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CCNA Threat And Attack Types Questions

63 questions · Threat And Attack Types · All types, answers revealed

1
MCQhard

An attacker is using a technique that involves 'living off the land' by utilizing legitimate system tools. Which data model is most effective to monitor these tools?

A.Network Traffic
B.Endpoint
C.Authentication
D.Change Analysis
AnswerB

The Endpoint data model normalises process, file and registry telemetry, letting you detect misuse of legitimate binaries like PowerShell or certutil. It satisfies the stem's living-off-the-land constraint because process-level visibility is essential to spotting abused system tools.

Why this answer

The Endpoint data model is designed to capture process execution, file system activity, and other host-based events, which are exactly the artifacts left by living-off-the-land techniques. Tools like PowerShell, WMI, and certutil run as processes on endpoints, so their invocation is recorded in endpoint telemetry. This data model normalizes fields such as process_name, parent_process, and command_line, enabling effective detection of suspicious use of legitimate binaries.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests the misconception that network traffic monitoring is sufficient for detecting all attacker techniques, but living-off-the-land specifically requires host-based visibility, making Endpoint the correct choice.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Network Traffic focuses on network connections and protocols, not on the execution of local system tools; while some LOTL tools may generate network traffic, the technique itself is host-based and would be missed if only network data is monitored. Option C is wrong because Authentication data model deals with login events and credential usage, not with process execution or tool invocation. Option D is wrong because Change Analysis tracks configuration and file integrity changes, which may be a secondary effect but does not directly capture the execution of legitimate tools.

2
MCQmedium

An analyst in Splunk Enterprise Security is investigating a suspected Kerberoasting attack. They notice multiple Event Code 4769 events where the ticket encryption type is 0x17 and the service name is not a known service account. Which Splunk search would best identify the affected user accounts and the targeted service principal names (SPNs)?

A.index=wineventlog EventCode=4771 | stats count by Account_Name, Service_Name
B.index=wineventlog EventCode=4624 Logon_Type=3 | stats count by Account_Name, Workstation_Name
C.index=wineventlog EventCode=4769 Ticket_Encryption_Type=0x17 | stats count by Account_Name, Service_Name
D.index=wineventlog EventCode=4768 Ticket_Encryption_Type=0x17 | stats count by Account_Name, Service_Name
AnswerC

This search filters for Event Code 4769 (Kerberos service ticket request) with encryption type 0x17 (RC4-HMAC), which is commonly used in Kerberoasting because it is weaker and easier to crack. It then aggregates by Account_Name (the user requesting the ticket) and Service_Name (the SPN), directly identifying which accounts are requesting service tickets for which services, highlighting potential Kerberoasting activity.

Why this answer

To detect Kerberoasting, analysts focus on Event Code 4769, which logs Kerberos service ticket requests. Attackers often request service tickets with RC4 encryption (0x17) because it is weaker and easier to crack offline. Aggregating by Account_Name and Service_Name reveals which users are requesting tickets for which services, highlighting suspicious patterns such as a single user requesting many service tickets or tickets for unusual SPNs.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing Kerberos authentication ticket requests (Event Code 4768) with service ticket requests (Event Code 4769), which are central to Kerberoasting.

3
MCQmedium

An analyst in Splunk Enterprise Security is investigating a potential DNS tunneling attack. They need to identify hosts that are sending an unusually high number of DNS queries to a single external domain within a short time window. Which search provides the most direct evidence of this behavior?

A.index=dns sourcetype=stream:dns | timechart span=1h count by query
B.index=dns sourcetype=stream:dns | stats dc(query) as unique_queries by src_ip | sort -unique_queries
C.index=dns sourcetype=stream:dns | stats sum(bytes) as total_bytes by dest_ip | sort -total_bytes
D.index=dns sourcetype=stream:dns | stats count by src_ip, query | sort -count
AnswerD

This search aggregates DNS queries by source IP and queried domain, then sorts descending by count. A high count for a single external domain from an internal host is a strong indicator of DNS tunneling, where data is exfiltrated via repeated queries. It directly surfaces the volume and target domain needed to confirm the behavior.

Why this answer

DNS tunneling often involves a compromised host making numerous DNS queries to a single external domain to exfiltrate data. Aggregating counts by source IP and queried domain, then sorting by count, directly reveals this pattern. The other searches either omit the source IP, use irrelevant fields, or focus on unique domain counts, which are better suited for DGA detection rather than tunneling.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing DNS tunneling with DGA activity; tunneling uses repetitive queries to one domain, while DGA generates many unique domains.

4
MCQeasy

A Splunk ES analyst receives a notable event indicating that a user account has been locked out due to multiple failed login attempts. The analyst wants to determine if this is a brute force attack or a user error. Which data model should the analyst examine to review the authentication activity for that user?

A.Change
B.Network Traffic
C.Endpoint
D.Authentication
AnswerD

The Authentication data model in Splunk ES captures login events, including successful and failed attempts, from various sources like Windows Security logs, VPNs, and SSO providers. It includes fields such as user, src, dest, and action, which allow analysts to review the pattern of failed logins and determine if they indicate a brute force attack. This data model is the correct choice for investigating account lockouts.

Why this answer

The Authentication data model is designed to normalize login activity from multiple sources, making it the ideal place to investigate failed login attempts and account lockouts. By examining this data model, analysts can see the frequency and source of failed logins, helping distinguish between a brute force attack and a user mistake. Other data models do not contain authentication events.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that endpoint or network data models include authentication details, when they actually focus on different types of activity.

5
MCQeasy

An analyst wants to investigate a suspicious email attachment. Which Splunk ES notable event field is most effective for pivoting to the 'File' domain investigation dashboard?

A.file_hash
B.src_user
C.signature
D.dest_port
AnswerA

The `file_hash` field carries the cryptographic digest of the attachment, which is the primary pivot key the 'File' domain dashboard queries against. It satisfies the stem's requirement for pivoting to file-centric investigation, since Splunk ES correlates hashes across endpoints and sandboxes to reveal execution, prevalence and verdict data.

Why this answer

The file_hash field in a Splunk ES notable event contains the hash (MD5/SHA) of the file involved in the detection, which is the primary pivot key for the File domain investigation dashboard. That dashboard is designed to look up file reputation, sandbox results, and endpoint activity by hash, making file_hash the most effective field for pivoting there.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests which notable event field maps to which ES investigation domain — candidates pick a plausible-sounding field like signature or src_user without matching it to the File domain's hash-based pivot.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (src_user) is wrong because a user field pivots to identity/user-based dashboards, not the File domain. Option C (signature) is wrong because signature typically refers to an IDS/AV signature name and pivots to signature or detection-based views, not file investigation. Option D (dest_port) is wrong because a port field is network-oriented and pivots to network traffic or port-based dashboards, not file analysis.

6
MCQmedium

A Splunk ES analyst notices a spike in `Endpoint` data model events where `process_name` is `powershell.exe` with a command line containing `-EncodedCommand` and `DownloadString`, spawning from `winword.exe` on several finance workstations. Which MITRE ATT&CK technique does this activity most directly map to?

A.T1059.001 – Command and Scripting Interpreter: PowerShell
B.T1055 – Process Injection
C.T1548.002 – Abuse Elevation Control Mechanism: Bypass User Account Control
D.T1204.002 – User Execution: Malicious File
AnswerA

This is correct because the observed behavior is PowerShell executing an encoded, download-and-execute payload, which is the canonical definition of T1059.001. Splunk ES maps this through the Endpoint data model's process and script-block fields, and the encoded command is a hallmark of PowerShell abuse for execution and defense evasion within that technique.

Why this answer

The activity shows PowerShell being used to execute an encoded, remotely downloaded payload, which is the defining behavior of the PowerShell sub-technique under Command and Scripting Interpreter. Splunk ES correlates process launch and script-block logging from the Endpoint data model, letting analysts identify this technique even when the command is obfuscated with Base64 encoding.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any malicious document execution maps to User Execution rather than to the subsequent interpreter technique that actually performs the payload delivery.

7
MCQhard

An analyst is investigating a suspected DNS tunneling attack. They need to identify hosts that are generating an unusually high number of DNS queries with long, random-looking subdomains. Which Splunk search is most effective for this detection?

A.index=dns | stats avg(len(query)) as avg_len by src_ip | where avg_len > 20
B.index=dns | stats count by src_ip, query | where count > 100
C.index=dns | search query="*.evil.com" | stats count by src_ip
D.index=dns | eval subdomain_len=len(query) | where subdomain_len > 50 | stats count by src_ip | where count > 50
AnswerD

This search calculates the length of each DNS query, filters for queries longer than 50 characters (common in tunneling), then counts by source IP and filters for high volume. DNS tunneling often uses long, encoded subdomains to exfiltrate data, so this combination of length and frequency effectively surfaces suspicious hosts.

Why this answer

DNS tunneling encodes data in subdomains, resulting in long, high-entropy query names and a high volume of queries from a single host. The search that evaluates query length and then counts per source IP addresses both characteristics. The other searches either lack length analysis, use averages that miss outliers, or rely on known domain patterns that attackers can easily change.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on average query length or known malicious domains, but DNS tunneling is better detected by combining unusually long query names with high query volume per host.

8
MCQhard

You are investigating a user who has triggered multiple high-risk alerts. Where in Splunk ES can you view the historical risk score progression for this specific user?

A.Notable Event Analysis
B.Asset Investigator
C.Risk Analysis
D.Incident Review
AnswerC

Risk Analysis aggregates risk events per entity over time, letting you chart the historical risk score progression for the specific user rather than only current totals. This directly satisfies the requirement to view that user's score history across the triggered high-risk alerts.

