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CCNA Risk Management Questions

48 questions · Risk Management topic · All types, answers revealed

1
MCQhard

During a merger, you identify two different risk assessment methodologies. What is the best strategy for the ISSMP?

A.Develop a unified risk assessment framework for the combined entity
B.Ignore the methodologies and rely on external audits
C.Force the smaller entity to adopt the larger one's tool
D.Keep both and report separately
AnswerA

Harmonising disparate evaluation criteria directly resolves the architectural constraint of conflicting methodologies identified during the corporate merger. Establishing a single, cohesive risk assessment framework ensures consistent quantitative and qualitative asset valuation, threat likelihood determination, and impact calculation across both merging entities. This standardisation prevents blind spots in the expanded attack surface, satisfies governance requirements for enterprise-wide risk aggregation, and provides the Information Systems Security Management Professional (ISSMP) with a reliable mechanism to prioritise remediation efforts without operational discrepancies.

Why this answer

Harmonizing methodologies allows for a unified risk view across the enterprise, which is essential for consistent governance.

2
Multi-Selecthard

A multinational corporation is integrating its risk management program with its enterprise risk management (ERM) framework. The ISSMP is tasked with ensuring that risk appetite and tolerance are effectively communicated and applied across all business units. Which TWO actions are most critical to achieve this integration? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Integrate risk indicators into business unit performance scorecards to monitor adherence to risk appetite.
B.Establish a risk governance structure with clear roles and responsibilities for risk management across the organization.
C.Define risk appetite and tolerance statements that are approved by the board and aligned with strategic objectives.
D.Conduct regular risk awareness training for all employees to ensure they understand the risk management process.
E.Implement a centralized risk register that captures all risks from every business unit in a single repository.
AnswersB, C

A robust risk governance structure defines who is accountable for risk decisions, how risk appetite is interpreted, and how exceptions are handled. This ensures that risk appetite and tolerance are consistently applied across business units. Without clear governance, integration efforts often stall due to ambiguity and conflicting priorities, making this action critical.

Why this answer

Integrating risk appetite and tolerance into ERM requires clear, board-approved statements that align with strategy, and a governance structure that assigns accountability for applying them. These two actions provide the direction and oversight needed for consistent risk-taking. Training, centralized registers, and scorecards are supportive but do not by themselves ensure integration.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that operational tools like a centralized risk register or training are sufficient to integrate risk appetite, when in fact they depend on foundational governance and approved appetite statements.

3
MCQmedium

A financial services firm is expanding its risk management program to include cyber risk quantification. The CISO wants to express cyber risk in monetary terms to compare it with other business risks. Which approach best aligns with this objective?

A.Implement a FAIR (Factor Analysis of Information Risk) methodology to model loss event frequency and loss magnitude.
B.Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA) to determine recovery time objectives for critical systems.
C.Adopt a qualitative risk assessment using a 5x5 likelihood and impact matrix to prioritize risks.
D.Use the NIST Cybersecurity Framework to categorize risks and map them to controls.
AnswerA

FAIR is a quantitative risk analysis framework that expresses risk in monetary terms by modeling loss event frequency and loss magnitude, enabling direct comparison with other business risks. It provides a common language for cyber risk and supports cost-benefit analysis of controls, which is exactly what the CISO needs for integration with enterprise risk management.

Why this answer

Quantitative risk analysis methods like FAIR are specifically designed to express risk in monetary terms by modeling loss event frequency and loss magnitude. This allows the CISO to compare cyber risk with other business risks and make informed investment decisions. Qualitative approaches and frameworks like NIST CSF or BIA do not provide the monetary quantification needed for this objective.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any structured risk framework, such as the NIST CSF, provides monetary quantification, when in fact it only helps organize and categorize risk without assigning financial values.

4
MCQhard

When integrating risk management with the SDLC, which activity represents the most effective 'Shift-Left' approach to mitigate design-level risk?

A.Static Application Security Testing (SAST)
B.Threat Modeling
C.Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)
D.Penetration Testing
AnswerB

Threat modelling embodies the 'Shift-Left' approach by analysing system architecture during the preliminary design phase, directly satisfying the stem's requirement to mitigate design-level risk before coding begins. By systematically decomposing trust boundaries, data flows, and entry points, security professionals can identify structural vulnerabilities and architectural flaws upfront. This proactive mechanism allows development teams to remediate systemic design weaknesses cost-effectively long before implementation, avoiding the exponentially higher expenses associated with patching architectural defects during late-stage testing or production.

Why this answer

Threat modeling during the design phase identifies architectural risks before code is written.

5
MCQmedium

When executive leadership discusses 'Acceptable Risk', they are referring to:

A.Inherent risk before controls
B.Zero risk tolerance
C.The total budget for security
D.Residual risk within the risk appetite
AnswerD

Acceptable risk directly satisfies the executive constraint defined by the organisational risk appetite, representing the exact quantum of residual risk that governance boards are willing to retain after implementing security controls. By balancing potential threat impact against operational utility, leadership explicitly sanctions this remaining exposure level without necessitating further mitigation expenditures, ensuring alignment between strategic business objectives and information security frameworks.

Why this answer

Acceptable risk is the remaining risk after controls are applied that remains within the organizational risk tolerance.

6
MCQhard

Your organization is performing a supply chain risk assessment. Which factor is most critical when evaluating a critical software vendor?

