SC-200 Practice Questions

Question 1

Match each Microsoft Sentinel data connector on the left with the table name it populates on the right.

Accepted Answer

Microsoft Entra ID → SigninLogs; Windows Security Events via AMA → SecurityEvent; Cisco ASA via Syslog → CommonSecurityLog; Azure Activity → AzureActivity. It accurately maps each Microsoft Sentinel data connector to its corresponding log table. Microsoft Entra ID populates the SigninLogs table, Windows Security Events via AMA populates the SecurityEvent table, Cisco ASA via Syslog populates the CommonSecurityLog table (which is the standard schema for syslog-based security appliances), and Azure Activity populates the AzureActivity table. These mappings are defined by the data connectors themselves and are fundamental to querying the correct data in Sentinel.

Answer

The first and last mappings are swapped.

Answer

Every item maps to the same log table or feature category.

Answer

Only identity-related items are mapped; workload and network items are omitted.

Question 2

A security analyst is investigating a suspicious process on an endpoint and needs to see all network connections initiated by that process. The analyst knows the ProcessId and DeviceName. Which advanced hunting table in Microsoft 365 Defender should the analyst query to retrieve network connection details associated with this process?

Accepted Answer

DeviceNetworkEvents. The DeviceNetworkEvents table in Microsoft 365 Defender is specifically designed to capture network connection events, including source and destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, and the initiating process ID (ProcessId). By querying this table with the known ProcessId and DeviceName, the analyst can retrieve all network connections initiated by that process, making it the correct choice for this investigation.

Answer

DeviceProcessEvents

Answer

DeviceEvents

Answer

IdentityLogonEvents

Question 3

A SOC analyst in Microsoft Sentinel is creating a scheduled analytics rule to detect a possible password spray attack. The rule must trigger when a single source IP address has more than 10 failed logon attempts on different user accounts within a 30-minute window. The analyst writes a KQL query starting with 'SigninLogs | where ResultType == 50057' (failed logon). Which operator should the analyst use to group events by source IP and count distinct user accounts, then filter for counts above 10?

Accepted Answer

summarize. The `summarize` operator is required to group events by source IP address and count distinct user accounts using `dcount()` or `count()`. After summarizing, you apply a `where` clause to filter for counts above 10, which meets the rule's threshold. This is the standard pattern for aggregation in KQL.

Answer

where

Answer

extend

Answer

project

Question 4

Which THREE are valid incident classification options in Microsoft Sentinel?

Accepted Answer

Benign Positive. (Benign Positive) is correct because Microsoft Sentinel uses incident classification to categorize the outcome of an investigation. A Benign Positive indicates that an alert is triggered by legitimate activity that is expected or acceptable, such as a security tool scanning the network or a user performing an authorized administrative task. This classification helps analysts distinguish between true threats and harmless events without marking them as false positives.

Answer

Informational

Answer

Malicious

Question 5

A SOC team wants to use Microsoft Sentinel to detect when a user logs in from a new country not previously seen for that user. They have the SigninLogs table. Which KQL function is most appropriate to build this anomaly detection?

Accepted Answer

make_set() with lookup. The `make_set()` function creates a dynamic array of distinct values (e.g., countries) per user over a specified time window. By using `lookup` to compare the current sign-in's country against the historical set, you can flag logins from countries not previously seen. This directly implements the 'new country' anomaly detection pattern in KQL.

Answer

timechart()

Answer

dcount()

Answer

startofday()

Question 6

Wide World Importers uses Microsoft Sentinel, Microsoft Defender XDR, and Microsoft Purview for data loss prevention (DLP). An incident is generated: 'DLP policy violation - sensitive data shared externally.' The incident shows that a user shared a document containing credit card numbers via SharePoint Online with an external guest. The user is a finance department employee. You need to respond to the incident. The organization wants to minimize business disruption while protecting data. Which of the following is the BEST immediate action?

Accepted Answer

Remove the external guest's access to the document in SharePoint Online.. Removing the external guest's access to the document stops data exposure without affecting the user's work. Option A is wrong: disabling the user prevents all work and may be too drastic. Option B is wrong: deleting the document destroys evidence. Option D is wrong: DLP policy change takes time and does not stop current exposure.

Answer

Delete the document from SharePoint Online.

Answer

Modify the DLP policy to block sharing of credit card numbers.

Answer

Disable the user's account in Microsoft Entra ID and investigate.

Question 7

Your security team uses Microsoft Defender XDR (formerly Microsoft 365 Defender) to investigate incidents. You notice that some alerts from Microsoft Defender for Endpoint are not being automatically correlated into incidents as expected. You have confirmed that the relevant alert sources are enabled in the Microsoft Defender XDR portal. What is the most likely cause?

Accepted Answer

Incident correlation rules are not enabled for the relevant alert sources.. Microsoft Defender XDR uses built-in correlation logic to automatically group related alerts from different sources (e.g., Defender for Endpoint, Defender for Office 365) into incidents. If alerts from a specific source, such as Defender for Endpoint, are not being correlated, the most likely cause is that the incident correlation rules for that source are not enabled in the Microsoft Defender XDR portal. Enabling the alert source alone is insufficient; the correlation engine must be explicitly activated for each source to aggregate alerts into incidents.

Answer

Alert tuning rules are causing the alerts to be excluded.

Answer

Automation rules in Microsoft Sentinel are deleting the alerts.

Answer

Alert suppression rules are blocking the alerts.

Question 8

During a ransomware incident, Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps alerts indicate that a user is uploading large volumes of data to an external cloud storage provider not approved by your organization. Which two actions should you take first? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Block the unapproved cloud storage app. Blocking the unapproved cloud storage app in Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps immediately stops the ongoing data exfiltration by preventing further uploads to that external provider. This is a direct, real-time containment action that leverages Defender for Cloud Apps's app governance and conditional access controls to enforce organizational policies without disrupting the user's access to other resources.

