Quick Answer
The answer is High. This risk level is determined by combining a Medium likelihood of exploitation—reduced but not eliminated by internal network segmentation—with a High impact, because the customer-facing web application’s high availability requirements mean a buffer overflow could cause a denial of service or code execution, severely disrupting operations. On the SSCP exam, this scenario tests your ability to apply a standard 3x3 risk matrix, where likelihood and impact are assessed independently before cross-referencing them; a common trap is to underestimate impact when the asset is labeled “not critical,” but high availability needs elevate the consequence. To remember the matrix logic, think of the “middle row, right column” rule: when likelihood is Medium and impact is High, the intersection always yields High risk, regardless of compensating controls.
This SSCP practice question tests your understanding of risk identification, monitoring and analysis. Read the scenario carefully and evaluate each option against the stated constraints before committing to an answer. After answering, compare your reasoning against the explanation and wrong-answer breakdown below. Once you have made your selection, read the full explanation to reinforce the concept and understand why each distractor is designed to mislead on exam day.
A security team uses a risk matrix with likelihood (Low, Medium, High) and impact (Low, Medium, High). A vulnerability scan finds a buffer overflow in a customer-facing web application. The application is not critical but has high availability requirements. The likelihood of exploitation is considered Medium due to internal network segmentation. What is the risk level?
Medium
Why wrong: Combination of Medium likelihood and High impact typically yields High, not Medium.
Extreme
Why wrong: The matrix only has Low, Medium, High levels.
High
Standard 3x3 risk matrix: Medium likelihood + High impact = High risk.
Low
Why wrong: Impact is High due to availability requirement, so risk cannot be Low.
Answer choices
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
High
The risk level is High because the likelihood is Medium (due to internal network segmentation reducing but not eliminating the chance of exploitation) and the impact is High (the application has high availability requirements, so a buffer overflow could cause a denial of service or code execution, severely affecting availability). In a standard 3x3 risk matrix, Medium likelihood combined with High impact yields a High risk rating.
Key principle: Answer the scenario, not the keyword: identify the specific constraint before choosing the most familiar-sounding option.
Answer analysis
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
Medium
Why it's wrong here
Combination of Medium likelihood and High impact typically yields High, not Medium.
Extreme
Why it's wrong here
The matrix only has Low, Medium, High levels.
High
Why this is correct
Standard 3x3 risk matrix: Medium likelihood + High impact = High risk.
Related concept
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
Low
Why it's wrong here
Impact is High due to availability requirement, so risk cannot be Low.
Common exam traps
ISC2 often tests the misconception that internal network segmentation automatically lowers the risk to Medium or Low, but the high availability requirement elevates the impact, resulting in a High risk level despite the reduced likelihood.
Detailed technical explanation
Buffer overflow vulnerabilities (e.g., CWE-120) in web applications can lead to arbitrary code execution or denial of service, directly impacting availability. Internal network segmentation (e.g., VLANs, firewall rules) reduces the attack surface but does not eliminate threats from internal actors or compromised hosts within the same segment. The risk matrix used here follows the NIST SP 800-30 Rev. 1 qualitative approach, where risk is a product of likelihood and impact, and the resulting High rating aligns with the organization's risk appetite for customer-facing services.
Key takeaway
Answer the scenario, not the keyword: identify the specific constraint before choosing the most familiar-sounding option.
Real-world example
A security team runs a vulnerability scan on a web application and discovers an unpatched SQL injection flaw. The team prioritises remediation by CVSS score — critical flaws are patched within 24 hours, high within 7 days. Questions like this test whether you understand vulnerability management processes, scanning tools, and remediation prioritisation.
What to study next
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FAQ
Risk Identification, Monitoring and Analysis — This question tests Risk Identification, Monitoring and Analysis — Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer..
The correct answer is: High — The risk level is High because the likelihood is Medium (due to internal network segmentation reducing but not eliminating the chance of exploitation) and the impact is High (the application has high availability requirements, so a buffer overflow could cause a denial of service or code execution, severely affecting availability). In a standard 3x3 risk matrix, Medium likelihood combined with High impact yields a High risk rating.
Identify which exam domain this question belongs to, review the core concept, then practise similar questions from the same domain.
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
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Last reviewed: Jun 30, 2026
This SSCP practice question is part of Courseiva's free ISC2 certification practice question bank. Courseiva provides original exam-style practice questions with explanations, topic-based practice, mock exams, readiness tracking, and study analytics to help learners prepare for the SSCP exam.
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