A.The vendor's secure software development lifecycle (SSDLC) practices
B.The physical location of their headquarters
C.The number of employees at the vendor
D.The vendor's marketing budget
AnswerA

Evaluating a vendor's secure software development lifecycle (SSDLC) practices directly addresses the critical constraint of mitigating supply chain vulnerabilities at their source. By verifying that security controls, such as threat modelling and automated code analysis, are integrated into the development pipeline, an organisation ensures that the vendor proactively identifies and remediates flaws before deployment. This systematic approach reduces the risk of malicious code injection or inherent vulnerabilities being introduced into the supply chain, which is essential when assessing high-risk third-party software dependencies.

Why this answer

Vendor financial stability and their own security development lifecycle (SDL) are paramount for long-term supply chain risk.

7
MCQhard

A healthcare organization is conducting a risk assessment for a new telehealth platform that will store protected health information (PHI). The risk team has identified that the platform's encryption at rest uses a deprecated algorithm. The vendor cannot upgrade the algorithm for another six months due to contractual constraints. Which of the following is the BEST risk response?

A.Avoid the risk by delaying the telehealth platform launch until the vendor upgrades the encryption.
B.Accept the risk because the platform is protected by network segmentation and access controls.
C.Transfer the risk by purchasing cyber insurance that covers data breaches.
D.Mitigate the risk by implementing compensating controls such as tokenization of PHI until the algorithm is upgraded.
AnswerD

Tokenization replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive tokens, reducing the impact if the deprecated encryption is broken. This compensating control protects PHI while the vendor upgrades the algorithm, aligning with risk mitigation. It addresses the vulnerability without violating contractual constraints and demonstrates due diligence in protecting PHI.

Why this answer

Implementing compensating controls like tokenization mitigates the risk by protecting PHI even if the encryption is compromised. This approach allows the organization to continue operations while addressing the vulnerability until a permanent fix is available. It balances security, business needs, and regulatory compliance, making it the most appropriate risk response.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that insurance or acceptance is sufficient when a known vulnerability affects regulated data; compensating controls are often required to mitigate risk.

8
MCQmedium

A Chief Risk Officer is utilizing the FAIR framework to quantify cyber risk. Which input is required to calculate the Loss Event Frequency?

A.Primary Loss Magnitude and Secondary Loss Magnitude
B.Inherent Risk and Residual Risk
C.Control Strength and Asset Valuation
D.Threat Event Frequency and Vulnerability
AnswerD

Loss Event Frequency in the FAIR model is mathematically derived by combining Threat Event Frequency with Vulnerability, satisfying the specific constraint in the stem regarding the calculation of frequency-based risk components. Threat Event Frequency quantifies the probable rate at which a threat agent attempts to act against an asset, while Vulnerability measures the probability that an asset will be successfully compromised should such an event occur. Multiplying these two independent variables produces the annualised frequency of actual loss events, fulfilling the foundational mechanics required for quantitative cyber risk analysis.

Why this answer

In the FAIR framework, Loss Event Frequency (LEF) is calculated from Threat Event Frequency (TEF) and Vulnerability (the probability that a threat event becomes a loss event). The formula is LEF = TEF × Vulnerability. Therefore, the required inputs are Threat Event Frequency and Vulnerability.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Loss Event Frequency inputs with Loss Magnitude inputs — candidates see 'Loss' in both and pick Primary/Secondary Loss Magnitude, but those belong to the impact side, not the frequency side.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Primary and Secondary Loss Magnitude are inputs to Loss Magnitude calculation, not Loss Event Frequency — they feed the risk impact side, not the frequency side. Option B is wrong because Inherent and Residual Risk are outputs or comparative measures, not inputs to LEF. Option C is wrong because Control Strength and Asset Valuation relate to vulnerability assessment and impact, but they are not the direct inputs to the LEF formula — Vulnerability is the factor, and it is derived from control strength, but the exam expects the direct inputs.

9
MCQmedium

When performing a risk assessment on a new SaaS implementation, which document is most useful for understanding the vendor's risk profile?

A.The vendor's sales brochure
B.A SOC 2 Type II report
C.The vendor's stock ticker symbol
D.The vendor's customer list
AnswerB

A Service Organization Control (SOC) 2 Type II report satisfies the constraint of evaluating a Software-as-a-Service vendor's operational risk profile by providing an independent auditor's attestation regarding security controls over a sustained period, typically six months or more. This mechanism allows organisations to verify the effectiveness of the vendor's safeguards across the Trust Services Criteria—security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy—directly addressing the governance challenge of outsourcing infrastructure and data processing to a third party.

Why this answer

A SOC 2 Type II report provides an independent auditor's assessment of the vendor's security controls over time.

10
MCQmedium

An ISSMP is reviewing an organizational risk register. Which field is essential for effective risk prioritization?

A.Name of the auditor
B.Asset owner's email address
C.Inherent risk rating
D.Last modified date
AnswerC

Inherent risk rating expresses exposure before controls are applied, giving a common scale to compare disparate risks objectively. Prioritisation depends on this baseline because it reflects the true severity of each risk, independent of existing mitigations that may be weak or untested.

Why this answer

The inherent risk rating is essential for effective risk prioritization because it represents the level of risk before any controls are applied, allowing the organization to compare risks on a consistent scale and decide which ones require treatment first. Without an inherent risk rating, the risk register cannot meaningfully rank risks by severity or likelihood.

