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HomeCertificationsPAS-C01Exam Questions

Amazon Web Services · Free Practice Questions · Last reviewed May 2026

PAS-C01 Exam Questions and Answers

24real exam-style questions organised by domain, each with the correct answer highlighted and a plain-English explanation of why it's right — and why the others are wrong.

65 exam questions
170 min time limit
Pass: 750/1000 / 1000
4 exam domains
OverviewDomain BlueprintStudy GuideAll QuestionsSample by Domain
1. Design of SAP Workloads on AWS2. Technology3. Migration4. Operations and Maintenance
1

Domain 1: Design of SAP Workloads on AWS

All Design of SAP Workloads on AWS questions
Q1
mediumFull explanation →

A company is planning to migrate its SAP S/4HANA system to AWS. The system requires high availability with an RTO of less than 30 minutes and RPO of less than 15 minutes. The SAP application layer runs on Linux. Which architecture should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?

A

Deploy the SAP application on a single EC2 instance and use S3 for database backups with cross-region replication.

B

Deploy a single EC2 instance for the SAP application and database in one Availability Zone, and take hourly snapshots of the EBS volumes.

C

Use two EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group with instance store volumes for the database, and store application files on S3.

D

Deploy the SAP application on two EC2 instances in different AZs with a shared EFS file system, and use a multi-AZ RDS for SAP HANA with synchronous replication.

Multi-AZ deployment with synchronous replication meets RPO; EFS provides shared storage for quick failover.

Why: Option D is correct because it meets the RTO of <30 minutes and RPO of <15 minutes by deploying the SAP application on two EC2 instances across different Availability Zones with a shared EFS file system for stateless application files, and using a multi-AZ RDS for SAP HANA with synchronous replication. Synchronous replication ensures zero data loss (RPO=0) and automatic failover to the standby in a different AZ achieves RTO well under 30 minutes. The Linux SAP application layer is stateless, so EFS provides a shared, highly available file system that allows either instance to serve traffic seamlessly after a failover.
Q2
easyFull explanation →

A company runs SAP Business Suite on an SAP HANA database on AWS. The database uses EBS gp2 volumes. The operations team notices high latency during peak hours. The metrics show that the volume queue depth is consistently above the recommended threshold. What is the MOST cost-effective change to reduce latency?

A

Migrate from gp2 to io2 EBS volumes with the same size.

B

Modify the volume to use Provisioned IOPS (io1) with a higher IOPS value.

C

Add an additional EBS volume and stripe the volumes using LVM.

D

Increase the size of the existing EBS gp2 volume to a larger size.

Larger gp2 volumes have higher baseline IOPS, reducing queue depth.

Why: Increasing the size of an existing gp2 volume is the most cost-effective solution because gp2 volumes have a baseline performance of 3 IOPS per GB, and they can burst up to 3,000 IOPS for volumes up to 1,000 GB. By increasing the volume size, you raise the baseline IOPS, which reduces the queue depth without incurring the higher per-GB cost of io1 or io2 volumes. This directly addresses the high latency caused by queue depth exceeding the recommended threshold during peak hours.
Q3
hardFull explanation →

A company has an SAP HANA database running on an EC2 instance with 1.9 TB of memory. The database requires persistent storage. The solutions architect must choose a storage configuration that provides the highest IOPS and throughput while maintaining data durability. Which storage option should the architect choose?

A

Use multiple io2 EBS volumes with Block Express striped together using LVM.

Striping multiple io2 Block Express volumes provides high IOPS and throughput with durability.

B

Use a single io2 Block Express EBS volume of the required size.

C

Use multiple gp3 EBS volumes striped together with LVM.

D

Use NVMe instance store volumes for the HANA data and log areas.

Why: Option A is correct because it combines multiple io2 Block Express EBS volumes striped via LVM, which delivers the highest possible IOPS and throughput for SAP HANA on AWS. io2 Block Express volumes support up to 256,000 IOPS and 4,000 MB/s throughput per volume, and striping multiple volumes linearly scales these limits to meet the demands of a 1.9 TB memory HANA database. This configuration also ensures data durability through EBS replication within an Availability Zone, unlike instance store volumes.
Q4
mediumFull explanation →

A company runs its SAP ERP system on AWS. The database is SAP HANA on an EC2 instance. The system is critical and requires a recovery point objective (RPO) of less than 5 minutes and a recovery time objective (RTO) of less than 2 hours. Which solution meets these requirements with the LEAST operational overhead?

