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CCNA Systems Lifecycle Management Questions

30 questions · Systems Lifecycle Management topic · All types, answers revealed

1
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE factors should an ISSMP consider when selecting security controls for a new system?

Select 3 answers
A.The vendor's marketing materials
B.The organization's threat landscape
C.Operational impact and performance
D.Regulatory and compliance requirements
E.The number of employees in the company
AnswersB, C, D

Controls must be relevant to the threats the organization faces.

Why this answer

Selecting controls involves balancing business requirements, regulatory compliance, and the actual threat landscape to ensure a proportionate risk response.

2
MCQeasy

In the context of the SDLC, what is the primary purpose of a 'Software Bill of Materials' (SBOM)?

A.To outline the project timeline.
B.To identify and manage open-source component risks.
C.To track the financial cost of software licenses.
D.To document the application architecture.
AnswerB

SBOMs are the standard for tracking dependencies for supply chain risk management.

Why this answer

An SBOM provides a comprehensive list of all components, libraries, and modules used in an application, which is crucial for managing supply chain security risks (e.g., identifying vulnerable dependencies).

3
MCQeasy

Which document defines the security requirements that must be met for a third-party vendor to integrate with the company's internal systems?

A.Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)
B.Interconnection Security Agreement (ISA)
C.Service Level Agreement
D.Acceptable Use Policy
AnswerB

The ISA is the technical document governing the secure connection between systems.

Why this answer

The Interconnection Security Agreement (ISA) specifically outlines the security requirements and responsibilities for connecting two systems.

4
MCQmedium

A project team is using Jira for issue tracking and wants to implement a formal change control board (CCB) approval workflow. Which feature should the ISSMP configure to ensure changes cannot be merged without approval?

A.Workflow Validators
B.Automation for Jira
C.Issue Security Levels
D.Post-functions
AnswerA

Validators ensure that specific conditions, such as the presence of an approval comment or a specific flag, are met before a workflow transition occurs.

Why this answer

Using Jira's 'Workflow Validator' or 'Conditions' on the transition to the 'Ready for Production' status enforces that approvals (e.g., from an authorized manager) are logged before code can be merged.

5
MCQmedium

A company is migrating legacy applications to AWS. The ISSMP mandates that changes to the production environment must follow a strict change control process. Which AWS native tool provides the necessary auditing and change management history for infrastructure changes?

A.AWS CloudTrail
B.AWS Shield
C.AWS Config
D.AWS Trusted Advisor
AnswerA

CloudTrail logs every action taken in the AWS account, providing the audit log required for change management.

Why this answer

AWS CloudTrail provides the audit trail of API calls and infrastructure changes, which is the cornerstone of change control auditing.

6
MCQhard

An organization uses a microservices architecture. How can the ISSMP ensure that inter-service communication is encrypted and that services are authenticated to one another?

A.Hardcoding API keys into environment variables.
B.Installing an antivirus agent on every container.
C.Using a standard VPN between all services.
D.Using a Service Mesh (e.g., Istio) to enforce mTLS.
AnswerD

A service mesh handles mTLS and identity at the infrastructure layer, independent of the application code.

Why this answer

Implementing a Service Mesh (e.g., Istio) provides mutual TLS (mTLS) for encrypted communication and cryptographic identity verification between services.

7
MCQeasy

What is the primary objective of a 'Security Gate' in an SDLC?

A.To ensure security activities were completed before moving to the next phase.
B.To automate the removal of legacy hardware.
C.To stop all software development until the budget is approved.
D.To provide a location for developers to submit their resignation.
AnswerA

Security gates act as validation points to prevent security defects from moving downstream.

Why this answer

Security gates are checkpoints placed at the end of SDLC phases to verify that security requirements have been satisfied before proceeding to the next stage.

8
MCQhard

A company is integrating a Third-Party API into their application. What must the ISSMP ensure is included in the risk assessment process?

A.Asking the vendor to sign a standard NDA.
B.Verifying the vendor's stock price.
C.Reviewing the vendor's SOC2 Type II report.
D.Checking if the vendor has a nice website.
AnswerC

Reviewing independent audit reports is a standard method for assessing third-party security posture.