Why this answer

The Risk Analysis dashboard in Splunk Enterprise Security is purpose-built to display risk score progression over time for entities such as users, systems, and other risk objects. It aggregates risk events generated by correlation searches and shows how scores accumulate and decay. This is the correct place to trace a specific user's historical risk trajectory.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests the difference between triaging notable events (Incident Review, Notable Event Analysis) and analyzing aggregated risk over time (Risk Analysis), so candidates who pick Incident Review because it 'shows alerts' fall into the trap.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Notable Event Analysis focuses on individual notable events and their triage status, not on aggregated risk score trends for an entity. Option B is wrong because Asset Investigator is centered on asset-centric investigation and does not present the risk score timeline for a user. Option D is wrong because Incident Review is where analysts triage and manage notable events as incidents, not where risk score progression is charted.

9
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following data sources are most valuable for detecting an insider threat?

Select 3 answers
A.Printer toner levels
B.Endpoint file activity
C.VPN authentication logs
D.Router uptime logs
E.Email outbound traffic
AnswersB, C, E

Endpoint file activity records local file creation, modification and access on hosts, exposing the collection or staging behaviour typical of insider data theft. This satisfies the requirement for a data source that reveals internal misuse rather than perimeter intrusion.

Why this answer

Endpoint file activity (B) is valuable because insider threats often manifest as abnormal file access, copying, or exfiltration attempts on hosts, which can be captured via endpoint detection and response (EDR) telemetry and file auditing. VPN authentication logs (C) are valuable because they reveal remote access patterns, including logins from unusual locations or times, failed attempts, and concurrent sessions that may indicate credential misuse by an insider. Email outbound traffic (E) is valuable because insiders frequently exfiltrate sensitive data through email attachments or messages, and monitoring SMTP/Exchange traffic, attachment sizes, and recipient domains can surface such behavior.

Printer toner levels (A) are merely consumable-maintenance metrics with no security relevance to user behavior. Router uptime logs (D) only indicate device availability and reboots, providing no insight into insider activity or data movement.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests whether candidates can distinguish security-relevant telemetry from operational noise — options like printer toner levels and router uptime are deliberately included as distractors that sound technical but have no insider-threat detection value.

10
MCQmedium

An attacker uses a weaponized document that exploits a vulnerability to execute code without writing a file to disk. Which detection approach in Splunk ES is best suited to identify this fileless attack?

A.Review firewall logs for inbound connections to the document authoring workstation on unusual ports.
B.Monitor antivirus scan logs for signature matches on the downloaded document.
C.Search the Endpoint data model for suspicious process behavior such as script interpreters spawning from productivity applications and making network connections.
D.Check the Web data model for HTTP downloads of files with double extensions from known-bad domains.
AnswerC

Fileless attacks leave traces in process behavior, not files. The Endpoint data model captures process creation, parent-child relationships, and command lines, so spotting a script interpreter like PowerShell or wscript spawning from a document reader and then making network connections is a strong indicator. This matches the in-memory execution pattern.

Why this answer

Fileless attacks execute code in memory, often by abusing legitimate interpreters invoked by a document reader. The Endpoint data model records process creation, parent-child relationships, and command lines, so detecting a script interpreter spawning from a productivity application and making network connections is the most reliable way to surface this activity.

Exam trap

The trap here is relying on file-based detection such as antivirus signatures, when fileless attacks specifically avoid writing malicious files to disk.

11
MCQeasy

A user account is exhibiting signs of being compromised. Where can you find the user's recent login history in Splunk ES?

A.User Activity
B.Threat Intelligence
C.Asset Investigator
D.Incident Review
AnswerA

User Activity dashboards in Splunk Enterprise Security aggregate authentication and access events per identity, drawing on data models such as Authentication. This surfaces recent logins, source IPs and failed attempts for the compromised account, directly satisfying the requirement to review that user's login history.

Why this answer

The User Activity dashboard in Splunk Enterprise Security is the correct location because it aggregates identity-centric information including recent logins, authentication history, and associated risk for a specific user. When investigating a potentially compromised account, analysts pivot to User Activity to see the timeline of successful and failed logons, source IPs, and related notable events. This view is purpose-built for identity investigation and is distinct from the broader Incident Review queue.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests the distinction between user-centric and host-centric ES dashboards, tricking candidates into choosing Asset Investigator when the question is specifically about a user's login history.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Threat Intelligence) is wrong because it displays indicators of compromise (IOCs) and intelligence matches, not a user's login history. Option C (Asset Investigator) is wrong because it focuses on host and asset-centric data such as system vulnerabilities and network activity, not user authentication history. Option D (Incident Review) is wrong because it is the queue of notable events and incidents requiring triage, not a per-user login timeline, so it does not directly surface a single user's recent logins.

12
MCQeasy

A SOC analyst receives an alert that a user's credentials were used from two geographically distant locations within five minutes. Which Splunk ES capability is designed to surface this type of anomaly by comparing current activity to a learned baseline?

A.User Behavior Analytics (UBA), which builds peer-group and individual baselines to detect anomalous access patterns such as impossible travel.
B.Risk-based alerting, which aggregates risk scores from multiple correlation searches into a single notable event for triage.
C.The Asset and Identity framework, which correlates events with asset ownership and identity metadata.
D.The Threat Intelligence framework, which enriches events with indicators of compromise from external feeds.
AnswerA

UBA is designed to learn normal behavior for users and peer groups, then flag deviations. Logins from two distant locations within minutes violate a learned travel-time baseline, so UBA surfaces this as an anomaly. This directly matches the scenario's need to compare current activity against a learned baseline.

Why this answer

Impossible travel is a behavioral anomaly: the same user cannot physically move between distant locations in minutes. UBA learns each user's normal access patterns and peer-group norms, so a login pair that violates travel-time expectations stands out. That learned baseline is precisely what distinguishes UBA from enrichment-only or risk-aggregation features.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing risk-based alerting with behavioral analytics, when only the latter learns and compares against a user's normal travel and access baseline.

13
MCQmedium

You need to verify if an external IP address is a known malicious TOR exit node. Which Splunk ES feature should you use?

A.Notable Event Suppressor
B.Identity Table
C.Asset Table
D.Threat Intelligence Framework
AnswerD

The Threat Intelligence Framework ingests external threat feeds and matches indicators such as IP addresses against indexed events, letting you confirm whether the address appears in a TOR exit-node intelligence source. This directly satisfies the requirement to verify an external IP against known malicious TOR exit-node data.

Why this answer

The Threat Intelligence Framework in Splunk ES ingests threat feeds (including TOR exit node lists) and matches them against events via the Threat Intelligence data model and correlation searches. It is the designated feature for identifying whether an IP, domain, or file hash is known malicious. Other ES features handle suppression, identity, or asset context, not threat matching.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests the difference between ES data enrichment tables (Asset, Identity) and the Threat Intelligence Framework — candidates must recognize that only the Threat Intelligence Framework handles external malicious indicators like TOR exit nodes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (Notable Event Suppressor) is wrong because it suppresses duplicate or noisy notable events and does not perform threat intelligence matching. Option B (Identity Table) is wrong because it stores user identity information (e.g., email, department) for correlation, not external threat indicators. Option C (Asset Table) is wrong because it stores asset metadata such as IP, hostname, and owner, not malicious IP reputation data.

14
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of the 'Incident Review' dashboard in Splunk ES?

A.Creating threat intelligence feeds
B.Monitoring system performance
C.Configuring data ingestion
D.Managing notable events
AnswerD

Incident Review provides the triage workspace where analysts assign, comment on, and change the status of notable events, driving them through investigation to closure. That management of notable events is its primary function, distinct from rule authoring or risk scoring.

Why this answer

The Incident Review dashboard in Splunk Enterprise Security is the primary analyst workspace for triaging, investigating, and managing notable events. It aggregates notables generated by correlation searches and provides workflows for status changes, assignments, comments, and drill-downs. Its core function is notable event management, not data ingestion, performance monitoring, or threat feed creation.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests whether candidates confuse ES dashboards with core Splunk monitoring tools, so options like 'monitoring system performance' tempt anyone who hasn't used ES hands-on.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because threat intelligence feeds are managed through the Threat Intelligence framework and the `threat_intelligence` lookup/collection, not the Incident Review dashboard. Option B is wrong because system performance monitoring is the role of the Monitoring Console and its dashboards, not Incident Review. Option C is wrong because data ingestion configuration is done via inputs.conf, the Data Inputs UI, or the Add Data wizard — Incident Review has no ingestion controls.

15
MCQmedium

An analyst is investigating a suspected DNS tunneling attack. Which Splunk ES data model and field should be used to identify hosts making an unusually high number of unique DNS queries with long subdomain strings?

A.Web data model, using the `uri_path` field to detect long encoded strings
B.Endpoint data model, analyzing `process_name` for `nslookup.exe` executions
C.Network_Resolution data model, using the `query` field and calculating the length of subdomain labels
D.Network_Traffic data model, filtering on `dest_port` 53 and measuring `bytes_in`
AnswerC

The Network_Resolution data model normalizes DNS query and response data, including the query string and record type. By analyzing the query field for unusually long or high-entropy subdomains and counting unique queries per host, analysts can detect DNS tunneling patterns where data is encoded in subdomain labels.

Why this answer

DNS tunneling encodes data in subdomain labels, so detection requires examining the DNS query strings themselves. The Network_Resolution data model provides normalized DNS query and response fields, enabling Splunk ES searches that calculate query length, entropy, and uniqueness per host to flag potential tunneling.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on network flow volume on port 53 instead of the DNS query content, which is where the tunneling evidence actually resides.

16
MCQeasy

You notice a system process attempting to connect to a suspicious external domain. Which CIM data model would contain this network connection information?

A.Authentication
B.Change Analysis
C.Network Traffic
D.Endpoint
AnswerC

Network Traffic is the CIM data model that normalises network connection events, including source and destination IP addresses, ports, and domain names. It captures the outbound connection from the system process to the suspicious external domain, satisfying the stem's requirement for network connection information.