A

Use AWS Backup with the SAP HANA Backup and Restore feature (Backint integration) to perform continuous backups to S3.

Continuous backups provide low RPO; automated restore meets RTO with low overhead.

B

Use EBS snapshots of the root and data volumes taken every 5 minutes.

C

Set up HANA system replication across two EC2 instances in different Availability Zones with manual failover.

D

Schedule manual HANA backups to S3 using cron scripts and hdbsql commands.

Why: AWS Backup with the SAP HANA Backup and Restore feature (Backint integration) provides continuous, incremental backups to Amazon S3, achieving an RPO of less than 5 minutes with automated, policy-driven backups. This solution minimizes operational overhead by eliminating manual scripting and infrastructure management, while supporting point-in-time recovery within the required RTO of under 2 hours.
Q5
easyFull explanation →

A company is designing a new SAP environment on AWS. The SAP application servers communicate with the database over the network. The architect wants to minimize latency and maximize throughput. Which placement strategy should the architect use?

A

Place all servers in a single Availability Zone and use a cluster placement group.

Cluster placement group provides low latency and high throughput.

B

Place the application servers in one Availability Zone and the database in a different Availability Zone.

C

Place the application servers in one VPC and the database in a different VPC connected via VPC peering.

D

Place the application servers in one AWS Region and the database in another Region.

Why: A cluster placement group is the correct choice because it provides the lowest possible latency and highest throughput by ensuring that all SAP application and database servers are placed in close physical proximity within a single Availability Zone. This placement minimizes network hops and leverages non-blocking, high-bandwidth networking, which is critical for SAP's latency-sensitive communication between application and database layers.
Q6
mediumFull explanation →

A company is migrating its SAP NetWeaver system to AWS and wants to implement a high-availability architecture for the SAP Central Services (ASCS) and Enqueue Replication Server (ERS). Which TWO of the following are required components in a recommended AWS HA setup for ASCS and ERS?

A

A shared file system (e.g., Amazon EFS) to store the SAP transport directory and global profile.

ASCS and ERS require shared storage for transport directory.

B

An Application Load Balancer to distribute traffic between ASCS and ERS instances.

C

A floating IP address (using Elastic IP or Route 53 health checks) to manage the ASCS virtual hostname.

A virtual IP is required for ASCS failover.

D

A read replica of the SAP HANA database to offload application traffic.

E

A secondary Windows Server Failover Cluster in a different Availability Zone.

Why: Option A is correct because in an SAP NetWeaver high-availability architecture on AWS, a shared file system such as Amazon EFS is required to store the SAP transport directory and global profile. This ensures that both the ASCS and ERS instances can access consistent configuration and transport files, which is essential for failover and cluster operations. Without a shared file system, the instances would have divergent configurations, breaking the HA setup.

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2

Domain 2: Technology

All Technology questions
Q1
mediumFull explanation →

A company is running a web application on EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The instances are in an Auto Scaling group with a dynamic scaling policy based on average CPU utilization. During a flash sale, the application experiences a sudden spike in traffic, but the Auto Scaling group does not scale out quickly enough, causing some requests to fail. Which solution would improve the scaling responsiveness?

A

Increase the cooldown period for the dynamic scaling policy.

B

Add a scheduled scaling action to increase capacity before the flash sale.

Scheduled scaling proactively adds capacity ahead of known traffic spikes.

C

Decrease the cooldown period for the dynamic scaling policy.

D

Disable scale-in to prevent the Auto Scaling group from terminating instances during the sale.

Why: Option B is correct because a scheduled scaling action proactively increases capacity before the flash sale, eliminating the lag inherent in dynamic scaling policies. Dynamic scaling reacts to metrics like average CPU utilization, which can take minutes to trigger and propagate, causing request failures during sudden spikes. By pre-scaling, the Auto Scaling group has sufficient instances ready to handle the traffic surge immediately.
Q2
hardFull explanation →

A company is migrating a legacy application to AWS. The application uses a custom TCP protocol and requires session persistence. The application runs on a fleet of EC2 instances behind a Network Load Balancer (NLB). The current configuration uses a TCP listener with 'source IP' stickiness. However, some clients are being routed to different instances mid-session, causing application errors. What is the most likely cause and solution?