Exam trap

ISC often tests whether candidates understand that prioritization requires a quantifiable or comparable risk measure — the trap is selecting administrative metadata fields (auditor name, email, date) that feel relevant to a register but do not contribute to ranking risk severity.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the name of the auditor is an administrative detail that has no bearing on how risks are ranked or prioritized. Option B is wrong because the asset owner's email address is a contact detail for accountability, not a factor in determining risk severity or priority. Option D is wrong because the last modified date is a metadata field useful for tracking updates, but it does not indicate how severe or likely a risk is, so it cannot drive prioritization.

11
Multi-Selecthard

When conducting a risk assessment on an IoT ecosystem, which THREE factors are specifically critical?

Select 3 answers
A.The manufacturer's stock price history
B.Device patch management capabilities
C.Physical security of the device endpoints
D.Network isolation and segmentation
E.The aesthetic design of the device
AnswersB, C, D

IoT ecosystems comprise resource-constrained edge endpoints deployed at scale, making robust remote firmware update mechanisms essential for addressing vulnerabilities over extended lifecycles. Device patch management capabilities directly satisfy the strict requirement for maintaining component integrity and mitigating zero-day exploits in distributed embedded environments without requiring physical intervention. Evaluating how securely these over-the-air updates are authenticated, encrypted, and delivered determines whether an operational infrastructure can withstand persistent remote compromise.

Why this answer

IoT devices often have poor security (patching challenges), high network exposure, and physical access vulnerabilities.

12
MCQmedium

When evaluating the effectiveness of a risk mitigation strategy, which stakeholder is most critical to involve in the sign-off process?

A.The IT helpdesk manager
B.The external auditor
C.The Business Process Owner
D.The HR department
AnswerC

The Business Process Owner is critical to involve because they hold ultimate accountability for the operational workflow and residual risk acceptance tied to the mitigated vulnerability. This satisfies the constraint of evaluating the actual effectiveness of a risk mitigation strategy within daily operational contexts, ensuring that technical controls do not unduly disrupt business functions or violate operational tolerances before formal sign-off occurs.

Why this answer

The Business Process Owner (C) is the stakeholder who owns the business process and its risk, has authority to accept residual risk, and can confirm that the mitigation aligns with business objectives. Risk sign-off must come from the risk owner — the person accountable for the process — not from technical or support functions.

Exam trap

The trap is selecting the external auditor or IT manager because they sound authoritative — but auditors assure and IT supports; only the risk owner (Business Process Owner) can accept risk.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the IT helpdesk manager supports operations but does not own business risk or have authority to accept it on behalf of the business. Option B is wrong because external auditors provide independent assurance; they evaluate controls but do not sign off on risk acceptance. Option D is wrong because HR manages personnel matters and has no ownership of the business process or its risk posture.

13
MCQeasy

Which of the following best describes the 'Risk Management Framework' (RMF) process step of 'Assess'?

A.Authorize the system
B.Define the boundary
C.Determine the effectiveness of controls
D.Select controls
AnswerC

Determining the effectiveness of controls directly satisfies the requirement to validate security implementations within the RMF Assess step. This phase focuses on verifying that selected security and privacy controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and producing the desired outcome regarding security requirements. By conducting rigorous security assessments, organisations confirm that safeguards—such as conditional access policies managed via Microsoft Entra ID—function as expected to mitigate identified risks, ensuring the system maintains its authorised security posture before transitioning to the Authorise step.

Why this answer

In NIST SP 800-37, 'Assess' involves evaluating the controls to determine if they are implemented correctly and effective.

14
MCQeasy

A healthcare organization is conducting a risk assessment for a new telehealth platform that will store protected health information (PHI). The ISSMP must ensure that the assessment adequately addresses regulatory requirements. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of the risk assessment?

A.Identifying and evaluating threats and vulnerabilities that could lead to unauthorized disclosure of PHI.
B.Assessing the scalability of the platform to handle peak patient loads during flu season.
C.Evaluating the user interface design to ensure it is intuitive for patients and providers.
D.Determining the total cost of ownership for the telehealth platform over the next five years.
AnswerA

The primary focus of a risk assessment for a system handling PHI is to identify threats and vulnerabilities that could compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of that data. This directly addresses regulatory requirements such as HIPAA, which mandates safeguards for PHI. By focusing on unauthorized disclosure, the assessment ensures compliance and protects patient privacy.

Why this answer

For a telehealth platform storing PHI, the risk assessment must prioritize identifying threats and vulnerabilities that could lead to unauthorized access or disclosure, as required by regulations like HIPAA. Financial, usability, and scalability considerations are secondary and do not directly address the protection of PHI. Thus, the primary focus should be on safeguarding the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of PHI.

Exam trap

The trap here is being distracted by operational factors like cost or scalability, which are important but not the primary regulatory focus when PHI is involved; the assessment must center on threats to the data.

15
MCQhard

Your organization adopts the NIST CSF 2.0. Which specific function should be assessed to identify gaps in your enterprise risk management program's Governance component?

A.Govern
B.Protect
C.Respond
D.Recover
E.Identify
AnswerA

The NIST CSF 2.0 Govern function explicitly mandates the assessment and establishment of organisational cybersecurity governance, risk management policies, and legal compliance. By directly targeting the enterprise risk management programme's Governance component, this function satisfies the exact constraint specified in the stem, providing the structural framework necessary to evaluate policies, oversight, and risk strategy rather than purely technical implementation.