Why this answer

The ISSMP must perform a 'Third-Party Risk Assessment' (TPRA) that evaluates the vendor's security controls, such as their SOC2 Type II report or ISO 27001 certification, to ensure the integration does not violate company security standards.

9
MCQmedium

During a software audit, it is found that developers have administrative access to the production database to troubleshoot errors. What change should the ISSMP implement?

A.Remove all access and require developers to submit tickets for DBAs to perform changes.
B.Create a shared 'admin' account for all developers.
C.Implement Just-In-Time (JIT) privileged access for troubleshooting.
D.Only allow access during business hours.
AnswerC

JIT access provides temporary, audited credentials, minimizing standing privileges.

Why this answer

The ISSMP should implement a 'break-glass' access policy where developers can request temporary, audited access via a tool like HashiCorp Boundary or AWS IAM Identity Center, rather than having persistent standing access.

10
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE actions are necessary when preparing to decommission a cloud-based Virtual Machine (VM)?

Select 3 answers
A.Taking a final full-disk backup to a public S3 bucket
B.Deleting associated snapshots and backups
C.Updating the local hardware inventory
D.Terminating the compute instance
E.Removing identity and access management (IAM) permissions
AnswersB, D, E

Snapshots can contain sensitive data that persists after the VM is deleted.

Why this answer

Decommissioning in the cloud involves ensuring data is wiped, access rights are removed, and the resources are actually terminated to prevent billing and security exposure.

11
MCQeasy

What is the primary role of a Change Advisory Board (CAB)?

A.To write the code for new features.
B.To evaluate the risk and impact of proposed changes.
C.To perform automated penetration testing.
D.To manage the server hardware procurement budget.
AnswerB

The CAB is the governing body for approving changes based on their risk profile.

Why this answer

The CAB's primary role is to evaluate the technical and business impact of proposed changes, ensuring that all risks are identified and mitigated before approval.

12
MCQmedium

When decommissioning an application, which action should the ISSMP prioritize to ensure data privacy requirements (e.g., GDPR) are satisfied?

A.Archiving the data to unencrypted tape drives.
B.Secure sanitization of storage media.
C.Notifying all third-party vendors.
D.Deleting the source code repository.
AnswerB

Sanitization ensures sensitive data cannot be retrieved from decommissioned systems.

Why this answer

The most critical step in decommissioning is the secure sanitization (clearing or purging) of storage media according to industry standards (e.g., NIST SP 800-88).

13
MCQmedium

An ISSMP is reviewing the 'Change Control' process for a critical system. Which of the following is an essential element for every change request?

A.The marketing department's approval.
B.A list of all software installed on the server.
C.A detailed backout/rollback plan.
D.A complete list of developer names.
AnswerC

A backout plan is mandatory for every production change to ensure system recoverability.

Why this answer

A formal change request must include a 'backout plan' (rollback procedure) to ensure service continuity if the change fails or causes unexpected issues.

14
MCQhard

During a waterfall-to-Agile transition, the development team wants to bypass formal Security Requirements Traceability Matrix (SRTM) documentation in favor of user stories. How should the ISSMP reconcile this?

A.Require all security requirements to be embedded into the definition of done (DoD) and documented as security user stories.
B.Mandate that the project manager create a manual SRTM separately from the development tasks.
C.Deny the transition until full waterfall documentation is restored.
D.Allow the team to omit security requirements to speed up deployment.
AnswerA

Integrating security into the DoD and user stories ensures traceability without hindering velocity.

Why this answer

The ISSMP should ensure security requirements are documented as 'Abuse Cases' or 'Security User Stories' within the existing Agile backlog management tool to maintain traceability.

15
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are potential risks if an ISSMP fails to integrate security into the 'Requirements Management' phase?

Select 2 answers
A.Better developer morale
B.Automatic regulatory compliance
C.Faster deployment velocity
D.Inherent architectural design flaws
E.Increased cost of remediation later in the SDLC
AnswersD, E

Without security requirements, fundamental design decisions (like lack of encryption) become entrenched.