Why this answer

The Network Traffic data model in the Splunk Common Information Model (CIM) is designed to normalize network connection events, including source/destination IPs, ports, protocols, and domain names. A system process attempting an outbound connection to a suspicious external domain would generate network telemetry (e.g., from firewalls, proxies, or Zeek) that maps to this model. Therefore, Network Traffic is the correct CIM data model to search for such activity.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests the confusion between Endpoint and Network Traffic data models, where candidates mistakenly associate process-level network activity with the Endpoint model instead of the Network Traffic model.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Authentication data model focuses on login and authentication events (successes, failures, privilege changes), not network connections. Option B is wrong because Change Analysis tracks configuration and system changes (e.g., file integrity, registry modifications), not network traffic. Option D is wrong because the Endpoint data model covers process execution, file operations, and registry activity on hosts, but does not directly model network connection details like domain names or IP addresses.

17
MCQeasy

Which Splunk ES component would you use to define a new correlation rule based on a custom blacklist of domains?

A.Notable Event Suppressor
B.Risk Analysis Configuration
C.Correlation Search Editor
D.Threat Intelligence Framework
AnswerC

The Correlation Search Editor creates and schedules correlation searches, letting you supply a custom blacklist lookup of domains and define the triggering logic. This directly satisfies the requirement to build a new correlation rule from your own domain list rather than a built-in content source.

Why this answer

The Correlation Search Editor is the ES component used to create, edit, and manage correlation searches, including those that match events against a custom blacklist of domains. You define the search logic, schedule, throttling, and notable event settings here. It is the correct place to author a new rule that leverages a lookup or KV Store blacklist for domain matching.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests confusion between the Threat Intelligence Framework (for ingesting feeds) and the Correlation Search Editor (for authoring detection rules) — candidates pick the framework thinking it creates rules.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Notable Event Suppressor only suppresses or deduplicates existing notables; it does not define new detection logic. Option B is wrong because Risk Analysis Configuration adjusts risk scoring and risk factors, not the creation of correlation rules. Option D is wrong because the Threat Intelligence Framework manages threat feeds and indicator ingestion, not custom correlation rule authoring based on a blacklist.

18
MCQhard

An attacker is using a technique to hide in plain sight by renaming a common system process. Which data model is most suitable for comparing process names against known good paths?

A.Endpoint
B.Authentication
C.Network Traffic
D.Change Analysis
AnswerA

The Endpoint data model normalises process telemetry into fields such as process_name and process_path, letting you compare running process names against known good executable paths to expose masquerading. This directly satisfies the stem's requirement to detect a renamed system process hiding in plain sight.

Why this answer

The Endpoint data model in Splunk is designed to normalize process execution, file system activity, and registry events from endpoint telemetry sources such as Sysmon, Windows Event Logs, and CrowdStrike. It includes process_name, process_path, parent_process_name, and user fields that allow correlation of a running process against its expected filesystem path. Comparing a renamed system process (e.g., svchost.exe running from C:\Temp) against known good paths is exactly the process-path correlation the Endpoint model supports.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests the confusion between Endpoint and Network Traffic data models, tricking candidates into picking Network Traffic because the attacker's process communicates over the network — but the question is about process name versus path, which is Endpoint.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the Authentication data model focuses on login, logout, and privilege escalation events (successful and failed authentications, account changes) and does not normalize process execution or file paths. Option C is wrong because the Network Traffic data model normalizes flows, sessions, and DNS/HTTP metadata — it can show a process making a connection but does not provide the process path comparison needed to detect a renamed binary. Option D is wrong because the Change Analysis data model tracks configuration and change events (file integrity, registry changes, service installs) but does not provide the process-name-to-path mapping required to spot a masquerading system process.

19
MCQeasy

A Splunk ES analyst receives a notable event for 'Excessive Failed Logins' on a Windows server. The analyst wants to determine if this is a brute-force attack or a misconfigured service account. Which field in the notable event would best help differentiate between these two scenarios?

A.signature
B.dest
C.user
D.src
AnswerC

The 'user' field identifies the account being targeted. If it is a service account, misconfiguration is likely; if it is a regular user or many different users, brute-force is more probable. Examining the user helps distinguish between an attack and an operational issue, making it the most relevant field for this differentiation.

Why this answer

The user field is critical because it reveals which account is experiencing failures. A single service account with repeated failures suggests misconfiguration, while multiple user accounts or a privileged account targeted from an external IP indicates brute-force. The other fields provide context but do not directly differentiate between the two causes.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a high number of failed logins always indicates an attack, overlooking that a misconfigured service account can produce the same pattern.

20
MCQeasy

Where do you go in Splunk ES to adjust the sensitivity (risk score) of a specific correlation search?

A.Notable Event Settings
B.Incident Review
C.Risk Analysis Dashboard
D.Correlation Search Editor
AnswerD

The Correlation Search Editor exposes the risk score threshold directly, letting you raise or lower the sensitivity assigned to a specific correlation search. Editing the search's risk configuration there satisfies the stem's requirement to adjust that individual search, rather than changing global risk settings or the underlying saved search definition.

Why this answer

The Correlation Search Editor is where you configure all aspects of a correlation search, including its risk score (risk analysis settings) and urgency. Adjusting the sensitivity of a specific correlation search means editing its risk score or risk object configuration, which is done in this editor. It provides the per-search control needed to tune detection sensitivity.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests confusion between the Risk Analysis Dashboard (viewing aggregated risk) and the Correlation Search Editor (configuring per-search risk scores) — candidates pick the dashboard thinking it allows sensitivity adjustment.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Notable Event Settings controls global notable event behavior (statuses, urgency levels) but not per-search risk scores. Option B is wrong because Incident Review is the analyst triage dashboard, not a configuration interface for risk scores. Option C is wrong because the Risk Analysis Dashboard displays aggregated risk scores and risk objects; it does not let you edit the sensitivity of an individual correlation search.

21
MCQmedium

You are investigating a potential insider threat involving unauthorized data exfiltration. Which Splunk ES feature allows you to correlate multiple events occurring over a long duration to a single entity?

A.Notable Event Aggregation
B.Asset Investigator
C.Threat Activity
D.Risk Analysis
AnswerD

Risk Analysis aggregates risk attributed to entities such as users and systems, letting you correlate many disparate events across extended timeframes into a cumulative risk score. That long-duration, entity-centric correlation is exactly what the insider-threat exfiltration scenario requires.

Why this answer

Risk Analysis in Splunk Enterprise Security is the framework that assigns risk scores to entities (users, systems, IPs) based on risk-modifying searches and correlation searches. Because risk scores accumulate over time and are tied to a specific entity via the risk object, it is the feature designed to correlate many events occurring across a long duration to a single entity. This makes it the correct tool for tracking slow, low-and-slow insider threat behavior such as gradual data exfiltration.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests the distinction between event grouping (Notable Event Aggregation) and long-term entity scoring (Risk Analysis), so candidates who focus on 'correlate multiple events' may incorrectly choose Notable Event Aggregation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Notable Event Aggregation groups related notable events into a single incident for triage, but it does not maintain a persistent, time-decayed risk score tied to an entity over long durations. Option B is wrong because Asset Investigator is an investigation UI that displays all known information about an asset; it is a visualization/investigation tool, not a correlation mechanism that aggregates events over time to an entity. Option C is wrong because Threat Activity is a dashboard/analytic view of threat intelligence matches and threat-related notables, not a long-duration entity correlation framework.

22
Multi-Selectmedium

An analyst is investigating a potential ransomware outbreak. They observe a high volume of file encryption activity and want to identify the initial infection vector. Which TWO of the following Splunk ES data models would be most useful to correlate endpoint and network activity to trace the source? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Endpoint
B.Malware
C.Network_Traffic
D.Authentication
E.Web
AnswersA, C

The Endpoint data model contains process execution, file system changes, and registry modifications. It can reveal the ransomware process, its parent process, and any dropped files, which helps trace back to the initial infection vector, such as a malicious document or exploit. This is essential for understanding how the ransomware executed.

Why this answer

Tracing a ransomware infection requires correlating endpoint process activity with network communications. The Endpoint data model reveals the execution chain and file modifications, while the Network_Traffic data model shows external connections that may indicate the delivery or C2. Together, they provide a comprehensive view to identify the initial vector.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing solely on the Malware data model, which only shows detections, rather than using Endpoint and Network_Traffic to reconstruct the infection chain.

23
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are common indicators that a host has been infected with malware?

Select 3 answers
A.Unusual outbound network connection
B.Modification of system-critical files
C.Unexpected process execution
D.Successful user logout
E.User password reset
AnswersA, B, C

Malware commonly beacons to command-and-control infrastructure, so an unusual outbound network connection from a host to unfamiliar external addresses is a recognised infection indicator. It reflects unauthorised communication consistent with the stem's malware compromise scenario.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because malware typically establishes command-and-control (C2) channels or exfiltrates data, producing unusual outbound connections to unfamiliar IP addresses or ports that deviate from the host's normal traffic baseline. Option B is correct because many malware families tamper with system-critical files—such as modifying boot records, system binaries, or registry keys—to achieve persistence, escalate privileges, or disable security controls. Option C is correct because unexpected process execution, such as unknown or suspicious processes spawning from unusual parent processes, is a hallmark of malware running on a host.

Option D is not an indicator of infection, since a successful user logout is a normal, expected system event. Option E is also not an indicator, as a user password reset is a legitimate administrative or self-service action rather than evidence of compromise.

Exam trap

The trap is including normal user activities (logout, password reset) as infection indicators; candidates must distinguish between benign administrative events and true host compromise signs.

24
MCQeasy

A Splunk ES analyst receives a notable event for a possible phishing attack. The email contains a malicious link that, when clicked, downloads a payload. Which Splunk ES data model and field would best help the analyst quickly identify all users who clicked the link and the associated URLs?