Why this answer

The 'Govern' function was elevated in CSF 2.0 to encompass enterprise risk management, strategy, and policy.

16
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO factors should be used to weigh the 'Impact' in a risk assessment?

Select 2 answers
A.The number of hours the system has been running
B.The font size used in internal memos
C.The replacement cost of the asset
D.The age of the server hardware
E.The criticality of the data or service to business operations
AnswersC, E

Quantifying the financial burden of asset loss directly satisfies the requirement to weigh the 'Impact' factor during a risk assessment. Determining the replacement cost provides an objective monetary baseline to calculate quantitative risk, ensuring that organisational losses are accurately measured in fiscal terms rather than relying solely on subjective qualitative metrics.

Why this answer

Impact is generally measured by the potential loss to the business, focusing on availability, confidentiality, and integrity.

17
MCQeasy

Which risk response strategy is being employed when a company purchases cyber insurance?

A.Acceptance
B.Avoidance
C.Mitigation
D.Transference
AnswerD

Purchasing cyber insurance shifts the financial burden of a potential security breach from the organisation to a third-party provider. This mechanism satisfies the risk transference constraint by contractually reallocating the impact of a threat rather than eliminating the vulnerability or reducing the likelihood of an incident. By paying a premium, the company effectively offloads the monetary consequences of residual risk, ensuring that the insurer assumes responsibility for specified losses should a compromise occur within the firm's digital infrastructure.

Why this answer

Purchasing cyber insurance transfers the financial impact of a risk to a third party (the insurer) in exchange for a premium, which is the textbook definition of the Transference (or Transfer) risk response. The organization retains the risk event's operational consequences but shifts the monetary loss. Acceptance, avoidance, and mitigation describe different responses and do not match the insurance mechanism.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Mitigation with Transference because insurance feels like 'doing something about the risk' — candidates must remember that mitigation changes likelihood/impact while transfer only shifts financial liability.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Acceptance means acknowledging the risk and bearing the consequences without action — buying insurance is the opposite of accepting the loss. Option B is wrong because Avoidance means eliminating the activity that creates the risk entirely (e.g., shutting down the service), not insuring it. Option C is wrong because Mitigation reduces the likelihood or impact through controls (e.g., patching, MFA); insurance does not reduce the probability of a breach, only its financial severity.

18
MCQhard

In the context of ISO 31000, what is the primary purpose of 'Risk Communication and Consultation'?

A.To inform decision-making by engaging stakeholders
B.To notify the public of breaches
C.To assign blame for security failures
D.To archive risk records for auditing
AnswerA

Engaging stakeholders through iterative dialogue ensures that diverse perspectives are integrated into the risk management framework, directly satisfying the ISO 31000 requirement for transparency and informed decision-making. By facilitating the exchange of information across organisational levels, this process aligns risk perceptions with strategic objectives. This collaborative mechanism bridges the gap between technical risk assessments and operational realities, ensuring that stakeholders remain informed throughout the lifecycle of the risk management process, thereby enhancing the overall effectiveness of organisational governance and accountability.

Why this answer

ISO 31000 emphasizes stakeholder engagement throughout the entire risk management process to ensure transparency and accountability.

19
MCQeasy

What is the primary difference between a 'Risk Assessment' and a 'Vulnerability Assessment'?

A.There is no difference
B.Risk assessment considers business context and impact
C.Risk assessment is only for physical assets
D.Vulnerability assessment is only for executive level
AnswerB

Risk assessments integrate business context and asset criticality to evaluate the potential impact of threats on organisational objectives, satisfying the requirement to distinguish between purely technical scanning and strategic decision-making. While a vulnerability assessment identifies technical flaws in systems like Microsoft Entra ID, a risk assessment quantifies the business consequence of those flaws. By mapping vulnerabilities against operational value, this approach enables stakeholders to prioritise remediation efforts based on actual exposure rather than merely addressing every detected technical weakness in isolation.

Why this answer

A vulnerability assessment finds technical flaws; a risk assessment determines the business impact and likelihood of those flaws being exploited.

20
MCQmedium

A multinational corporation is implementing an Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) program. The Chief Risk Officer wants to ensure that risk management is integrated into strategic planning. Which of the following activities best demonstrates this integration?

A.Purchasing cyber insurance to transfer the financial impact of data breaches.
B.Including risk-adjusted return on capital (RAROC) in the evaluation of all major investment proposals.
C.Conducting annual risk assessments for each business unit and compiling a risk register.
D.Establishing a risk committee that meets quarterly to review the top ten risks.
AnswerB

Using risk-adjusted return on capital (RAROC) in investment decisions directly ties risk to strategic financial planning. RAROC compares expected returns against the capital at risk, ensuring that risk is a factor in resource allocation. This demonstrates integration because risk considerations are embedded in the strategic decision-making process, influencing which projects are funded and prioritized.

Why this answer

The activity that best demonstrates integration of risk management into strategic planning is the use of risk-adjusted return on capital (RAROC) in investment decisions. RAROC forces decision-makers to consider risk alongside return, ensuring that risk is a factor in strategic capital allocation. This aligns with ERM principles, where risk management is not a standalone function but is woven into the fabric of strategic decision-making.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing routine risk management activities, such as risk registers or committees, with true strategic integration, which requires risk to influence high-level decision-making.

21
MCQeasy

Which of the following is an example of a detective control in a risk management program?

