CCNA Mock Exam 88 — 25 Questions

Question 1

Match each IPv6 concept to its most accurate description.

Accepted Answer

IPv6 address: 128-bit identifier for network interfaces. These pairings accurately define key IPv6 concepts.

Question 2

Match each service to the symptom it most directly relates to when troubleshooting.

Accepted Answer

DNS: Users cannot access the website by name but can by IP. Each service is paired with a symptom directly related to its malfunction.

Question 3

Drag and drop the VLAN/trunking commands and terms on the left to their correct descriptions or functions on the right.

Accepted Answer

switchport mode trunk: Configures an interface to carry multiple VLANs.. These pairings match common VLAN/trunking commands and terms to their correct descriptions.

Question 4

Match each security term to the question it most directly answers.

Accepted Answer

Confidentiality: Who can access the data?. Each security term is paired with the question it most directly answers. Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting form the AAA framework: Authentication verifies identity (Who are you?), Authorization determines permissions (What are you allowed to do?), and Accounting tracks user activity (What happened during the session?). Availability is part of the CIA triad (Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability) and addresses whether a system or service is accessible when needed (Can the system or service be accessed when needed?).

Question 5

Drag and drop the port configuration commands/technologies on the left to their corresponding descriptions on the right.

Accepted Answer

switchport mode access: Sets the interface as a nontrunking access port. These are common Cisco IOS commands used for port configuration, each with a specific function.

Question 6

Drag and drop the cable/transceiver types on the left to the correct descriptions on the right.

Accepted Answer

Cat5e: Ethernet cable supporting up to 1 Gbps at 100 MHz. CAT5e UTP supports 1000BASE-T up to 100 meters as standard twisted-pair copper cabling. Single-mode fiber with 1000BASE-LX SFP uses a 1310 nm laser for long-distance links, typically up to 5 km but extendable with specific optics. Multimode fiber with 10GBASE-SR SFP+ provides high-speed 10 Gbps connectivity up to 300 meters over OM3 fiber due to SR’s short-reach design. SFP-10G-LR is a single-mode transceiver designed for 10 km at 10 Gbps, leveraging its long-reach specification. GLC-T is a 1000BASE-T copper SFP, so it operates over CAT5e/CAT6 up to 100 meters. Incorrect pairings would mismatch cable type and distance capabilities, such as using multimode fiber for a 10 km link or a copper SFP with single-mode fiber.

Question 7

Match each data format or model with the best description.

Accepted Answer

JSON: Lightweight data interchange format using key-value pairs. JSON is a lightweight key-value data representation. XML uses tags to define structured data. YANG is a data modeling language for network configuration and state. REST APIs use HTTP methods such as GET and POST to work with resources.

Question 8

Drag and drop the YANG, NETCONF, and RESTCONF terms on the left to their correct descriptions on the right.

Accepted Answer

YANG: A data modeling language used to define configuration and state data for network devices.. YANG is the modeling language, NETCONF uses XML RPCs over SSH, RESTCONF uses HTTP and YANG models. The pairs match each term to its core function.

Question 9

Match each route source or route type to its most accurate description.

Accepted Answer

Connected route: A route automatically added when an interface is configured with an IP address and is up.. Connected routes are automatically added when an interface is active and has an IP address configured; static routes are manually entered by an administrator; OSPF routes are dynamically learned through the OSPF link-state routing protocol; floating static routes are static routes configured with a higher administrative distance than the primary route, serving as a backup.

Question 10

Match each STP or switch protection feature to the problem it is mainly designed to prevent.

Accepted Answer

Root Guard: Prevents a switch from becoming root bridge due to rogue BPDUs. STP protection features prevent specific problems: Root Guard protects root bridge election, BPDU Guard prevents loops on access ports, Loop Guard handles BPDU loss, UDLD detects unidirectional links, and PortFast speeds up port transition.

Question 11

Match each controller or automation term to its most accurate description.

Accepted Answer

PLC: Industrial computer used for automation of electromechanical processes. The Controller is the central platform that coordinates policy and management, typically in software-defined networking (SDN). The Northbound API is the application-facing interface that lets external applications communicate with the controller to request services. JSON (JavaScript Object Notation) is a lightweight, structured data format commonly used in API payloads for its human-readable and machine-parseable syntax. HTTPS is the secure transport protocol that encrypts API communication to protect data in transit.

