are heavily delayed. Which setting should be adjusted to balance security and mail flow performance?

Question 32hardmultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

Refer to the exhibit.

[Warning: ThreatCloud Emulation Timeout]

File: payload.exe Action: Blocked Reason: Emulation timeout exceeded due to heavy load.

Question 33mediummultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

An organization's security policy requires that all Zero-Day malware detected by Threat Emulation must be quarantined instantly and reported to the local SOC. However, the security team complains that alerts lack sufficient contextual detail to determine the attack vector. Which feature should be enabled to improve forensic visibility into these detected threats?

Question 34mediummultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

A security administrator is troubleshooting an issue where Anti-Bot is failing to block communications to a known malicious Command and Control (C&C) server. The traffic traverses the firewall via an encrypted HTTPS tunnel. Which configuration ensures that Anti-Bot can inspect and block this encrypted traffic?

Question 35hardmultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

Refer to the exhibit.

[Threat Prevention Log Summary]

Protection Name: Suspicious_HTTP_Header Confidence: Low Action: Detect Source IP: 192.168.10.50 Destination IP: 203.0.113.25

An administrator reviews the log snippet above and notices that the action taken was 'Detect' despite the threat profile being set to 'Prevent'. What is the most likely cause for this behavior?

Question 36mediummultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

An administrator configures Threat Prevention on a Check Point Security Gateway to inspect incoming SMTP traffic using Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction. A user reports that a legitimate archive file containing confidential reports was modified, and all executable files inside the archive were stripped out. Which configuration adjustment resolves this while maintaining adequate security?

Question 37hardmultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

An organization is experiencing a high volume of malicious email attachments reaching user inboxes. The administrator decides to enable the Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) on the security gateway. What is the primary advantage of using MTA mode over traditional SMTP inspection for Threat Emulation?

Question 38mediummulti select

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

Which TWO of the following actions are available when configuring Threat Extraction to handle potentially malicious documents? (Select 2)

Question 39mediummultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

Which SandBlast feature is specifically designed to protect users from entering their corporate credentials into known or suspected phishing websites?

Question 40mediummulti select

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

Which TWO of the following statements accurately describe the functionality of the Threat Extraction blade in Check Point R81.x?

Question 41hardmultiple choice

Read the full Advanced Threat Prevention explanation →

You are deploying Threat Prevention across a large, distributed enterprise network. To minimize false positives while maintaining a strong security posture, which strategy is recommended for the initial implementation of the Threat Prevention policy?

Question 42hardmulti select

Read the full DNS explanation →

An organization is concerned about data exfiltration via DNS tunneling. Which THREE configurations should be applied to the Threat Prevention policy to effectively mitigate this risk?

Question 43hardmultiple choice

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A security architect is designing a Threat Emulation deployment for a high-security research lab. The lab's most sensitive hosts run a proprietary real-time operating system (RTOS) on ARM64 processors and cannot run any endpoint agent. Analysts need every suspicious file opened on these RTOS hosts to be emulated before execution, and they require the emulation to occur locally on a dedicated appliance with no internet connectivity. Which Threat Emulation deployment mode should the architect configure?

Question 44hardmultiple choice

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A security analyst is investigating a series of alerts from the Anti-Bot blade. The logs show that an internal host is repeatedly connecting to a domain that resolves to multiple IP addresses, and the connections use HTTP with a User-Agent string that changes on each request. The analyst suspects a botnet using domain generation algorithm (DGA) and fast-flux techniques. Which Check Point feature would provide the most direct evidence to confirm this suspicion?

Question 45mediummultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator is investigating a security incident where a user's computer was infected with malware. The malware was downloaded via HTTP and executed. The administrator reviews the Threat Prevention logs and sees that the Anti-Bot blade detected communication with a known command and control server but did not block it. The logs show the action as 'Detect' instead of 'Prevent'. What is the most likely reason for this?

Question 46mediummultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator is tuning ThreatCloud Intelligence consumption on a Security Gateway that fronts a busy web farm. Internal penetration tests show that files downloaded over TLS are reaching endpoints without ever being emulated, even though the Threat Emulation blade is enabled on the gateway and shows as active. Reviewing SmartConsole, the administrator confirms the HTTPS inspection policy exists but no certificate is presented to internal clients. What is the most likely cause of the missing emulation?

Question 47mediummultiple choice

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A security administrator is configuring Threat Emulation for a new gateway. The administrator wants to ensure that files are emulated in a way that matches the actual endpoint environment as closely as possible, including the specific operating system version, installed applications, and browser plug-ins. Which Threat Emulation setting should the administrator configure to achieve this?