A.Encryption
B.Firewall rules
C.Disaster recovery plan
D.Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) alerts
AnswerD

Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems function as detective controls by aggregating log data from disparate sources, such as Microsoft Entra ID or firewalls, to identify anomalous patterns post-occurrence. Unlike preventive controls that block unauthorised access attempts, SIEM alerts provide visibility into security incidents after they have transpired. This capability satisfies the requirement for a detective mechanism by enabling security teams to analyse, investigate, and respond to threats that have already bypassed initial perimeter defences, thereby facilitating effective incident remediation.

Why this answer

Detective controls, like logs or monitoring, identify that a risk event has occurred.

22
MCQmedium

A healthcare organization is integrating risk management into its enterprise architecture practice. The Chief Risk Officer (CRO) wants to ensure that new technology initiatives are evaluated for risk before funding is approved. Which activity best demonstrates that risk management is embedded in the architecture governance process?

A.Including a documented risk assessment with identified mitigations as a mandatory gate in the architecture review board's approval criteria.
B.Asking project managers to report risk status monthly to the project management office after the initiative has launched.
C.Requiring the security team to perform a penetration test after each new system is deployed to production.
D.Delegating all risk decisions to the security operations center so that architecture teams can focus on delivery timelines.
AnswerA

Making a risk assessment a mandatory gate before architecture approval embeds risk management directly into the governance decision point. It ensures risks are identified and mitigations are considered while the design can still be changed, which is the essence of integration. This is the only option that affects funding and design decisions proactively rather than reacting after deployment.

Why this answer

Embedding risk management in architecture governance means risk evaluation becomes a required input to the approval decision, not an after-the-fact review. A mandatory risk assessment gate ensures that identified risks and mitigations are considered while design changes are still feasible and before funding is committed. This creates accountability and aligns architecture decisions with the organization's risk appetite.

Exam trap

The trap here is mistaking post-deployment testing or periodic reporting for integration, when true integration requires risk evaluation at the governance decision point before approval.

23
Multi-Selectmedium

A security manager is developing a risk treatment plan for a critical vulnerability in a web application. The vulnerability allows remote code execution and has a high likelihood of exploitation. The organization has a low risk appetite. Which TWO of the following are the MOST appropriate risk treatment options to consider? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Accept the risk because the application is behind a VPN.
B.Apply a vendor patch as soon as it becomes available.
C.Transfer the risk by outsourcing the application to a third party.
D.Avoid the risk by shutting down the web application.
E.Implement a web application firewall (WAF) rule to block exploitation attempts.
AnswersB, E

Applying the vendor patch directly addresses the vulnerability, reducing the likelihood of exploitation. Given the high likelihood and low risk appetite, mitigation is the most appropriate response. Patching is a standard risk treatment that eliminates the vulnerability, assuming the patch is tested and deployed promptly.

Why this answer

Applying the vendor patch and implementing a WAF rule are both mitigation strategies that reduce the likelihood or impact of exploitation. They align with a low risk appetite by actively addressing the vulnerability. Patching eliminates the flaw, while a WAF provides immediate protection.

Other options like acceptance, transfer, or avoidance are less appropriate given the high risk and available mitigations.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that network controls like VPN or outsourcing fully transfer or eliminate risk, when active mitigation is required for high-risk vulnerabilities.

24
MCQhard

A software development company is integrating risk management into its DevOps pipeline. The security team wants to implement a control that automatically scans code for vulnerabilities before deployment. Which of the following best describes this type of control in the context of risk management?

A.Detective control
B.Corrective control
C.Preventive control
D.Compensating control
AnswerC

Automated code scanning before deployment is a preventive control because it stops vulnerabilities from being introduced into production. By identifying issues early in the development pipeline, it prevents potential security incidents. This aligns with the shift-left approach, where security is integrated early to avoid costly remediation later.

Why this answer

The automated code scan before deployment is a preventive control. It stops vulnerabilities from entering production, thereby reducing the likelihood of exploitation. In risk management terms, controls are classified by their function: preventive controls block undesirable events, detective controls discover them, and corrective controls respond after they occur.

Integrating such scans into the DevOps pipeline exemplifies a preventive, shift-left approach to security.

Exam trap

The trap here is misclassifying the automated scan as detective because it detects vulnerabilities, but its placement before deployment makes it preventive.

25
Multi-Selecthard

When presenting a risk treatment plan to the Board of Directors, which THREE elements should be included to ensure executive buy-in?

Select 3 answers
A.A list of all software versions running in the data center
B.Technical logs of the last 100 failed login attempts
C.Cost-benefit analysis of the proposed treatment
D.Impact on business processes if not addressed
E.Clear statement of the residual risk level
AnswersC, D, E

Quantifying the financial impact satisfies the Board’s requirement for fiscal accountability by demonstrating a clear return on investment. Executives prioritise risk treatment plans that articulate how proposed controls mitigate potential losses against the cost of implementation. By providing a rigorous cost-benefit analysis, security professionals translate technical risk metrics into business-centric language, enabling the Board to make informed resource allocation decisions. This alignment between security expenditure and organisational strategy is essential for securing the executive buy-in necessary to authorise funding for risk mitigation initiatives.

Why this answer

Executives need to understand the cost, the risk reduction, and the business impact to approve funding.

26
MCQmedium

A global financial services firm is expanding its enterprise risk management (ERM) program to include third-party risk. The CISO wants to ensure that the risk appetite for third-party relationships is consistently applied across all business units. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to achieve this?