A

The NLB does not support source IP stickiness; use a Classic Load Balancer instead.

B

Clients are behind a NAT gateway, so the source IP changes between requests, breaking stickiness. Use a 'stitched' cookie or switch to an Application Load Balancer.

NAT changes the source IP, which defeats source IP stickiness.

C

The NLB has cross-zone load balancing enabled, which distributes traffic across instances in different Availability Zones.

D

The idle timeout of the NLB is too low, causing the NLB to close connections prematurely.

Why: Option B is correct because clients behind a NAT gateway will have their source IP address translated to the NAT gateway's public IP, which remains consistent for all requests from that gateway. However, if multiple clients share the same NAT gateway, the source IP is the same, but the NLB's source IP stickiness is based on the client's source IP as seen by the NLB. If the NAT gateway uses multiple public IPs or if clients are behind different NAT gateways, the source IP can change between requests, breaking stickiness. The solution is to use a 'stitched' cookie or switch to an Application Load Balancer, which supports cookie-based session persistence independent of source IP.
Q3
easyFull explanation →

A solutions architect is designing a disaster recovery plan for a critical application that runs on Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL. The application requires a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of less than 5 seconds and a Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of less than 1 minute. Which RDS deployment option meets these requirements?

A

A single-AZ deployment with cross-Region automated backups.

B

A single-AZ deployment with a standby instance manually promoted.

C

A Multi-AZ deployment with synchronous replication.

Multi-AZ provides synchronous replication and automatic failover.

D

A Multi-AZ deployment with a Read Replica in a different Region.

Why: Amazon RDS Multi-AZ deployments with synchronous replication provide automatic failover to a standby instance in a different Availability Zone, ensuring data is committed to both primary and standby before acknowledging a write. This achieves an RPO of effectively zero (less than 5 seconds) and an RTO typically under 1 minute, meeting the stated requirements.
Q4
mediumFull explanation →

A company is using AWS CloudFormation to manage infrastructure. The development team wants to deploy a new version of a stack that updates an existing RDS DB instance's DB engine version. The update requires a replacement of the database. Which CloudFormation stack policy setting allows the update to proceed while preventing other resources from being replaced or updated?

A

Set a stack policy that allows updates to RDS resources only.

B

Set a stack policy that allows updates to the specific RDS DB instance resource.

Stack policies can be written to allow updates to specific resources.

C

Set a stack policy that denies all updates.

D

Set a stack policy that allows all updates.

Why: Option B is correct because a stack policy in AWS CloudFormation can be set to explicitly allow updates to a specific resource (e.g., the RDS DB instance) while denying updates to all other resources by default. Since the update requires a replacement of the database, the policy must permit the update action on that exact resource logical ID, ensuring the DB engine version change proceeds without risking unintended modifications to other stack resources.
Q5
hardFull explanation →

A company is running a stateful application on EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. The instances store session state locally. The group uses a simple scaling policy based on network traffic. The company notices that when instances are terminated during scale-in, active sessions are lost. What is the MOST effective way to preserve session state during scaling events?

A

Use a step scaling policy instead of a simple scaling policy.

B

Use a lifecycle hook to gracefully drain sessions before instance termination.

Lifecycle hooks allow instances to perform custom actions before being terminated.

C

Increase the cooldown period for the Auto Scaling group.

D

Use a launch configuration that enables termination protection.

Why: A lifecycle hook is the most effective solution because it pauses the instance termination process during scale-in, allowing the application to drain active sessions (e.g., by transferring session state to a shared data store like ElastiCache or DynamoDB) before the instance is fully terminated. This preserves session continuity without requiring architectural changes to the application's stateful design.
Q6
mediumFull explanation →

A company is designing a microservices architecture on Amazon ECS with Fargate. The services need to communicate securely and be accessible only within the VPC. Which TWO steps should the solutions architect take to meet these requirements? (Choose TWO.)

A

Attach an Internet Gateway to the VPC and configure route tables for the private subnets.

B

Place the Fargate tasks in public subnets to allow them to communicate with each other through the internet gateway.

C

Use AWS Cloud Map for service discovery and register a public DNS name for each service.

D

Use an internal Application Load Balancer to distribute traffic between services.

Internal ALB routes traffic within the VPC.