A.Network_Traffic data model, field `dest_ip`
B.Authentication data model, field `user`
C.Web data model, field `url`
D.Email data model, field `url`
AnswerC

The Web data model in Splunk ES is designed to capture web activity, including HTTP requests and URLs accessed. By searching the Web data model for the malicious URL, the analyst can identify all users who accessed it, along with timestamps and source IPs. This directly answers the question of who clicked the link and provides the associated URLs, enabling rapid scoping of the incident.

Why this answer

The Web data model in Splunk ES captures web proxy or endpoint logs that include URLs and associated user information. By searching for the malicious URL within this data model, the analyst can quickly identify all users who accessed it, along with the URLs themselves. This is the most direct way to scope a phishing incident where a link was clicked.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that the Email data model contains click data, when in fact it only covers email metadata, not user interactions with links.

25
MCQmedium

You want to visualize the geographic origin of incoming connection attempts to identify potentially malicious traffic. Which dashboard is most appropriate?

A.Protocol Intelligence
B.Geographic Information
C.Threat Intelligence
D.User Activity
AnswerB

The Geographic Information dashboard plots source IP addresses onto a world map using geolocation lookups, directly satisfying the requirement to visualise the geographic origin of incoming connection attempts. Other dashboards present traffic volumes or protocol breakdowns without geographic context.

Why this answer

The Geographic Information dashboard in Splunk Enterprise Security is specifically designed to visualize the geographic origin of network traffic, including incoming connection attempts. It uses IP geolocation data to plot source and destination locations on a map, making it ideal for identifying potentially malicious traffic from unexpected regions. This dashboard directly addresses the requirement to visualize geographic origin, unlike the other dashboards which focus on different aspects of security intelligence.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests the specific purpose of each ES dashboard, and candidates may confuse the Threat Intelligence dashboard with Geographic Information because threat feeds can include geographic data, but the key is that Geographic Information is dedicated to visualizing location-based patterns.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Protocol Intelligence dashboard focuses on analyzing network protocol usage and anomalies, not geographic locations. Option C is wrong because the Threat Intelligence dashboard displays matches against threat intelligence feeds, which may include geographic data but is not primarily for visualizing geographic origin of connections. Option D is wrong because the User Activity dashboard tracks user behavior and access patterns, not the geographic source of network connections.

26
MCQmedium

An analyst is investigating a potential DLL sideloading attack on a Windows host. Which Splunk ES data model and field can be used to detect the loading of a malicious DLL from an unusual path?

A.Endpoint data model, field image_path
B.Identity_Management data model, field process_path
C.Endpoint data model, field dll_path
D.Network_Traffic data model, field file_path
AnswerC

The Endpoint data model includes a dll_path field for events related to DLL loading (e.g., from Sysmon Event ID 7). This field specifies the full path of the loaded DLL. In DLL sideloading, attackers place a malicious DLL in a directory where a legitimate application loads it, often from an unusual path. Monitoring dll_path for anomalies helps detect such attacks.

Why this answer

DLL sideloading involves a legitimate application loading a malicious DLL from an unexpected location. The Endpoint data model, populated by Sysmon Event ID 7 or similar, includes the dll_path field that records the loaded DLL's path. By analyzing dll_path for DLLs loaded from user-writable directories or unusual locations, analysts can detect sideloading attempts.

Other data models lack the necessary file and process context.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing image_path (the executable) with dll_path (the loaded library); sideloading detection requires the latter.

27
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are common types of social engineering?

Select 2 answers
A.Buffer Overflow
B.SQL Injection
C.Pretexting
D.Phishing
E.Port Scanning
AnswersC, D

Pretexting fabricates a scenario or identity to manipulate a target into divulging information or performing actions, exploiting trust rather than technical flaws. It is a recognised social engineering category, satisfying the stem's requirement for common human-focused manipulation techniques.

Why this answer

Pretexting (C) is a common social engineering technique in which an attacker invents a fabricated scenario or identity to manipulate a victim into divulging information or performing an action, exploiting human trust rather than technical flaws. Phishing (D) is likewise a core social engineering method, using fraudulent emails, messages, or websites to trick users into revealing credentials or clicking malicious links. Both rely on psychological manipulation of people, which is the defining characteristic of social engineering.

By contrast, buffer overflow (A) and SQL injection (B) are technical software exploitation attacks against memory handling and database input validation respectively, and port scanning (E) is a network reconnaissance technique for discovering open TCP/UDP services — none of these target human behavior, so they are not social engineering types.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests the ability to distinguish between social engineering and technical attacks, and candidates may incorrectly select technical exploits like buffer overflow or SQL injection.

28
MCQmedium

An attacker is using PowerShell to obfuscate their activities. Which data model is most appropriate for searching for encoded PowerShell commands?

A.Endpoint
B.Network Sessions
C.Web
D.Authentication
AnswerA

The Endpoint data model normalises process-execution telemetry, including PowerShell command lines and script-block logging, into fields such as process and process_name. This directly satisfies the stem's constraint of searching obfuscated, encoded PowerShell activity, since the encoded command string is captured in the process command-line field rather than in network or authentication data.

Why this answer

The Endpoint data model is designed to capture process execution, command-line arguments, and script block logging on hosts, which are essential for detecting obfuscated PowerShell. It includes fields like process, process_name, and process_exec that store the full command line, allowing you to search for encoded commands (e.g., -EncodedCommand). Since PowerShell obfuscation occurs at the endpoint level, this data model provides the necessary context to identify and investigate such activity.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests the misconception that network or web data models can detect endpoint-based obfuscation, but the key is recognizing that PowerShell command-line arguments are only captured in endpoint process execution logs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Network Sessions focuses on network traffic metadata (e.g., src, dest, bytes) and does not capture process-level details like command-line arguments or script blocks. Option C is wrong because the Web data model is for HTTP/HTTPS traffic and web server logs, not host-based process execution. Option D is wrong because Authentication deals with login events and user authentication, not process creation or PowerShell commands.

29
MCQmedium

An analyst notices that several Windows workstations are repeatedly resolving domain names such as 'update.microsoft.com.security-check.net' and 'login.office365.com.auth-verify.org'. These lookups occur shortly before outbound HTTPS connections to the resolved IPs. Which type of attack technique is most consistent with this observation?

A.Domain impersonation via combosquatting
B.DNS tunneling for command-and-control
C.Domain fronting through a content delivery network
D.Typosquatting of legitimate corporate domains
AnswerA

Combosquatting creates malicious domains by adding words to a legitimate brand name, such as 'microsoft.com.security-check.net' or 'office365.com.auth-verify.org'. The extra words make the domain appear trustworthy to users and sometimes to simple filters. The repeated resolution of such lookalike domains immediately before outbound HTTPS connections is a strong indicator of this technique used for phishing, malware delivery, or command-and-control.

Why this answer

The hostnames combine a trusted brand with additional words in a way that forms a completely different registered domain, which is the defining characteristic of combosquatting. Because the lookups happen just before outbound connections, the workstations are likely contacting infrastructure controlled by an attacker. Recognizing this pattern helps analysts distinguish combosquatting from typosquatting, domain fronting, and DNS tunneling, each of which has different observable evidence in DNS and network logs.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming any lookalike Microsoft domain must be typosquatting, when the added words and the resolution-before-connection pattern point to combosquatting instead.

30
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are ways to verify if a file hash is truly malicious within Splunk ES?

Select 2 answers
A.Submit the hash to an external sandbox/reputation service
B.Check against the Threat Intelligence framework
C.Restart the endpoint
D.Rename the file
E.Change the file extension
AnswersA, B

Sandbox and reputation services detonate or query the hash against external intelligence, providing independent confirmation of maliciousness. This satisfies the stem's verification requirement, since Splunk ES internal data alone cannot confirm a hash is truly malicious.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because submitting a file hash to an external sandbox or reputation service (e.g., VirusTotal, Hybrid Analysis) provides independent, multi-engine verdicts on whether that hash is known malicious, which is a standard validation step in Splunk ES investigations. Option B is correct because Splunk ES's Threat Intelligence framework lets you match the hash against configured threat intel sources and local intelligence stores, so a hit confirms the hash is associated with known malicious activity. Options C, D, and E are incorrect because restarting an endpoint, renaming a file, or changing its extension are remediation or evasion actions that do not verify whether the hash itself is malicious and provide no threat intelligence verdict.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests whether candidates confuse verification methods (intel lookup, sandbox submission) with remediation or cosmetic actions (restart, rename, change extension) — the trap is picking an action that does not actually validate the hash.

31
MCQeasy

Which Splunk ES dashboard allows an analyst to see a summary of all active notable events currently requiring investigation?

A.Threat Intelligence
B.Security Posture
C.Incident Review
D.User Activity
AnswerC

Incident Review lists all notable events with their urgency, status, owner and disposition, giving analysts a consolidated queue of active investigations. This satisfies the stem's requirement for a summary of notable events currently requiring investigation.

Why this answer

The Incident Review dashboard in Splunk Enterprise Security is the central analyst workspace that displays all notable events generated by correlation searches, including their urgency, status, owner, and disposition. It aggregates active notables requiring triage, allowing analysts to filter, assign, and investigate them. This is the primary dashboard referenced in ES for managing the notable event lifecycle.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests confusion between dashboards that summarize posture versus the dashboard that lists active notables — candidates pick Security Posture thinking it shows 'all active events' when it actually shows aggregated metrics.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Threat Intelligence dashboard displays threat intelligence matches and intelligence source activity, not the queue of active notable events. Option B is wrong because the Security Posture dashboard provides high-level posture metrics and KPI trends across the environment, not a per-notable investigation queue. Option D is wrong because the User Activity dashboard focuses on identity and access analytics for specific users, not the overall summary of active notables.

32
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are examples of reconnaissance techniques used by attackers?

Select 2 answers
A.Domain footprinting
B.Password cracking
C.Port scanning
D.Log file deletion
E.Data encryption
AnswersA, C

Domain footprinting gathers DNS, WHOIS and registration data to map an organisation's external attack surface before exploitation. It satisfies the stem's reconnaissance criterion because it is passive information gathering, occurring prior to any intrusion attempt.