A.Delegate third-party risk decisions to each business unit to increase agility and ownership.
B.Establish a centralized third-party risk management office that reviews and approves all vendor engagements.
C.Implement a vendor risk rating system that scores each vendor based on financial stability and security posture.
D.Require all business units to use the same risk assessment questionnaire for third-party vendors.
AnswerB

A centralized office enforces consistent application of risk appetite by providing a single point of review and approval. It ensures that all business units adhere to the same risk criteria and thresholds, reducing inconsistent risk decisions. This approach also facilitates reporting and escalation to executive management, aligning third-party risk with the overall ERM framework.

Why this answer

Centralizing third-party risk management ensures that all vendor engagements are assessed against the same risk appetite and thresholds. This governance structure prevents business units from making inconsistent risk decisions and provides a clear escalation path. It also enables aggregate reporting to the board, demonstrating that third-party risk is managed within the enterprise risk framework.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a standardized questionnaire or rating system alone enforces risk appetite, when governance and centralized approval are required for consistency.

27
MCQmedium

A multinational corporation is integrating its risk management program with its supply chain management. The CISO wants to ensure that risk assessments are performed consistently for all suppliers. Which of the following is the MOST important factor to consider when defining the risk assessment criteria?

A.The criticality of the goods or services provided to the organization's operations.
B.The geographic location of the supplier's headquarters.
C.The supplier's annual revenue and financial stability.
D.The length of the contract with the supplier.
AnswerA

The criticality of the supplier's goods or services directly impacts the organization's risk exposure. A supplier providing critical components or handling sensitive data poses a higher risk if compromised. Risk assessment criteria should prioritize suppliers based on their potential impact on the organization's operations and information assets, ensuring that resources are allocated proportionally.

Why this answer

The criticality of the goods or services determines the potential impact on the organization if the supplier fails or is compromised. This factor ensures that risk assessments prioritize suppliers that are essential to operations or handle sensitive data. By focusing on criticality, the organization can allocate resources effectively and apply appropriate controls based on risk severity.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on easily quantifiable factors like revenue or location instead of the impact on the organization's mission and information assets.

28
MCQhard

A global financial services firm has completed a quantitative risk analysis for its primary trading platform. The analysis shows an annualized loss expectancy (ALE) of $4.2 million. The platform owner proposes a $1.1 million annual security program that would reduce the ALE to $900,000. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) must decide whether to recommend funding. The organization's risk appetite statement permits a maximum residual ALE of $1.5 million for critical systems. Which decision is most appropriate?

A.Recommend funding only if the program can eliminate all residual risk, because any residual ALE above zero violates the risk appetite statement.
B.Reject funding because the $1.1 million annual cost exceeds the $900,000 residual ALE, making the program economically unjustified.
C.Recommend funding the program because the residual ALE of $900,000 is below the $1.5 million risk appetite threshold and the control cost is less than the risk reduction.
D.Defer the decision indefinitely because quantitative analysis cannot be used to justify security spending when a risk appetite statement exists.
AnswerC

The program reduces ALE from $4.2M to $0.9M, a $3.3M annual risk reduction for a $1.1M investment, yielding a positive return. The residual ALE also satisfies the risk appetite ceiling of $1.5M, so the treatment aligns with both financial and governance criteria. This is the only option that satisfies the stated appetite and demonstrates cost-effective risk reduction.

Why this answer

The treatment is justified because the $1.1M control reduces ALE by $3.3M annually, and the resulting residual ALE of $900,000 falls within the $1.5M appetite. Effective risk management compares the cost of the control to the risk reduction achieved, not to the residual ALE alone, and ensures the residual position aligns with documented tolerance. This option satisfies both economic and governance criteria.

Exam trap

The trap here is comparing the control cost to the residual ALE instead of to the reduction in ALE, which would incorrectly make an economically sound control appear unjustified.

29
MCQmedium

Which of the following is a 'Leading Indicator' for an enterprise risk management program?

A.Total cost of a data breach
B.Percentage of assets with missing security patches
C.Number of systems compromised
D.Number of security incidents in the last month
AnswerB

Tracking the percentage of assets with missing security patches acts as a predictive metric because unpatched vulnerabilities represent latent operational exposure before exploitation occurs, satisfying the requirement for a leading indicator that anticipates future security incidents rather than merely measuring past failures. This proactive measurement allows security teams to remediate weaknesses and prevent potential breaches before threat actors can weaponise them, effectively forecasting the trajectory of enterprise risk.

Why this answer

A leading indicator predicts future risk, whereas a lagging indicator reports past occurrences.

30
MCQhard

A security manager is presenting a risk register to the executive committee. One risk item shows a high likelihood and high impact, but the risk owner has proposed a treatment plan that requires significant funding. The executive committee asks for justification. Which of the following is the BEST approach to justify the investment?

A.Highlight the regulatory penalties that could result if the risk materializes.
B.Explain that the risk is high on the risk matrix and therefore must be treated.
C.Reference industry benchmarks showing that similar organizations have implemented the control.
D.Present the annualized loss expectancy (ALE) and compare it to the cost of the control.
AnswerD

ALE provides a quantitative basis for comparing the expected loss from the risk to the cost of mitigating it. If the ALE exceeds the control cost, the investment is justified. This approach speaks the language of business and helps executives make informed decisions based on financial impact, not just technical risk.