E

Create a VPC endpoint for Amazon ECS to allow the service to call the ECS API without internet access.

VPC endpoints keep API traffic within the VPC.

Why: Option D is correct because an internal Application Load Balancer (ALB) operates within a VPC and does not expose a public endpoint, ensuring that traffic between microservices remains private. It distributes incoming requests to Fargate tasks based on defined rules, enabling secure, internal communication without internet access.

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3

Domain 3: Migration

All Migration questions
Q1
mediumFull explanation →

A company is migrating a legacy .NET application to AWS. The application uses Windows Authentication and relies on Active Directory for user authentication. The company wants to minimize changes to the application code. Which AWS service should be used to integrate Active Directory with the migrated application?

A

AWS Directory Service for Microsoft Active Directory

Provides full managed AD with native support for Windows Authentication.

B

Amazon Cognito

C

AD Connector

D

Simple AD

Why: AWS Directory Service for Microsoft Active Directory is the correct choice because it provides a fully managed Microsoft Active Directory in the AWS cloud, which natively supports Windows Authentication and Kerberos-based authentication without requiring any code changes. This service allows the migrated .NET application to seamlessly integrate with the existing on-premises Active Directory through a trust relationship or by extending the directory directly into AWS, preserving the application's authentication logic.
Q2
hardFull explanation →

A company is migrating a 50 TB Oracle database to Amazon RDS for Oracle using AWS DMS. The source database is running on-premises and the network link has a bandwidth of 100 Mbps. The migration must complete within 5 days. What is the MOST effective approach to meet the deadline?

A

Provision a Direct Connect connection to increase bandwidth

B

Use AWS Snowball to transfer the data offline, then use DMS for CDC

Snowball transfers data physically, meeting the 5-day window; DMS handles ongoing changes.

C

Use AWS DMS with full load and change data capture (CDC) online

D

Use AWS Schema Conversion Tool (SCT) to convert schema, then DMS for data

Why: The 50 TB database over a 100 Mbps link would take approximately 48 days for a full load (50 TB * 8 / 100 Mbps / 86400 seconds/day), far exceeding the 5-day deadline. AWS Snowball allows offline transfer of the full database snapshot, bypassing network bandwidth constraints, after which AWS DMS can be used for ongoing change data capture (CDC) to replicate incremental changes. This hybrid approach meets the deadline while ensuring minimal data loss.
Q3
easyFull explanation →

A company is migrating a web application from an on-premises data center to AWS. The application uses a MySQL database that is 500 GB in size. The company wants to minimize downtime during the migration. Which approach should the company use?

A

Use an RDS read replica and promote it

B

Use AWS Database Migration Service (DMS) with ongoing replication

DMS migrates data while changes are replicated, minimizing downtime.

C

Stop the database, take a mysqldump, and restore to RDS

D

Use AWS Schema Conversion Tool (SCT) to migrate the schema and data

Why: AWS Database Migration Service (DMS) with ongoing replication (change data capture, CDC) allows you to perform a live migration with minimal downtime. You can start a full load of the 500 GB MySQL database while the source remains operational, then enable CDC to replicate ongoing changes until you cut over to the target RDS instance, reducing the downtime window to seconds.
Q4
hardFull explanation →

A company is migrating a multi-tier application to AWS. The application includes a load balancer, web servers, and an Oracle database. The migration plan includes using AWS DMS for the database. During the initial full load, the DMS task fails with an error indicating insufficient memory. The source database is on an EC2 instance with 4 GB RAM. What should the migration team do to resolve this issue?

A

Disable LOB support in the DMS task

B

Split the migration into multiple smaller tasks

C

Increase the size of the DMS replication instance

More memory on the replication instance can handle large data loads.

D

Increase the memory of the source EC2 instance

Why: Option C is correct because the error 'insufficient memory' during the initial full load in AWS DMS typically indicates that the replication instance does not have enough memory to handle the data volume or LOB processing. Increasing the size of the DMS replication instance provides more memory for caching, transformation, and LOB handling, directly resolving the resource constraint without altering the source database or task structure.
Q5
mediumFull explanation →

A company is migrating a legacy application to AWS that requires a static IP address for client whitelisting. The application will run on EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The company wants to ensure the IP address does not change over time. What should the company do?