Answer

Notify the user about the policy violation

Answer

Initiate a legal hold on the user's data

Question 9

You are investigating an incident where a user reported receiving a suspicious email with a malicious attachment. Microsoft Defender for Office 365 did not block it. The email originated from a known malicious sender domain. What configuration should you check first?

Accepted Answer

Anti-phishing policy in Microsoft Defender for Office 365. The anti-phishing policy in Microsoft Defender for Office 365 is the primary configuration that evaluates sender reputation, impersonation attempts, and spoof intelligence. Since the email originated from a known malicious sender domain and was not blocked, the anti-phishing policy's spoof settings or impersonation protection may be misconfigured or not applied to the affected user. This policy directly controls how Defender handles emails from malicious domains, making it the first place to check.

Answer

User-reported message settings

Answer

SPF record for the sender domain

Answer

Safe Attachments policy

Question 10

Your organization uses Microsoft Sentinel with UEBA (User and Entity Behavior Analytics) enabled. The SOC team notices that UEBA is not generating any anomalies for a specific user group. What is the most likely cause?

Accepted Answer

The data history for that user group is less than the required baseline period.. UEBA (User and Entity Behavior Analytics) requires a minimum baseline period of at least 14 days of data to learn normal behavior. Without sufficient historical data for the user group, anomalies cannot be generated. Option A is incorrect because excluding a user group from Identity Protection does not affect UEBA, which operates independently. Option C is incorrect because data connectors may be present, but the issue is the lack of historical data, not monitoring. Option D is incorrect because UEBA uses its own machine learning models and does not require analytics rules to be enabled.

Answer

The user group is excluded from Identity Protection.

Answer

The user group is not being monitored by any data connector.

Answer

The analytics rules for UEBA are not enabled.

Question 11

A security analyst in Microsoft Defender for Cloud receives an alert that an Azure VM has a vulnerability with a high severity. The analyst wants to see the detailed finding, including the steps to remediate. Which blade or page should the analyst open?

Accepted Answer

Vulnerability Assessment findings. The Vulnerability Assessment findings blade in Microsoft Defender for Cloud displays detailed results from integrated vulnerability scanners (such as Qualys or Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management), including the specific vulnerability ID, severity, description, and remediation steps. This is the correct location to view the detailed finding and remediation guidance for a high-severity vulnerability on an Azure VM.

Answer

Secure Score

Answer

Regulatory Compliance

Answer

Workload protections alerts

Question 12

Which TWO conditions must be met to enable Microsoft Sentinel UEBA? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Microsoft Entra ID P2 licenses must be assigned to users.. Microsoft Sentinel UEBA requires the SecurityInsights solution to be installed in the Log Analytics workspace, as this solution provides the UEBA data connectors and analytics rules. Additionally, Microsoft Entra ID P2 licenses are required because UEBA relies on the identity protection and risk detection capabilities that are only available with P2 licensing, enabling the enrichment of entity behavior profiles with risk data.

Answer

KQL queries must be created for entity behavior.

Answer

Microsoft Defender XDR must be onboarded.

Answer

Azure SQL Database must be deployed.

Question 13

You are reviewing a hunting query. What is the primary purpose of this query?

Accepted Answer

Find users with medium-risk sign-ins that share IP addresses with service principal sign-ins, indicating possible token theft or lateral movement. The query filters for users with medium risk sign-ins and joins with service principal sign-ins on IP address, then counts occurrences per user exceeding 5, indicating potential compromise involving both user and service principal activity from the same IP. Option A is wrong because it does not focus on service principal compromise alone. Option B is wrong because it does not look for admin consent grants. Option D is wrong because it uses only medium risk, not high.

Answer

List all users with any risk level during sign-in in the last 7 days

Answer

Detect users who have granted admin consent to malicious OAuth apps

Answer

Identify service principals that have been compromised and are performing high-risk sign-ins

Question 14

Your organization uses Microsoft Defender XDR. The incident queue shows multiple alerts related to a single endpoint: malware detected, suspicious PowerShell execution, and data exfiltration attempts. The analyst needs to investigate the incident. Which tool should the analyst use to correlate these events?

Accepted Answer

Advanced hunting in Microsoft Defender XDR.. Advanced hunting in Microsoft Defender XDR allows the analyst to query across multiple data sources—including endpoint detection and response (EDR), identity, email, and cloud app data—using Kusto Query Language (KQL). This enables correlation of the malware detection, suspicious PowerShell execution, and data exfiltration alerts on the same device by joining tables such as DeviceEvents, DeviceProcessEvents, and DeviceNetworkEvents, providing a unified timeline of the attack chain.

Answer

Microsoft Defender for Office 365 Explorer.

Answer

Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps activity log.

Answer

Microsoft Sentinel incident workspace.

Question 15

A security analyst is investigating a phishing campaign using Microsoft 365 Defender advanced hunting. The analyst needs to find all emails sent from a specific sender address in the last 7 days. Which table should be queried?

Accepted Answer

EmailEvents. The EmailEvents table in Microsoft 365 Defender advanced hunting stores metadata about email messages, including sender addresses, recipients, timestamps, and delivery actions. To find all emails from a specific sender in the last 7 days, you query EmailEvents because it contains the 'SenderFromAddress' or 'SenderMailFromAddress' fields needed to filter by sender. The other tables focus on attachments, URLs, or device-level events, which are not relevant for identifying emails by sender address.

Answer

EmailAttachmentInfo

Answer

EmailUrlInfo

Answer

DeviceEvents

Microsoft Security Operations Analyst SC-200 practice test

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