Why this answer

Failing to integrate security early results in 'bolted-on' security which is often flawed, expensive to fix, and leaves the system vulnerable to architectural design defects.

16
MCQeasy

Which document is primarily responsible for documenting the security controls applicable to a system during the SDLC's requirements phase?

A.Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)
B.System Security Plan (SSP)
C.Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D.Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
AnswerB

The SSP identifies the security controls that must be implemented for the system.

Why this answer

The System Security Plan (SSP) is the foundational document that defines the security controls selected and implemented for a system.

17
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are critical components of a secure SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle) implementation?

Select 2 answers
A.Manual annual security reviews
B.Standardized desktop operating systems
C.Outsourcing all security to a vendor
D.Continuous Threat Modeling
E.Automated security testing in the pipeline
AnswersD, E

Threat modeling identifies risks early in the design phase.

Why this answer

A secure SDLC requires both proactive security requirements (Threat Modeling) and detective security validation (Automated Testing) to be integrated into the process.

18
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO mechanisms are effective for preventing 'insecure direct object references' (IDOR) in a web application during the development phase?

Select 2 answers
A.Client-side input validation
B.Using non-enumerable, cryptographically strong identifiers (e.g., UUIDs)
C.Disabling logging of access attempts
D.Using sequential database IDs in URLs
E.Implementing server-side authorization checks
AnswersB, E

UUIDs are difficult to guess, preventing unauthorized access to specific object paths.

Why this answer

Preventing IDOR requires both server-side authorization checks and the use of indirect/randomized identifiers rather than sequential, predictable keys.

19
MCQhard

An ISSMP is performing a security assessment on an application using containerized microservices. The team uses Kubernetes. What is the most effective way to ensure security configurations are consistently applied across all clusters?

A.Regular penetration testing
B.Manual code review of Dockerfiles
C.Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) only
D.Kubernetes Admission Controllers
AnswerD

Admission controllers intercept requests to the API server and can validate or mutate objects based on security policies.

Why this answer

Using Kubernetes 'Admission Controllers' (e.g., OPA Gatekeeper) allows the enforcement of security policies (such as preventing privilege escalation) consistently across all deployments.

20
MCQhard

An organization is adopting Infrastructure-as-Code (IaC) using Terraform. The ISSMP wants to ensure no insecure configurations (e.g., S3 buckets with public read) are deployed. What should be integrated into the CI/CD pipeline?

A.Static Analysis for IaC (e.g., tfsec/Checkov).
B.Manual Terraform code review logs.
C.Using AWS IAM policies only.
D.Disabling the Terraform 'plan' command.
AnswerA

These tools scan Terraform files for security misconfigurations before deployment.

Why this answer

Integrating static analysis tools for IaC (like 'tfsec' or 'Checkov') into the pipeline identifies insecure configurations before the 'terraform apply' command is executed.

21
MCQhard

An organization is deploying a globally distributed application. The ISSMP needs to ensure that code changes are signed to prevent tampering. Which process should be implemented in the build pipeline?

A.Encrypting the entire source repository.
B.Using HTTPS for all internal traffic.
C.Implementing artifact signing in the CI/CD pipeline.
D.Running the build on a dedicated hardened server.
AnswerC

Digitally signing artifacts at the end of the build process creates a chain of trust.

Why this answer

Code signing (e.g., using Sigstore or GPG) ensures the integrity of artifacts from build to deployment, ensuring that only signed/authorized code reaches production.

22
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO techniques are effective for securing the software supply chain?

Select 2 answers
A.Restricting internet access to all developers
B.Automated dependency vulnerability scanning
C.Cryptographic signing of build artifacts
D.Avoiding all code reviews
E.Using only software written in-house
AnswersB, C

Scanners like Snyk or OWASP Dependency-Check identify vulnerabilities in open-source libraries.

Why this answer

Supply chain security is best achieved by signing artifacts to prevent tampering and using vulnerability scanners to detect known issues in third-party dependencies.