A

Assign an Elastic IP to each EC2 instance

B

Use Route 53 latency-based routing to point to the ALB

C

Use AWS Global Accelerator to get two static IP addresses

D

Use a Network Load Balancer (NLB) with an Elastic IP address

NLB supports static IP via Elastic IP, which can be whitelisted.

Why: Option D is correct because a Network Load Balancer (NLB) supports static IP addresses by allowing you to assign Elastic IPs directly to each of its Availability Zone subnets. This provides fixed IP endpoints for client whitelisting, while the NLB can forward traffic to the EC2 instances behind an ALB, preserving the application's architecture.
Q6
hardFull explanation →

A company is migrating a 10 TB SQL Server database to Amazon RDS for SQL Server using AWS DMS. The migration is taking longer than expected. Which TWO actions can improve the migration speed? (Choose two.)

A

Use a single DMS task with full LOB mode

B

Enable parallel loading by splitting tables into multiple tasks

Parallel tasks utilize more resources and speed up data transfer.

C

Use S3 multipart upload for the data

D

Increase the DMS replication instance size

Larger instance provides more network, CPU, and memory throughput.

E

Disable transaction logging on the source

Why: Option B is correct because splitting tables into multiple DMS tasks enables parallel loading, which significantly reduces migration time by processing multiple tables concurrently. Option D is correct because increasing the DMS replication instance size provides more CPU and memory resources, allowing the instance to handle larger data volumes and higher throughput more efficiently.

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4

Domain 4: Operations and Maintenance

All Operations and Maintenance questions
Q1
easyFull explanation →

A company runs a production EC2 instance that experiences intermittent connectivity issues. The instance is part of an Auto Scaling group behind an Application Load Balancer. Which step should be taken FIRST to diagnose the issue?

A

Modify the security group to allow all traffic temporarily

B

Review CloudWatch metrics for the instance and the ALB target group

CloudWatch metrics provide baseline data for troubleshooting connectivity issues.

C

Terminate the instance and let Auto Scaling launch a new one

D

Attach an additional Elastic Network Interface (ENI) to the instance

Why: Reviewing CloudWatch metrics for the instance and the ALB target group is the correct first step because it provides immediate visibility into the root cause of intermittent connectivity issues. Metrics such as TargetResponseTime, RequestCount, and HealthyHostCount can reveal whether the problem is due to high latency, request failures, or the instance being marked unhealthy by the ALB health checks. This data-driven approach avoids unnecessary changes and aligns with the AWS Well-Architected Framework's principle of observability.
Q2
mediumFull explanation →

A company uses AWS Systems Manager Patch Manager to patch a fleet of EC2 instances. After a recent patching operation, some instances failed with the error 'Unable to retrieve patch baseline'. The instances are in a private subnet with a VPC endpoint for SSM. What is the MOST likely cause?

A

The VPC endpoint for SSM does not have a security group that allows HTTPS outbound to the endpoint

Missing outbound HTTPS from the instance to the SSM endpoint prevents communication.

B

The CodeDeploy agent on the instances is outdated

C

The instances are not registered as managed instances with the SSM ManagedInstance role

D

The instances do not have an IAM instance profile attached

Why: The error 'Unable to retrieve patch baseline' indicates that the EC2 instances cannot communicate with the AWS Systems Manager service to fetch the patch baseline configuration. Since the instances are in a private subnet with a VPC endpoint for SSM, the most likely cause is that the VPC endpoint's security group does not allow HTTPS outbound traffic (port 443) to the endpoint itself. Without this outbound rule, the SSM Agent on the instance cannot establish the TLS connection required to retrieve the patch baseline from the SSM API.
Q3
hardFull explanation →

A company runs a critical application on an EC2 instance that uses a large EBS volume for database storage. The volume is not encrypted at rest. To meet compliance requirements, the company must enable encryption on the volume with minimal downtime. Which solution meets these requirements?

A

Take a snapshot of the volume with encryption enabled, create a new encrypted volume from the snapshot, detach the original volume, and attach the new volume

Creating an encrypted snapshot and restoring it to a new encrypted volume is the standard procedure with minimal downtime.