Why this answer

Domain footprinting (A) is a reconnaissance technique because it gathers information about a target organization's domains, subdomains, IP ranges, and DNS records using tools like WHOIS, nslookup, and dig, all without directly attacking the target. Port scanning (C) is also reconnaissance, as tools such as Nmap probe TCP/UDP ports to discover open services, running daemons, and potential entry points before exploitation. Both fall into the information-gathering phase of the attack lifecycle (e.g., MITRE ATT&CK Reconnaissance tactic).

Password cracking (B) is an exploitation/credential-access activity, not reconnaissance, since it attempts to recover credentials from captured hashes. Log file deletion (D) is a defense-evasion and anti-forensics action performed after compromise. Data encryption (E) is a defensive or data-protection measure, not an attacker reconnaissance technique.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests whether candidates can distinguish pre-attack reconnaissance from post-compromise actions — password cracking and log deletion feel 'attacker-like' but belong to later kill chain phases.

33
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are valid methods to mitigate an insider threat within Splunk ES?

Select 2 answers
A.Disabling all network ports
B.Manually logging all user keystrokes
C.Enabling RBA for high-risk users
D.Using Correlation Searches to alert on data exfiltration
E.Deleting user accounts immediately
AnswersC, D

Risk-Based Alerting assigns and accumulates risk scores against users and entities, so activity from high-risk insiders rises above the notable threshold and triggers investigation, satisfying the requirement to mitigate insider threat. It correlates weak signals that individually would not alert.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because Splunk Enterprise Security's Risk-Based Alerting (RBA) aggregates risk scores from risk modifiers and anomaly detections into risk index entries, allowing analysts to prioritize and investigate high-risk users whose cumulative risk exceeds defined thresholds — directly surfacing insider behavior that might otherwise go unnoticed. Option D is correct because Correlation Searches in Splunk ES run on schedules against indexed data and can trigger notable events when patterns such as large outbound data transfers, unusual download volumes, or access to sensitive indexes indicate potential data exfiltration by an insider. The remaining options are not valid Splunk ES mitigations: disabling all network ports (A) would break the Splunk deployment itself and is not a security control, manually logging all user keystrokes (B) is an endpoint/DLP function outside Splunk ES and raises privacy/legal issues, and deleting user accounts immediately (E) is a reactive, destructive action that destroys audit evidence rather than a mitigation method within Splunk ES.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests whether candidates choose extreme, disruptive actions (disabling ports, deleting accounts) instead of scalable detection-based mitigations like RBA and correlation searches.

34
MCQmedium

An analyst notices a Splunk ES notable event indicating a possible DNS exfiltration. In the Network_Traffic data model, which field contains the domain name being queried by an internal host?

A.query
B.dest_host
C.url
D.dns_query
AnswerD

In the Splunk Network_Traffic data model, the dns_query field holds the queried domain name from DNS request events. For DNS exfiltration, this field is essential to identify anomalous domains. Analysts pivot on dns_query to find high-entropy or long subdomains typical of data tunneling.

Why this answer

The Network_Traffic data model includes the dns_query field specifically for DNS request events. When investigating DNS exfiltration, analysts must examine the queried domain names, which are stored in dns_query. This field allows detection of anomalous patterns such as long, random subdomains used to tunnel data.

Other fields like dest_host or url do not capture the DNS query string and would lead to missed detection.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing dest_host with dns_query; dest_host is the resolved destination, not the queried domain.

35
MCQmedium

You are investigating a potential web-based attack. Which data model contains information regarding HTTP user-agents and request methods?

A.Network Traffic
B.Authentication
C.Endpoint
D.Web
AnswerD

The Web data model normalises HTTP traffic, exposing fields such as http_user_agent and http_method that capture user-agents and request methods. It satisfies the stem's requirement to investigate web-based attacks by correlating proxy, IDS and web-server sourcetypes into a common schema.

Why this answer

The Web data model in Splunk's Common Information Model (CIM) contains information about web activity, including HTTP user-agents and request methods. It is designed to capture web server and web proxy logs, making it the correct choice for investigating web-based attacks.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests which data model contains specific fields — candidates may confuse the Web data model with Network Traffic, but HTTP user-agents and request methods are unique to the Web data model.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Network Traffic data model focuses on network flow data (e.g., src, dest, bytes) and does not specifically include HTTP user-agents or request methods. Option B is wrong because the Authentication data model covers login and authentication events, not web request details. Option C is wrong because the Endpoint data model covers endpoint process and file activity, not HTTP request specifics.

36
MCQmedium

An analyst is reviewing Splunk Enterprise Security correlation search results and notices a notable event for a host named WEB-01 indicating a possible web shell. The analyst wants to quickly identify the exact command and URI used in the initial exploit. Which Splunk ES data model should the analyst examine to find the HTTP request method and URI associated with this event?

A.Network Traffic
B.Web
C.Endpoint
D.Intrusion Detection
AnswerB

The Web data model in Splunk ES is designed to capture web server activity, including HTTP request methods, URIs, user agents, and status codes. Examining this data model allows the analyst to pivot from the notable event to the specific HTTP request details, such as the URI and method used in the web shell exploit, providing crucial context for incident response.

Why this answer

The Web data model is specifically structured to normalize web server logs, making it the ideal source for HTTP request methods and URIs. When investigating a potential web shell, analysts need to examine the initial exploit's HTTP request to understand the attack vector. Other data models lack this application-layer detail, so the Web data model is the correct choice.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that network traffic or endpoint data models contain HTTP request details, when they actually focus on lower-level or host-based activity.

37
MCQeasy

A security analyst receives an alert about a possible DNS tunneling attack. They need to examine DNS query logs to identify unusually long domain names that might indicate data exfiltration. Which Splunk ES data model should they use?

A.Endpoint.DNS
B.Network_Traffic
C.Network_Resolution
D.Web
AnswerC

The Network_Resolution data model captures DNS resolution events, including query names, query types, and response codes. It is specifically designed for analyzing DNS activity, making it the ideal choice for detecting DNS tunneling, which often involves abnormally long or encoded domain names. Searching this model allows the analyst to identify suspicious patterns.

Why this answer

The Network_Resolution data model is designed to capture DNS resolution events, including fields like query, answer, and query_type. DNS tunneling attacks often use long, encoded domain names to exfiltrate data. By searching this data model, the analyst can identify anomalies such as unusually long query names or high volumes of queries to a single domain, which are indicative of tunneling.

This targeted approach enables efficient detection and response.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that DNS traffic is captured in the Network_Traffic or Web data models, when in fact DNS-specific fields are only available in the Network_Resolution data model.

38
MCQhard

During an investigation, an analyst observes multiple `Endpoint` events where `lsass.exe` is accessed with `PROCESS_VM_READ` by a non-standard binary named `diagtrack.exe` running from `C:\Users\Public\`. Which Splunk ES data model and field combination best supports detecting this credential-dumping behavior?

A.Network_Traffic data model, filtering on `dest_port` and `bytes_out` to detect exfiltration
B.Endpoint data model, correlating `process_name` and `process_id` with `access` events from the `Processes` node
C.Authentication data model, using `user` and `src` fields to identify failed logon attempts
D.Change_Analysis data model, monitoring registry key modifications under `HKLM\SAM`
AnswerB

The Endpoint data model's Processes node captures process access events, including the source process name and the target process, along with granted access masks. By correlating the source binary and the target lsass.exe, Splunk ES can surface suspicious access consistent with credential dumping, which is exactly the behavior described.

Why this answer

Detecting credential dumping requires visibility into process access events, which the Endpoint data model provides through its Processes node. By correlating the source binary with the target lsass.exe and the granted access mask, Splunk ES can identify suspicious memory reads that are characteristic of tools like Mimikatz or custom dumpers, even when the binary name is masqueraded.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that credential dumping is always visible in authentication logs, when the actual access occurs at the process level and requires endpoint process telemetry.

39
MCQeasy

A SOC analyst observes an unusual spike in failed login attempts followed by a successful login from a new IP address. Which Splunk Enterprise Security dashboard should the analyst check to confirm if this is a potential brute-force attack?

A.User Activity Center
B.Protocol Intelligence
C.Access Anomalies
D.Threat Intelligence Activity
AnswerC

Access Anomalies correlates authentication failures with subsequent successful logins, directly surfacing the failed-then-successful pattern from a new source IP that the stem describes. It aggregates this behaviour per user and src, letting the analyst confirm brute-force activity without manual search construction.

Why this answer

The Access Anomalies dashboard in Splunk Enterprise Security is designed to surface unusual authentication behavior, including spikes in failed logins followed by successful logins from new or unusual IP addresses — the classic signature of a brute-force attack. It aggregates authentication data and highlights anomalies in access patterns, making it the correct dashboard for this investigation.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests the confusion between dashboards that sound similar (User Activity Center vs. Access Anomalies), causing candidates to pick a dashboard that focuses on user behavior rather than authentication anomaly detection.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (User Activity Center) is wrong because it focuses on per-user activity and asset context, not on detecting authentication anomalies like brute-force patterns. Option B (Protocol Intelligence) is wrong because it analyzes network protocol traffic (e.g., DNS, HTTP, email) rather than authentication events. Option D (Threat Intelligence Activity) is wrong because it correlates events with threat intelligence feeds, which is useful for known-bad IPs but not for detecting the behavioral pattern of brute-force attempts.

40
MCQhard

A malware infection is suspected on a host. You notice traffic on port 445. Which Splunk ES correlation search should be prioritized to investigate lateral movement?

A.Brute Force Access
B.Malware Detection
C.Lateral Movement
D.DGA Detection
AnswerC

Port 445 indicates SMB, a common lateral-movement channel; the Lateral Movement correlation search aggregates authentication and file-share activity across hosts to surface exactly that behaviour, satisfying the requirement to prioritise a search for suspected spread from the infected host.