Question 12

Match each common API or data term to its most accurate meaning.

Accepted Answer

API: Defined software interface used for communication. API (Application Programming Interface) is a defined set of rules that allows software components to communicate, matching 'Defined software interface used for communication.' JSON (JavaScript Object Notation) is a lightweight data-interchange format with key-value pairs, matching 'Structured data format.' HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) encrypts HTTP traffic using TLS/SSL, providing secure transport, matching 'Secure transport for the communication.' Token is a unique string used for authentication and authorization, matching 'Credential-like value used to help control access.'

Question 13

Drag and drop the following steps into the correct order to configure PortFast and BPDU Guard on a switch access port, and then recover after a BPDU Guard error-disable event.

Accepted Answer

Enter global configuration mode, then interface configuration mode, enable PortFast, enable BPDU Guard, and after an error-disable event, manually re-enable the interface using the 'shutdown' command followed by the 'no shutdown' command.. The correct order starts with global and interface configuration mode, then enabling PortFast, followed by BPDU Guard. After an error-disable event due to BPDU Guard, the proper manual recovery is to first issue the 'shutdown' command on the interface, then issue the 'no shutdown' command; simply using 'no shutdown' alone will not clear the errdisable state.

Question 14

Match each address-related concept to its most accurate meaning.

Accepted Answer

Subnet mask: Indicates network versus host portions of an IPv4 address. The subnet mask is used to distinguish the network portion from the host portion of an IPv4 address. The default gateway is the next-hop router that forwards traffic destined for off-subnet networks. The broadcast address sends packets to all hosts within the local broadcast domain, while the network address identifies the subnet itself and is the first address in the subnet range.

Question 15

A router has learned route 172.16.50.0/24 from OSPF with cost 20 and also has a static route to the same prefix with administrative distance 5. Which two statements are correct about route selection?

Accepted Answer

The static route is installed because it has the lower administrative distance. When the same prefix is learned from different routing sources, the router first compares administrative distance (AD). The static route with AD 5 wins over OSPF with AD 110, so option A is correct. Option C is correct because if the static route is removed, the OSPF route becomes the next best candidate and is installed. Option B is wrong since AD is compared before metrics like OSPF cost; a lower cost does not override a lower AD. Option D is wrong because only one route is installed per destination based on AD, not both.

Answer

The OSPF route is installed because cost 20 is lower than metric 0

Answer

Both routes are installed as equal-cost paths automatically

Question 16

Which TWO statements correctly describe the behavior of the passive-interface command in single-area OSPFv2?

Accepted Answer

It prevents the router from sending Hello packets on the specified interface.. The passive-interface command in OSPFv2 suppresses all OSPF protocol packets (Hello, DD, LSR, LSU, LSAck) on the specified interface, preventing neighbor adjacency formation. However, the network prefix of that interface is still included in the router LSA and advertised through active interfaces to the OSPF domain. Option A is correct because Hello packets are suppressed. Option C is correct because the prefix is still advertised in LSAs. Option B is incorrect after rewording: it states that the network is not advertised, which is false. Option D is incorrect because passive-interface does not affect data traffic forwarding. Option E is incorrect because the network remains in the OSPF routing table.

Answer

It prevents the router from advertising the network in OSPF LSAs.

Answer

It disables the interface for any OSPF traffic, including data traffic.

Answer

It removes the network from the OSPF routing table.

Question 17

A junior network engineer is configuring a new Windows 10 workstation to connect to the corporate network. The network uses a /24 subnet mask and has a default gateway of 192.168.1.1. The workstation obtains its IP address automatically from a DHCP server, but the engineer needs to manually set a static IPv4 address of 192.168.1.50 and ensure the workstation can reach the internet. Which configuration step must the engineer take to satisfy these requirements?