B

Use the AWS Management Console to modify the volume and enable encryption in place

C

Take a snapshot of the volume, copy the snapshot with encryption enabled, then restore to a new volume and attach it to the instance

D

Detach the volume, enable encryption using the ModifyVolume API, then reattach

Why: Option A is correct because taking a snapshot of the unencrypted volume with encryption enabled creates an encrypted snapshot. From that snapshot, you can create a new encrypted EBS volume. Detaching the original volume and attaching the new encrypted volume to the same EC2 instance achieves encryption with minimal downtime—only the brief period required for the detach/attach operations. This approach does not require copying the snapshot, which would add unnecessary time.
Q4
easyFull explanation →

A DevOps engineer needs to automatically restart a specific service on an EC2 instance whenever the service crashes. The instance is running Amazon Linux 2. Which approach is the MOST operationally efficient?

A

Set up a CloudWatch alarm that triggers an SSM Run Command to restart the service

B

Write a cron job that checks the service status every minute and restarts it if needed

C

Configure the service as a systemd unit with Restart=on-failure

systemd is the native init system and handles restarts efficiently.

D

Use an AWS Lambda function that polls the service status and calls the EC2 reboot API

Why: Option C is correct because systemd, the default init system on Amazon Linux 2, provides a built-in `Restart=` directive that can be set to `on-failure`. This instructs systemd to automatically restart the service unit when it exits with a non-zero exit code or is terminated by a signal, without requiring any external monitoring or additional infrastructure. This is the most operationally efficient approach as it leverages the native service manager functionality with zero external dependencies.
Q5
mediumFull explanation →

A company has a CloudFormation stack that creates an EC2 instance with a custom AMI. The stack fails with the error 'Resource creation cancelled' during creation. The engineer checks the stack events and sees that the EC2 instance creation succeeded, but the subsequent creation of an EBS volume failed. What is the MOST likely reason for the failure?

A

The EC2 instance creation failed and then was cancelled

B

The EC2 instance had a DeletionPolicy of Retain, which prevented rollback

C

The EBS volume creation failed, causing the stack to roll back and cancel the instance

If a subsequent resource fails, CloudFormation cancels previously created resources during rollback.

D

The EC2 instance depended on the EBS volume, and the dependency caused a timeout

Why: Option C is correct because when an EBS volume creation fails in a CloudFormation stack, the stack initiates a rollback of all previously created resources, including the EC2 instance. The 'Resource creation cancelled' error appears for the EC2 instance because its creation was successful but then undone during the rollback, not because it failed initially.
Q6
mediumFull explanation →

A company is designing a disaster recovery strategy for a critical application that runs on EC2 instances with data stored on EBS volumes. The application requires RPO of 15 minutes and RTO of 1 hour. Which TWO approaches meet these requirements?

A

Use EBS Snapshots taken every 15 minutes and copy them to the DR region

EBS Snapshots can achieve 15-minute RPO.

B

Use AWS Backup with a backup plan that takes cross-region backups every 15 minutes

C

Use Amazon Machine Images (AMIs) backed by EBS snapshots, taken hourly

D

Use EBS Multi-Attach volumes to allow the DR instance to access the same volumes

E

Use EBS Reboot (not Stop/Start) to move the instance to the DR region with replicated volumes

Reboot can be used with volume replication to achieve RTO under 1 hour.

Why: Option A is correct because EBS Snapshots can be taken as frequently as every 15 minutes, and copying them to a DR region ensures that the most recent snapshot is available for recovery. When a disaster occurs, you can create a new EBS volume from the latest snapshot in the DR region, attach it to an EC2 instance, and achieve an RPO of 15 minutes and an RTO of under 1 hour (assuming the instance is pre-provisioned or launched quickly). This approach directly satisfies the stated recovery objectives without relying on instance-level operations.

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Frequently asked questions

How many questions are on the PAS-C01 exam?

The PAS-C01 exam has 65 questions and must be completed in 170 minutes. The passing score is 750/1000.

What types of questions appear on the PAS-C01 exam?

Scenario-based questions covering exam objectives with detailed answer explanations.

How are PAS-C01 questions organised by domain?

The exam covers 4 domains: Design of SAP Workloads on AWS, Technology, Migration, Operations and Maintenance. Questions are weighted by domain — higher-weight domains appear more on your actual exam.

Are these the actual PAS-C01 exam questions?

No. These are original exam-style practice questions written against the official Amazon Web Services PAS-C01 exam objectives. They are not copied from the real exam. Courseiva focuses on genuine understanding, not memorisation of braindumps.

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