Why this answer

Port 445 is used by SMB (Server Message Block), which is the primary protocol for Windows file sharing and is commonly abused for lateral movement via tools like PsExec, SMBExec, and WannaCry-style propagation. Splunk ES includes a 'Lateral Movement' correlation search that detects suspicious SMB connections, remote service creation, and other lateral movement techniques. Prioritizing this search directly addresses the observed traffic and the suspected malware infection.

Exam trap

The trap is selecting a generic malware search when the question specifically points to port 445, which is the signature of SMB lateral movement; candidates must map the protocol to the correct ES analytic story.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Brute Force Access detects repeated authentication failures, which would not be the primary concern when port 445 traffic indicates SMB-based lateral movement. Option B is wrong because Malware Detection focuses on endpoint malware signatures and behaviors, not network-level SMB lateral movement; it may be relevant but is not the most specific ES search for port 445. Option D is wrong because DGA Detection identifies domain generation algorithm traffic, which is unrelated to SMB port 445 activity.

41
MCQhard

An analyst observes a series of events where a process creates a child process with a command line that includes encoded PowerShell commands. The parent process is a Microsoft Office application. Which attack technique is most likely being used?

A.Watering hole attack
B.Phishing with a malicious macro
C.Supply chain compromise
D.Drive-by download
AnswerB

Microsoft Office applications spawning PowerShell with encoded commands is a common indicator of a malicious macro. Attackers use macros to execute PowerShell, often with base64-encoded payloads to evade detection. This technique is frequently used in phishing campaigns. Splunk ES can detect this by monitoring process creation events where the parent is an Office app and the child is PowerShell with suspicious arguments.

Why this answer

The scenario describes a Microsoft Office application spawning a child process with encoded PowerShell commands. This is a classic sign of a malicious macro, often delivered via phishing. Drive-by downloads, watering hole attacks, and supply chain compromises do not typically exhibit this specific process lineage.

Therefore, the most likely technique is a phishing attack using a malicious macro.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming any encoded PowerShell indicates a sophisticated attack, but the key is the parent process: Office applications spawning PowerShell strongly suggest macro-based execution.

42
Multi-Selecthard

A Splunk ES analyst is investigating a potential Kerberoasting attack. The analyst wants to identify the key indicators of this activity. Which TWO of the following are primary indicators of a Kerberoasting attack that the analyst should look for in Splunk ES? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Multiple failed logon attempts (Event ID 4625) for a single user account within a short period.
B.A single user account requesting an unusually high number of service tickets for different SPNs in a short time.
C.The use of the KRBTGT account to request a ticket-granting ticket (TGT) with a long lifetime.
D.A high volume of Kerberos service ticket requests (Event ID 4769) with weak encryption types such as RC4.
E.A sudden increase in DNS queries for service records (SRV) from a single host.
AnswersB, D

In Kerberoasting, an attacker often uses a single compromised account to request service tickets for many SPNs to gather multiple tickets for offline cracking. This behavior results in a high volume of Event ID 4769 requests from one user to various services. Splunk ES can detect this anomaly by analyzing ticket requests per user over time, making it a primary indicator.

Why this answer

Kerberoasting is characterized by attackers requesting service tickets for SPNs and then cracking them offline. The two primary indicators are a high volume of service ticket requests (Event ID 4769) with weak encryption like RC4, and a single user requesting many service tickets for different SPNs. These patterns are detectable in Splunk ES through the Authentication data model and custom correlation searches.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing Kerberoasting with other attacks like brute force or golden ticket, leading analysts to select indicators that are not specific to Kerberoasting.

43
Multi-Selectmedium

A Splunk ES analyst is investigating a potential ransomware incident. Which TWO of the following are valid indicators of ransomware activity that should be prioritized for detection? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.A sudden increase in SMB write operations to a single file server from multiple hosts
B.A high volume of file rename operations with extensions such as .encrypted or .locked
C.A single failed login attempt from an external IP address
D.An increase in DNS queries for known cryptocurrency mining pools
E.A user reporting slower than usual workstation performance
AnswersA, B

Ransomware often spreads laterally via SMB and encrypts shared files, causing a spike in write operations to file servers. This behavior is visible in network traffic or endpoint logs and is a strong indicator of active encryption. Correlating multiple hosts writing to the same server can confirm the attack.

Why this answer

Ransomware's core behaviors are mass file encryption and lateral spread, often via SMB. Detecting high-volume file renames with ransomware extensions and spikes in SMB writes to shared servers directly targets these behaviors, providing actionable alerts. Other options are either unrelated or too nonspecific to prioritize.

Exam trap

The trap here is treating generic symptoms like performance issues or isolated login failures as ransomware indicators, when the exam expects focus on specific file and propagation behaviors.

44
MCQmedium

An analyst is investigating a potential ransomware incident. They notice a high volume of file modifications with the .locky extension across multiple shared drives. Which Splunk ES data model is most appropriate to search for these file system changes?

A.Web
B.Endpoint.Filesystem
C.Network_Traffic
D.Authentication
AnswerB

The Endpoint.Filesystem data model tracks file creation, modification, and deletion events from endpoint data sources. It includes fields like file_name, file_path, and action, which are essential for identifying the sudden appearance of files with a specific extension like .locky, a known ransomware indicator. This model is designed for endpoint file activity monitoring.

Why this answer

The Endpoint.Filesystem data model is specifically designed to capture file system activity from endpoints, including file creation, modification, and deletion. In a ransomware scenario, the rapid appearance of files with a malicious extension like .locky across shared drives is a key indicator. Searching this data model allows the analyst to identify affected files, paths, and timestamps, facilitating containment and remediation.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing network-based data models with endpoint file system telemetry, as ransomware encryption manifests as file modifications rather than network traffic.

45
MCQeasy

A user reports that their files have been encrypted and a ransom note is displayed on their screen. Which type of malware is most likely responsible?

A.Worm
B.Ransomware
C.Trojan
D.Rootkit
AnswerB

Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts files on a victim's system and demands payment for the decryption key. The scenario of encrypted files and a ransom note is the classic hallmark of a ransomware attack. Splunk ES can detect ransomware through indicators such as file encryption events, ransom note creation, and unusual process executions.

Why this answer

The scenario describes files being encrypted and a ransom note displayed, which are the defining characteristics of ransomware. Ransomware encrypts data and demands payment for decryption. Trojans, worms, and rootkits have different behaviors: Trojans deceive, worms self-replicate, and rootkits hide.

None of these directly cause file encryption with a ransom demand.

Exam trap

The trap here is overthinking the initial delivery method; while ransomware may be delivered via a Trojan, the described behavior—encrypted files and a ransom note—is specific to ransomware.

46
MCQhard

A Splunk ES analyst is investigating a series of notable events indicating possible pass-the-hash attacks. The events show successful authentications using NTLM from unusual source workstations to multiple servers. Which data model should the analyst query to correlate the authentication events and identify the compromised user accounts?

A.Network_Traffic
B.Authentication
C.Endpoint
D.Identity_Management
AnswerB

The Authentication data model in Splunk ES contains login and authentication events, including NTLM authentications. It provides fields like user, src, dest, and authentication type, which are essential for correlating pass-the-hash activity. Querying this data model allows the analyst to trace the compromised accounts and the scope of lateral movement.

Why this answer

Pass-the-hash involves authenticating with stolen NTLM hashes, so the Authentication data model is the primary source for login events. It contains the necessary fields to correlate source, destination, and user accounts. The other data models either focus on different telemetry or lack the authentication details required for this specific attack analysis.

Exam trap

The trap here is overlooking that pass-the-hash is an authentication-based attack, and instead focusing on endpoint or network data, which may not capture the successful authentication events.

47
MCQhard

A Splunk ES analyst is investigating a series of notable events related to a possible DNS tunneling attack. The analyst wants to identify domains that are being queried with unusually high frequency or with long subdomain strings, which are common indicators of DNS tunneling. Which Splunk ES data model should the analyst use to efficiently search for these DNS query patterns?

A.Network Resolution
B.Network Traffic
C.Web
D.Intrusion Detection
AnswerA

The Network Resolution data model in Splunk ES is designed to capture DNS and DHCP activity, including DNS queries and responses. It contains fields such as query, answer, and src, which allow analysts to search for anomalous DNS patterns like high-frequency queries or long subdomains. This data model is the most efficient way to identify DNS tunneling indicators because it normalizes DNS logs from various sources.

Why this answer

The Network Resolution data model is specifically built to normalize DNS and DHCP data, making it the primary source for DNS query analysis in Splunk ES. By searching this data model, analysts can detect anomalies such as high query volumes or unusually long subdomains, which are characteristic of DNS tunneling. Other data models lack the necessary DNS fields or focus on different protocols.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing network traffic flow data with DNS query details, leading analysts to search the Network Traffic data model for domain information that it does not contain.

48
MCQmedium

During an investigation of a suspected malware outbreak, an analyst needs to identify all internal hosts that have communicated with a known malicious IP address. Which Splunk ES data model should be used to search for this network communication?

A.Authentication
B.Network_Traffic
C.Intrusion_Detection
D.Endpoint.Processes
AnswerB

The Network_Traffic data model captures network flow data, including source and destination IP addresses, ports, and protocols. It is ideal for identifying internal hosts communicating with external malicious IPs. By searching this model, the analyst can quickly list all affected hosts and the nature of the traffic, enabling rapid containment.

Why this answer

The Network_Traffic data model is designed to capture network flow data, including source and destination IP addresses, ports, and protocols. In a malware outbreak, identifying all internal hosts that have communicated with a known malicious IP is critical for scoping the incident. By searching this data model, the analyst can quickly generate a list of affected hosts and the associated traffic details, enabling effective containment and remediation.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that endpoint process data or IDS alerts provide complete network visibility, when network flow data is the authoritative source for IP communications.