Question 48hardmultiple choice

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An administrator investigating slow web browsing notices that Threat Emulation is submitting every downloaded portable executable to the cloud sandbox, including files from a trusted internal software repository. The repository is on the internal network, and the administrator wants to stop emulation for those downloads without weakening protection for internet traffic. Which configuration change best addresses this requirement?

Question 49hardmultiple choice

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A security engineer is troubleshooting why Threat Emulation is not detecting a malicious document that exploits a vulnerability in a specific PDF reader version. The engineer confirms that the file is sent for emulation and that the emulation completes successfully, but no malicious activity is observed. The engineer suspects that the emulation environment does not have the vulnerable PDF reader version installed. Which action should the engineer take to resolve this issue?

Question 50mediummultiple choice

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A security operations team wants to correlate ThreatCloud verdicts with local logs. They observe that a file downloaded from an external site was blocked by Threat Emulation, but the SmartLog record shows the verdict as 'Malicious' with no forensic report attached. The administrator confirms the file was submitted successfully. Which statement best explains the missing forensic report?

Question 51mediummultiple choice

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An administrator is reviewing a Threat Prevention log and sees a high volume of 'Low Confidence' detections for a custom-protected HTTP header on a public-facing web server. The administrator wants to reduce noise while still logging these events for later analysis, without blocking legitimate traffic. What should the administrator do?

Question 52hardmulti select

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An administrator is hardening a Threat Prevention policy against zero-day exploits. The goal is to reduce exposure to unknown exploits while limiting false positives on business-critical applications. Which TWO measures are appropriate for this objective? (Choose two.)

Question 53mediummultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator is configuring the Anti-Virus blade on a Security Gateway. The organization wants to prevent users from downloading files that match known malware signatures, but also wants to avoid blocking legitimate files that are merely suspicious. Which Anti-Virus action should the administrator select for the malware signature category?

Question 54hardmultiple choice

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An administrator is deploying Threat Emulation in a data center where a Security Gateway cluster handles both north-south and east-west traffic. The team wants files to be emulated without sending them to the public cloud, because data residency rules forbid external submission. Which deployment approach satisfies the requirement while keeping emulation functional?

Question 55mediummultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator is configuring Anti-Bot to detect and block communication with command-and-control servers. The administrator wants to ensure that the gateway can identify botnet traffic even when the C&C server uses a domain generation algorithm (DGA) to frequently change its domain names. Which Anti-Bot feature should the administrator enable to address this?

Question 56mediummultiple choice

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An administrator is configuring Threat Extraction to sanitize documents. The organization requires that all active content be removed from PDF files, but the original file must be retained for auditing. Which Threat Extraction setting should be configured?

Question 57hardmultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator is tuning a Threat Prevention profile for a site that repeatedly generates 'Protected Scope' violations with the 'Prevent' action on the 'Suspicious Executable Download' protection. The administrator wants to stop blocking these downloads while still logging them, but must not weaken any other protections in the profile. What is the most precise way to accomplish this?

Question 58hardmulti select

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A security analyst is investigating a malware outbreak and needs to identify the command and control (C&C) infrastructure used by the malware. The analyst has access to Check Point ThreatCloud and SmartLog. Which two actions should the analyst take to identify the C&C servers? (Choose two.)

Question 59mediummultiple choice

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A Check Point Security Master is configuring ThreatCloud to receive and share threat intelligence. The organization's policy requires that no file content ever leave the premises, but they still want to benefit from global reputation and indicator feeds. Which ThreatCloud feature should be enabled or disabled to meet this requirement while keeping reputation services functional?

Question 60hardmulti select

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A security administrator is analyzing a Check Point Threat Emulation report for a suspicious PDF file that was emulated. The report indicates that the file attempted to connect to a remote server and download additional content. The administrator wants to identify the specific Indicators of Compromise (IOCs) from the report to block future attacks. Which TWO pieces of information should the administrator extract from the Threat Emulation report to create effective threat prevention rules? (Choose two.)

Question 61mediummultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator configures Threat Emulation to run on a Security Gateway. Files submitted for emulation are taking too long, and the administrator wants to ensure that users are not blocked indefinitely while still protecting them. Which Threat Emulation configuration best addresses this?

Question 62easymultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator is reviewing Threat Prevention logs and notices a high number of 'Detect' alerts for the protection 'Suspicious_Executable_Download' but no 'Prevent' actions. The administrator wants to ensure that this protection blocks malicious downloads in the future. What should the administrator do?

Question 63easymultiple choice

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A Check Point administrator wants to verify that Threat Prevention is inspecting traffic on a specific Security Gateway. The administrator needs a quick, built-in way to see which protections are active and whether they are logging. Which tool should be used?