Why this answer

Using ALE to compare expected loss with control cost provides a clear financial justification. It quantifies the risk in monetary terms, enabling executives to evaluate the investment's value. This approach aligns security spending with business objectives and demonstrates that the control is cost-effective, making it the most persuasive method.

Exam trap

The trap here is relying on qualitative severity or benchmarks instead of quantitative financial impact, which executives need to justify spending.

31
Multi-Selecthard

When assessing the risk of a third-party service provider, which THREE areas should be evaluated?

Select 3 answers
A.Legal and contractual liability clauses
B.Financial viability of the provider
C.Security control maturity (e.g., SOC 2)
D.The vendor's office coffee selection
E.The color of the vendor's logo
AnswersA, B, C

Evaluating legal and contractual liability clauses directly satisfies the governance, risk, and compliance constraint inherent in third-party vendor assessments. Organisations must carefully scrutinise indemnification limits, data ownership provisions, and regulatory compliance obligations embedded within service-level agreements to ensure the provider assumes adequate financial and operational responsibility for security breaches. Neglecting these enforceable safeguards leaves the enterprise legally exposed to data protection penalties and unmitigated liabilities when incidents occur within the outsourced infrastructure.

Why this answer

Supply chain risk management requires a holistic review of security, legal, and operational/financial health.

32
MCQhard

An organization is concerned about 'Cloud Concentration Risk'. What is the best mitigation strategy?

A.Move all data to a private data center
C.Implement a multi-cloud strategy
D.Increase the number of security analysts
AnswerC

Relying on a single cloud service provider introduces severe operational vulnerability to outages, pricing shifts, or proprietary lock-in, which directly addresses the stem's concern regarding cloud concentration risk. Implementing a multi-cloud strategy distributes workloads across heterogeneous infrastructures from different vendors. This architectural decoupling prevents systemic single-points-of-failure and ensures business continuity by maintaining operational redundancy, meaning that an outage or policy change affecting one provider does not cripple the entire enterprise environment.

Why this answer

Multi-cloud or hybrid-cloud strategies are the primary methods to reduce concentration risk (dependence on a single provider).

33
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of an 'Exception Process' in a risk management program?

A.To manage temporary deviations from security standards
B.To bypass the change management process
C.To punish non-compliant employees
D.To permanently ignore security policies
AnswerA

An Exception Process satisfies the specific operational constraint of managing temporary deviations from security standards by establishing a formal, time-bound approval workflow for known vulnerabilities or non-compliant assets that cannot be immediately remediated. Instead of leaving risks unmanaged or permanently altering foundational baselines, this mechanism logs compensating controls, sets strict expiration dates, and ensures regular re-evaluation by risk owners. This satisfies the governance requirement to maintain security posture integrity while providing necessary operational flexibility for business-critical exceptions without compromising overall accountability.

Why this answer

An exception process allows for documented, time-bound deviations from security standards when compliance cannot be met immediately.

34
MCQhard

In the context of risk reporting, what does a 'Risk Heat Map' effectively communicate to the board?

A.The history of past audit findings
B.The exact cost of every security control
C.Technical vulnerability lists
D.The relative prioritization of risks across the enterprise
AnswerD

A risk heat map directly satisfies the communication constraint of presenting enterprise-wide risks visually by mapping likelihood and impact on a two-dimensional matrix. This graphical representation enables the board to instantly grasp the relative prioritisation of risks across the enterprise. By categorising diverse threats using a standardised colour-coded scale, executives can rapidly identify which operational vulnerabilities demand immediate mitigation resources and strategic oversight without getting bogged down in granular technical data.

Why this answer

A Risk Heat Map plots risks on a grid of likelihood versus impact (or similar axes) with color coding, giving the board a visual, prioritized view of which risks matter most across the enterprise. It communicates relative prioritization, not raw technical detail or financial precision. This makes it an executive-level communication tool rather than an operational one.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing a heat map's executive prioritization purpose with operational artifacts (vulnerability lists, audit histories) — candidates must match the audience (board) to the abstraction level (relative prioritization).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a history of past audit findings is a retrospective compliance record, not a forward-looking risk prioritization view. Option B is wrong because a heat map does not show the exact cost of every control; it shows relative risk positioning, and control costs are a separate financial analysis. Option C is wrong because technical vulnerability lists are operational outputs from scanners, not the aggregated, business-contextualized view a heat map provides to the board.

35
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are primary components of a formal Risk Management policy?

Select 2 answers
A.Detailed technical firewall configuration steps
B.The specific hardware vendors approved for purchase
C.The yearly budget for the IT department
D.Clear identification of roles and responsibilities
E.Defined risk appetite and tolerance levels
AnswersD, E

A formal Risk Management policy must establish clear identification of roles and responsibilities to satisfy the governance constraint requiring operational accountability within an organisational framework. Without explicitly defining accountability—such as designating risk owners, asset custodians, and executive steering committees—the policy fails to operationalise risk oversight, leaving gaps in compliance monitoring and incident escalation paths across the business hierarchy.

Why this answer

A risk management policy must define roles/responsibilities and the risk appetite/tolerance.

36
Multi-Selecthard

When building an Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) program, which THREE factors must be considered to ensure integration with the organization?