49
Multi-Selectmedium

An attacker has gained access to a workstation and is attempting to move laterally within the network. Which TWO of the following techniques are commonly used for lateral movement that you should monitor in Splunk ES? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Phishing
B.Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) hijacking
C.Pass-the-Hash
D.SQL injection
E.Cross-site scripting (XSS)
AnswersB, C

RDP hijacking involves taking over an existing RDP session on a remote host, often by using tools that manipulate session IDs. It allows an attacker to move laterally by connecting to a system where a user already has an active session. Splunk ES can detect this through monitoring of RDP logon events, especially those with unusual source or session takeovers.

Why this answer

Lateral movement involves techniques that allow an attacker to move from one compromised system to another within a network. Pass-the-Hash and RDP hijacking are both established methods for achieving this. SQL injection, XSS, and phishing are attack types that target different stages: SQL injection and XSS are web application attacks, and phishing is an initial access vector.

Thus, only Pass-the-Hash and RDP hijacking are correct.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing attack types from different stages of the kill chain, such as phishing (initial access) or SQL injection (web exploitation), with lateral movement techniques like Pass-the-Hash and RDP hijacking.

50
Multi-Selectmedium

An analyst is investigating a potential pass-the-hash attack in Splunk ES. Which TWO of the following are indicators that should be reviewed in Windows Security event logs? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Event Code 4624 with Logon Type 3 and NTLM authentication
B.Event Code 4768 with Kerberos TGT request
C.Event Code 4776 with NTLM credential validation
D.Event Code 5140 with network share access
E.Event Code 4672 with SeDebugPrivilege assigned
AnswersA, C

Event Code 4624 with Logon Type 3 (network logon) and NTLM authentication indicates a logon using NTLM, which is common in pass-the-hash attacks. Attackers use stolen NTLM hashes to authenticate laterally. Reviewing these events for anomalous source IPs or accounts can reveal pass-the-hash activity. It is a key indicator to investigate.

Why this answer

Pass-the-hash attacks leverage stolen NTLM hashes to authenticate, often resulting in Event Code 4624 with Logon Type 3 and NTLM authentication, and Event Code 4776 for credential validation. These events, when correlated, can reveal lateral movement. Other event codes like 4672, 4768, and 5140 are not specific to pass-the-hash and may generate false positives.

Focusing on NTLM-related events is crucial for accurate detection.

Exam trap

The trap here is overlooking Event Code 4776, which specifically logs NTLM credential validation, a hallmark of pass-the-hash.

51
MCQmedium

An analyst is reviewing a notable event for a potential malware infection on a Windows endpoint. The event includes a file hash. To determine if the file is known malicious, the analyst wants to check its reputation using Splunk ES's threat intelligence framework. Which action should the analyst take?

A.Search the file hash in the Threat Intelligence data model to see if it matches any threat intel sources.
B.Run a search against the Endpoint data model to find all processes that executed the file hash.
C.Check the 'File Hash' field in the Malware data model to see if it is associated with any known malware families.
D.Use the 'threatlist' lookup to manually add the hash and then check if it appears in any notable events.
AnswerA

The Threat Intelligence data model in Splunk ES stores indicators of compromise (IOCs) from various threat feeds. Searching for the file hash in this data model will reveal if it is known malicious. This is the standard method to leverage integrated threat intelligence for file reputation within Splunk ES.

Why this answer

Splunk ES integrates threat intelligence feeds into the Threat Intelligence data model. By searching for the file hash there, the analyst can quickly see if it matches any known malicious indicators. The other options focus on endpoint activity or manual lists, which do not provide the same breadth of reputation data from multiple sources.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any data model containing file hashes provides reputation; only the Threat Intelligence data model is designed for IOC matching.

52
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are benefits of using Risk-Based Alerting (RBA) in Splunk ES?

Select 3 answers
A.Improved focus on behavioral indicators
B.Prioritization of threats based on entity risk
C.Automatic remediation of threats
D.Automatic license management
E.Reduction of alert noise
AnswersA, B, E

RBA assigns risk scores to entities from detections rather than alerting on each individually, so analysts triage behaviour across users, hosts and IPs. This surfaces correlated behavioural indicators that single-event correlation searches miss, satisfying the stem's benefit of focusing on behaviour rather than isolated events.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because RBA shifts detection from individual notable events to behavioral indicators, aggregating related events into risk attributions on entities (users, systems) so analysts can spot patterns of behavior rather than isolated signatures. Option B is correct because RBA assigns risk scores to entities via risk rules and risk factors, allowing threats to be prioritized by accumulated entity risk rather than by raw event severity. Option E is correct because RBA consolidates many low-fidelity or individually insignificant events into a smaller set of high-risk entities, thereby reducing alert noise and analyst fatigue.

Option C is not correct because RBA is a detection and prioritization framework; Splunk ES does not automatically remediate threats, which requires separate orchestration tools such as Splunk SOAR. Option D is not correct because license management is handled by the Splunk license manager and is unrelated to RBA's risk scoring and alerting capabilities.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests the misconception that RBA includes automated remediation or license optimization, when its actual benefits are behavioral focus, risk-based prioritization, and noise reduction.

53
MCQhard

An analyst is investigating a potential pass-the-hash attack. They want to search for successful authentications that used NTLM authentication where the source workstation differs from the destination workstation. Which Splunk ES data model and field combination is most appropriate?

A.Authentication data model, filtering on authentication_method=NTLM and src!=dest
B.Network_Traffic data model, filtering on dest_port=445 and src!=dest
C.Endpoint.Processes data model, filtering on process_name=lsass.exe and user=SYSTEM
D.Intrusion_Detection data model, filtering on signature=Pass-the-Hash
AnswerA

The Authentication data model captures authentication events, including the authentication method and source/destination hosts. Pass-the-hash attacks often involve NTLM authentication from a source workstation to a different destination workstation. Filtering on authentication_method=NTLM and src!=dest helps identify such lateral movement, which is a key indicator of pass-the-hash.

Why this answer

The Authentication data model is the correct choice because it records authentication events with details like authentication_method, src, dest, and user. Pass-the-hash attacks typically manifest as successful NTLM authentications where the source workstation is different from the destination workstation, indicating lateral movement. By filtering on authentication_method=NTLM and src!=dest, the analyst can identify potential pass-the-hash activity, which is a critical step in detecting and responding to this attack.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on process or network data instead of authentication logs, as pass-the-hash is fundamentally an authentication event that requires examining authentication method and source/destination relationships.

54
MCQhard

An attacker has cleared the Windows Security Event log to hide their tracks. Which data model can detect this action?

A.Endpoint
B.Change Analysis
C.Network Traffic
D.Authentication
AnswerB

Clearing the Windows Security Event log generates event ID 1102, which records audit log deletion. The Change Analysis data model tracks changes to system and audit configurations, making it the model that surfaces this action.

Why this answer

The Change Analysis data model in Splunk ES tracks changes to system configurations, including audit log clears and service changes. Clearing the Windows Security Event log generates Event ID 1102 (or 104 for older systems), which the Change Analysis data model captures as a change event, making it the correct detection source.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests whether candidates map log-clearing to the Authentication or Endpoint data models — the correct mapping is Change Analysis, which is specifically designed for system state changes including audit log clears.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Endpoint data model focuses on process execution, file system changes, and registry activity — it does not specifically model audit log clearing as a change event. Option C is wrong because the Network Traffic data model covers network flows and connections, not local log-clearing actions. Option D is wrong because the Authentication data model tracks logon/logoff events, not the clearing of the security log itself.

55
MCQmedium

Which dashboard provides a summary of all assets categorized by their criticality within the organization?

A.Threat Activity
B.User Activity
C.Access Anomalies
D.Asset Investigator
AnswerD

Asset Investigator aggregates every discovered asset and groups them by business criticality, directly satisfying the stem's requirement for an organisation-wide summary categorised by criticality. Unlike posture or vulnerability dashboards, it centres on asset inventory classification rather than risk scoring, making it the appropriate view for this specific reporting need.

Why this answer

The Asset Investigator dashboard in Splunk ES provides a consolidated view of assets, including their criticality, identity, and associated risk. It is the primary place to see assets categorized by business criticality and to pivot into asset-specific investigation. This matches the requirement of summarizing all assets by criticality.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests the distinction between dashboards that summarize entities (Asset Investigator for assets, User Activity for users) and dashboards that summarize events or anomalies, so candidates who pick Threat Activity because it 'sounds like a summary' fall into the trap.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Threat Activity focuses on threat-related events and intel matches, not on asset criticality categorization. Option B is wrong because User Activity centers on user behavior and identities, not on asset inventories. Option C is wrong because Access Anomalies highlights unusual access patterns, not a catalog of assets by criticality.

56
Multi-Selecthard

An analyst is investigating a potential command-and-control (C2) beaconing incident. They observe periodic outbound connections from an internal host to an external IP address at regular intervals with small data transfers. Which two Splunk ES features or techniques would best help confirm and analyze this beaconing activity? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Use the `streamstats` command to calculate the time delta between consecutive connections from the same host to the external IP, then look for consistent intervals.
B.Leverage the `predict` command to forecast future connection times based on historical data, then compare actual connection times to the forecast to detect anomalies.
C.Use the `transaction` command to group connections by source and destination IP, then calculate the standard deviation of the time between connections to identify low variance.
D.Create a correlation search in Splunk ES that triggers when the same source and destination IP pair exceeds a threshold of connections per hour, ignoring the regularity of intervals.
E.Utilize the `bucket` command to group connections into fixed time windows, then count the number of connections per bucket to identify spikes.
AnswersA, C

The `streamstats` command can compute the time difference between successive events, such as connections from an internal host to an external IP. By analyzing the delta times, you can identify regular intervals indicative of beaconing. This is a core technique in Splunk for detecting periodic behavior without relying solely on pre-built correlation searches, and it works well with raw network traffic logs.