23
MCQeasy

An ISSMP is overseeing the integration of security into a new DevOps pipeline using Jenkins. Which stage of the SDLC should the ISSMP enforce the execution of SAST tools to ensure security requirements are met early?

A.Decommissioning phase
B.Post-deployment monitoring
C.Requirements gathering phase
D.Development/Build phase
AnswerD

SAST is most effective when integrated into the build/development phase to provide immediate feedback.

Why this answer

Security integration requires SAST (Static Application Security Testing) to be performed during the development phase, specifically as part of the commit or build process.

24
MCQmedium

During the maintenance phase, a production database needs a schema change. The ISSMP requires that this change be tested in a staging environment that mirrors production. Which process best demonstrates compliance with the 'Separation of Duties' principle?

A.The ISSMP personally reviewing every SQL script.
B.Allowing the automated CI/CD tool to deploy without human review.
C.Having the DBA perform the deployment in staging and production.
D.Requiring a separate release team to deploy changes approved by a Change Advisory Board (CAB).
AnswerD

This ensures that development, approval, and deployment are performed by different entities.

Why this answer

Separation of duties requires that the person who develops the change (DBA) is different from the person who approves the change (Change Manager) and the person who performs the production deployment (Release Engineer).

25
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE components should be included in an application security requirements document?

Select 3 answers
A.The marketing tagline for the product
B.Authentication requirements (e.g., MFA)
C.Encryption standards (e.g., TLS 1.3)
D.Authorization/Access control definitions
E.The number of features to include
AnswersB, C, D

MFA is a standard security requirement for most applications.

Why this answer

Requirements must include authentication, authorization, and data encryption standards to ensure the application is secure by design.

26
MCQeasy

Which phase of the SDLC is most appropriate for conducting a formal Threat Modeling exercise?

A.Design phase
B.Release phase
C.Operations and Maintenance
D.Initiation phase
AnswerA

The design phase is the optimal time to identify threats against the architecture.

Why this answer

Threat modeling is most effective during the design phase because it allows architects to identify and mitigate design-level security flaws before implementation begins.

27
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE items are typically verified in a Security Gate check before a production deployment?

Select 3 answers
A.Formal change request approval is documented
B.The marketing campaign has been approved
C.Critical security vulnerabilities are remediated
D.Static/Dynamic analysis tests have passed
E.The developer has finished their vacation
AnswersA, C, D

Governance requires proof of approval before production changes.

Why this answer

Production gates check for vulnerability remediation, passing functional/security tests, and the presence of required documentation (like the change request).

28
MCQmedium

A project manager wants to bypass a security vulnerability finding because 'the patch will break the application'. What is the correct ISSMP response?

A.Rewrite the application code personally.
B.Ignore the finding as it is non-critical.
C.Force the patch regardless of impact.
D.Document a formal Risk Acceptance with the business owner.
AnswerD

When a security control cannot be implemented, the risk must be formally accepted by the accountable business owner.

Why this answer

The ISSMP must initiate a formal Risk Acceptance process, requiring the business owner to acknowledge the residual risk and documenting it in the risk register.

29
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO items must be documented in a Change Control Log after a successful production change?

Select 2 answers
A.The developer's personal home address
B.The timestamp of the change
C.The final status of the change (e.g., successful, failed)
D.The names of all employees who saw the change code
E.The total budget of the organization
AnswersB, C

Audit trails require precise timestamps for all changes.

Why this answer

A change log must include the final outcome (status) and the timestamp to ensure traceability and audit accuracy.

30
MCQmedium

Which metric provides the best insight into the effectiveness of the security program within the SDLC?

A.Number of servers decommissioned.
B.Number of lines of code written.
C.Mean Time to Remediation (MTTR).
D.Number of developers hired.
AnswerC

MTTR measures how quickly security issues are resolved, which is a key indicator of effective security lifecycle management.

Why this answer

The 'Vulnerability Density' (vulnerabilities per KLOC) or 'Mean Time to Remediation' (MTTR) are the most effective metrics for demonstrating SDLC security health.

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