Accepted Answer

Set the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0 and the default gateway to 192.168.1.1. Option B is correct because a /24 subnet mask (255.255.255.0) matches the network prefix of the default gateway 192.168.1.1, ensuring the workstation can route traffic to the internet via that gateway. Option A fails because a /16 mask (255.255.0.0) does not match the corporate /24 network, causing incorrect network identification and potential routing issues. Option C fails because leaving the default gateway blank means the host cannot reach any network beyond its local subnet, so internet access is impossible. Option D fails because using the host's own IP (192.168.1.50) as the default gateway would cause the host to attempt to route traffic to itself, never reaching the actual gateway.

Answer

Set the subnet mask to 255.255.0.0 and the default gateway to 192.168.1.1

Answer

Set the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0 and leave the default gateway blank

Answer

Set the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0 and the default gateway to 192.168.1.50

Question 18

R1 and R2 are directly connected. Their interfaces are up/up and belong to the same subnet. R1's OSPF configuration places the interface in area 0, while R2's interface is in area 1. R1 does not show R2 as an OSPF neighbor. What is the most likely cause?

Accepted Answer

The area IDs do not match. OSPF neighbors on the same link must agree on the area ID. Here, one side is in area 0 and the other is in area 1, so adjacency never forms even though the interfaces are up and in the same subnet.

Answer

R1 must use a loopback as the router ID

Answer

The subnet mask is too small for OSPF to work

Answer

R2 should be configured as the DR manually

Question 19

You are connected to the console of a Catalyst 2960+ switch named SW2. Configure the switch so that the IP phone connected to interface FastEthernet0/5 receives power via PoE and uses VLAN 150 for voice traffic, while the PC connected through the phone uses VLAN 50 for data. Additionally, the access point connected to interface FastEthernet0/10 must receive PoE and be placed in VLAN 100. Assume the interfaces are already correctly configured as access ports in VLAN 50 and VLAN 100, respectively. Verify your configuration using the appropriate show commands.

Accepted Answer

On interface FastEthernet0/5: switchport voice vlan 150, power inline auto. On interface FastEthernet0/10: power inline auto. Verify with show interfaces switchport and show power inline.. The switch had no voice VLAN or PoE configured on the ports. On FastEthernet0/5, you need to add 'switchport voice vlan 150' to separate voice traffic from data, and 'power inline auto' to enable PoE for the IP phone. On FastEthernet0/10, you only need to enable PoE with 'power inline auto' because the AP already has its access VLAN set. After configuration, 'show interfaces switchport' will confirm the voice VLAN, and 'show power inline' will verify PoE status.

Answer

On interface FastEthernet0/5: switchport voice vlan 150, power inline auto. On interface FastEthernet0/10: switchport access vlan 100, power inline auto. Verify with show interfaces switchport and show power inline.

Answer

On interface FastEthernet0/5: switchport voice vlan 150, power inline auto. On interface FastEthernet0/10: power inline auto. Verify with show vlan and show power inline.

Answer

On interface FastEthernet0/5: switchport voice vlan 150, power inline auto. On interface FastEthernet0/10: power inline auto. Verify with show interfaces trunk and show power inline.

Question 20

Which TWO statements correctly describe the configuration and behavior of a router-on-a-stick setup for inter-VLAN routing?

Accepted Answer

Each subinterface on the router must be configured with an IP address that belongs to the corresponding VLAN's subnet.. Option A is correct because each subinterface is assigned an IP address in the subnet of its corresponding VLAN, enabling the router to act as the default gateway and route between VLANs using 802.1Q tags. Option D is correct because the physical interface must be 'no shutdown' to pass traffic, and subinterfaces inherit this state; they do not have their own shutdown command. Option B is incorrect because the switch port connecting to the router must be configured as a trunk port, not an access port, to carry multiple VLANs. Option C is incorrect because the native VLAN on the trunk does not have to be the same as the management VLAN; they are separate concepts. Option E is incorrect because the 'encapsulation dot1q <vlan-id> native' command is only needed on the subinterface for the native VLAN to tag or untag frames appropriately; it is not required for all native VLAN configurations (e.g., if the native VLAN is left at default 1, the command may be optional).

Answer

The switch port connecting to the router must be configured as an access port in VLAN 1.

Answer

The native VLAN on the trunk must be the same VLAN as the one used for management traffic.

Answer

The router's subinterface for the native VLAN must use the 'encapsulation dot1q <vlan-id> native' command.