Why this answer

Beaconing is characterized by periodic connections with consistent intervals. Calculating time deltas between consecutive connections using `streamstats` or grouping connections with `transaction` and analyzing the variance of intervals are both effective ways to detect this regularity. These techniques focus on the timing pattern rather than just volume, which helps distinguish beaconing from normal traffic and reduces false positives.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a high volume of connections is the primary indicator of beaconing, when in fact regularity and consistency of intervals are more telling.

57
Multi-Selecthard

An analyst is investigating a suspected credential dumping attack on a Windows host. They want to identify evidence of this activity in Splunk ES. Which TWO of the following are valid indicators of credential dumping that can be found in Splunk ES data? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Anomalous number of failed logon attempts
B.Presence of a file named “lsass.dmp” in a temp directory
C.Creation of a new service with a random name
D.Unexpected modification of the hosts file
E.Access to lsass.exe with suspicious access rights
AnswersB, E

Tools like ProcDump or Task Manager can create a memory dump of lsass.exe, often saved as lsass.dmp. The Endpoint.Filesystem data model can detect the creation of such files. This is a direct artifact of credential dumping, as the dump file contains credential material. Its presence in a temp directory is highly suspicious.

Why this answer

Credential dumping involves extracting credentials from memory or files. Access to lsass.exe with suspicious access rights indicates an attempt to read its memory, where credentials are stored. The creation of a file named lsass.dmp is a direct artifact of dumping the lsass process memory.

Both indicators are observable in Splunk ES via endpoint data models and are strong evidence of credential dumping activity.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing general attack indicators like service creation or failed logons with the specific artifacts of credential dumping, which focus on lsass access and memory dump files.

58
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are key components of the Splunk ES Threat Intelligence framework?

Select 2 answers
A.Threat Source management
B.Forwarder management
C.Dashboard customization
D.Incident classification
E.Threat Intelligence collections
AnswersA, E

Threat Source management is a core component, letting analysts configure, enable and prioritise the external intelligence feeds that populate the framework. It satisfies the stem's requirement for key components by governing which sources supply indicators, alongside intelligence downloads and lookups, ensuring only vetted feeds drive correlation searches and notable event enrichment.

Why this answer

Option A (Threat Source management) is correct because the Splunk ES Threat Intelligence framework relies on configuring threat sources (such as local CSV lookups, threat intelligence feeds, or TAXII/STIX integrations) to ingest and normalize indicators of compromise into the system. Option E (Threat Intelligence collections) is correct because collections are the core construct that groups related threat intelligence data (e.g., IPs, domains, file hashes) and maps them to intelligence sources for use in correlation searches and adaptive response. Forwarder management (B) belongs to Splunk deployment/server administration for data collection, not the threat intelligence framework.

Dashboard customization (C) is a general UI/presentation feature and not a structural component of the TI framework. Incident classification (D) relates to incident review and notable event workflow in ES, but it is not one of the key components that define the Threat Intelligence framework itself.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests whether candidates can separate the threat intelligence data pipeline (sources and collections) from adjacent ES features like forwarder management and incident workflow, so picking operational or UI features is the trap.

59
MCQmedium

An analyst identifies a command-and-control (C2) beaconing pattern. Which search command would be best used to identify the frequency of connections to a specific domain?

A.stats
B.timechart
C.transaction
D.eval
AnswerB

Timechart aggregates events into time-based buckets, directly exposing the periodic interval of connections to the specified domain. This satisfies the stem's requirement to identify beaconing frequency, since regular spikes at consistent intervals reveal the C2 rhythm that a raw event listing would obscure.

Why this answer

timechart is designed to plot aggregated values over time, making it ideal for visualizing the regularity of connections to a specific domain. By running timechart count by domain (or by dest), an analyst can see evenly spaced spikes that indicate beaconing intervals. This time-series view is exactly what C2 beacon detection requires.

Exam trap

The trap is that candidates pick stats because it can also count events by domain — but stats loses the time dimension, and beaconing detection is fundamentally about timing regularity, which only a time-series command like timechart reveals.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because stats produces a flat aggregation table without a time axis, so it cannot reveal the periodic timing pattern that defines beaconing. Option C is wrong because transaction groups related events into a single transaction based on start/end conditions — it is useful for session reconstruction but does not visualize frequency over time. Option D is wrong because eval is a field-manipulation command for creating or transforming fields; it performs no aggregation or time-series analysis on its own.

60
MCQmedium

An analyst notices a Windows workstation repeatedly resolving long, random-looking subdomains under a single parent domain, followed by outbound DNS TXT queries. Which Splunk ES detection method is most appropriate to identify this as DNS tunneling?

A.Use the Endpoint data model to look for process execution of signed system binaries that spawn child processes outside their normal parent.
B.Use the Authentication data model to count failed logons per hour and trigger an alert when the count exceeds a baseline.
C.Use the Web data model to search for HTTP POST requests containing base64-encoded parameters sent to a small set of external IPs.
D.Use the Network_Traffic data model with a search that aggregates the length of DNS query names and the count of unique subdomains per parent domain, then apply a threshold-based correlation search.
AnswerD

This works because DNS tunneling relies on unusually long, high-entropy query names and many unique subdomains to a single parent. Aggregating query name length and unique subdomain counts in the Network_Traffic data model surfaces that pattern, and a correlation search can alert on thresholds, which is exactly how Splunk ES commonly detects this behavior.

Why this answer

DNS tunneling encodes data in query names and record types, producing long, random-looking subdomains and frequent TXT queries to one parent domain. The Network_Traffic data model holds DNS events and supports aggregation of query name length and unique subdomain counts per parent, making a threshold-based correlation search the reliable way to flag this behavior.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming any high-volume DNS activity indicates tunneling, when the defining signal is query name length and unique subdomain count to a single parent, not raw query volume.

61
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are primary indicators of a phishing attack that you should look for in email logs?

Select 2 answers
A.Suspicious URL in email body
B.Successful authentication
C.High CPU usage on server
D.Unusual printer activity
E.Unexpected sender domain
AnswersA, E

Email logs capture embedded links, so extracting and inspecting URLs reveals mismatched or spoofed destinations that legitimate senders would not use. A suspicious URL in the email body is therefore a primary phishing indicator detectable directly from the URL field within mail telemetry.

Why this answer

Option A (Suspicious URL in email body) is correct because phishing emails typically contain links to spoofed or malicious domains designed to harvest credentials or deliver malware, and these URLs are visible in email gateway or mail server logs as embedded hyperlinks that can be inspected for mismatched display text, URL shorteners, or known-bad domains. Option E (Unexpected sender domain) is correct because phishing often originates from look-alike or typosquatted domains (e.g., micros0ft.com) or compromised legitimate accounts, and analyzing the envelope sender and From header domains in email logs reveals these anomalies through SPF, DKIM, and DMARC failures. Option B (Successful authentication) is not a phishing indicator; it is a normal event that could occur after a user is tricked, but by itself it does not indicate phishing.

Option C (High CPU usage on server) relates to resource consumption or malware/DoS activity, not to email-based phishing indicators. Option D (Unusual printer activity) is unrelated to phishing and would more likely indicate insider activity or a print server issue.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests the distinction between email-layer indicators (sender domain, URLs, headers) and unrelated system metrics (CPU, printers) — candidates may over-select generic 'suspicious activity' options that aren't phishing-specific.

62
MCQhard

You need to ensure that your Splunk ES environment is properly ingesting threat intelligence data. Where can you confirm that threat sources are active?

A.Configure > Data Inputs
B.Configure > Threat Intelligence > Threat Sources
C.Dashboard > Threat Intelligence
D.Configure > Content Management
AnswerB

The Threat Sources page lists every configured intelligence feed with its status, letting you verify which sources are enabled and actively contributing indicators. It is the definitive location for confirming ingestion health, satisfying the requirement to check that threat sources are active.

Why this answer

In Splunk Enterprise Security, threat intelligence sources are configured and monitored under Configure > Threat Intelligence > Threat Sources. This page lists all configured intelligence sources, their status (enabled/disabled), last update time, and any errors, allowing you to confirm active ingestion. It is the authoritative location for verifying threat feed health.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests confusion between the Threat Intelligence dashboard (which shows matches) and the Threat Sources configuration page (which shows source health) — candidates pick the dashboard thinking it confirms ingestion.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Configure > Data Inputs manages generic data ingestion (files, ports, scripts) but does not show threat intelligence source status or health. Option C is wrong because the Threat Intelligence dashboard displays matches and intelligence activity, not the configuration or active status of sources. Option D is wrong because Configure > Content Management handles ES content (correlation searches, dashboards) deployment, not threat feed configuration.

63
MCQhard

You are auditing logs and find that a user has modified an audit policy using 'auditpol.exe'. Which Splunk CIM data model should contain this information?

A.Network Traffic
B.Change Analysis
C.Endpoint
D.Authentication
AnswerB

Change Analysis tracks modifications to system configuration and policy objects, including audit policy changes made via auditpol.exe. Its Change data model captures the object affected, the action taken and the user responsible, satisfying the stem's requirement to locate audit-policy modification events within Splunk's Common Information Model.

Why this answer

The Change Analysis CIM data model is designed to capture changes to system configuration, including audit policy modifications. When auditpol.exe is used to alter audit policies, the resulting Windows Security event (typically Event ID 4719, 'System audit policy was changed') maps to Change Analysis via fields like object, change_type, and user. Network Traffic, Endpoint, and Authentication models do not represent configuration-change events.

Exam trap

SPLK-5001 often tests whether candidates pick Endpoint for auditpol.exe activity because the tool runs on the endpoint — but the CIM classifies the resulting policy change under Change Analysis, not Endpoint.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (Network Traffic) is wrong because it models flow-level network metadata, not local configuration changes. Option C (Endpoint) is wrong because although auditpol.exe runs on the endpoint, the resulting audit-policy change event is a configuration change, which the CIM maps to Change Analysis rather than Endpoint's process datasets. Option D (Authentication) is wrong because it only covers logon/logoff events, not policy modifications.

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