Select 3 answers
A.Integration with existing business processes
B.Replacing all existing staff with security experts
C.Purchasing the most expensive security tool available
D.Alignment with business strategic objectives
E.Organizational culture and risk appetite
AnswersA, D, E

Embedding risk governance directly into existing business processes satisfies the mandate for seamless operational integration by ensuring that risk assessments occur at the point of decision-making rather than as a disconnected administrative burden. When risk workflows align natively with current operational mechanisms, such as change management pipelines and software development lifecycles, stakeholders adopt practices organically. This structural coupling removes friction, prevents parallel governance silos, and ensures that risk management functions as an inherent operational driver rather than an isolated oversight mechanism.

Why this answer

ERM is successful when it aligns with the culture, business goals, and organizational structure.

37
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO methods are commonly used to identify new risks in an enterprise environment?

Select 2 answers
A.Threat intelligence feeds
B.The annual holiday party schedule
C.Automated server patching
D.Purchasing more hardware
E.Periodic security risk assessments
AnswersA, E

Threat intelligence feeds provide real-time data regarding emerging vulnerabilities and adversary tactics, satisfying the requirement to identify new risks. By aggregating indicators of compromise from global sources, these feeds enable security teams to proactively update defensive postures before an exploit occurs. This mechanism shifts risk management from reactive patching to predictive analysis, allowing organisations to recognise evolving threats that internal monitoring tools would otherwise miss until an incident has already materialised within the enterprise environment.

Why this answer

Risk identification is often driven by systematic reviews (audits/assessments) and data-driven analysis (threat intelligence).

38
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are common challenges in quantitative risk analysis?

Select 2 answers
A.It is not allowed by regulatory standards
B.The models are too simple to understand
C.High complexity and resource intensity of modeling
D.Quantitative data is always free
E.Difficulty in obtaining accurate, high-quality data
AnswersC, E

Quantitative risk analysis demands substantial computational power and specialised expertise to construct accurate Monte Carlo simulations or decision trees. This high complexity and resource intensity satisfies the stem's requirement for common challenges, as organisations often struggle to justify the significant time and financial investment required for data collection and model validation. Unlike qualitative methods, this approach necessitates precise historical data inputs, which frequently proves difficult to obtain, thereby creating a substantial barrier to effective implementation within enterprise risk management frameworks.

Why this answer

Quantitative risk analysis suffers from lack of reliable data and the complexity of modeling.

39
MCQhard

You are utilizing a quantitative risk analysis. What is the 'SLE' in the context of an ARO-based calculation?

A.Single Loss Expectancy
B.Security Loss Estimate
C.System Level Exposure
D.Serious Loss Evaluation
AnswerA

Single Loss Expectancy represents the monetary value expected from a single adverse event, serving as the foundational monetary baseline multiplied by the Annualised Rate of Occurrence in quantitative risk management. This specific metric directly satisfies the stem's constraint regarding an Annualised Rate of Occurrence-based calculation by providing the individual incident cost required to compute the final Annualised Loss Expectancy.

Why this answer

The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the monetary value of a single loss event.

40
Multi-Selecthard

A global retailer is expanding its risk management program to include third-party vendors. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned about supply chain risks. Which TWO of the following are the most effective controls to mitigate third-party risk? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Requiring vendors to use the organization's preferred cloud service provider.
B.Including right-to-audit clauses in all vendor contracts.
C.Transferring all third-party risk to the vendor through indemnification clauses.
D.Requiring all vendors to complete a security questionnaire before onboarding.
E.Conducting annual penetration testing of the vendor's external network.
AnswersB, D

Right-to-audit clauses give the organization the contractual authority to assess the vendor's security controls, either directly or through a third party. This is a critical detective and deterrent control that ensures ongoing compliance and provides a mechanism to verify risk mitigation. It is a best practice in third-party risk management frameworks.

Why this answer

The most effective controls to mitigate third-party risk are requiring a security questionnaire before onboarding and including right-to-audit clauses in contracts. The questionnaire provides an initial risk assessment, while right-to-audit clauses enable ongoing verification of the vendor's security controls. Together, they establish a preventive and detective framework that is standard in supply chain risk management.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that transferring risk through indemnification or dictating vendor technology eliminates the need for due diligence and monitoring, when in fact active oversight is essential.

41
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions are part of the 'Risk Monitoring' process?

Select 2 answers
A.Tracking Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)
B.Hiring new administrative assistants
C.Reviewing effectiveness of existing controls
D.Developing new software from scratch
E.Changing the company name
AnswersA, C

Tracking Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) serves as a primary mechanism for continuous surveillance within the risk monitoring process. By quantifying specific metrics, organisations can detect deviations from established risk appetites in real time. This satisfies the stem’s requirement for active oversight, as these indicators provide the necessary data points to trigger timely management interventions. Consequently, this practice enables security teams to maintain visibility over evolving threat landscapes, ensuring that risk controls remain effective against emerging vulnerabilities within the enterprise infrastructure.

Why this answer

Risk Monitoring is the ongoing process of tracking identified risks, watching for new risks, and evaluating how well risk responses are working, so option A (tracking Key Risk Indicators, or KRIs) is correct because KRIs are the defined metrics used to provide early warning that risk exposure is changing and to trigger escalation when thresholds are breached. Option C (reviewing effectiveness of existing controls) is also correct because Risk Monitoring includes assessing whether the controls and risk responses already in place continue to reduce risk to an acceptable level, which may lead to re-planning or corrective action. The remaining options do not belong: hiring administrative assistants (B) and developing new software from scratch (D) are operational or project-execution activities unrelated to monitoring risk, and changing the company name (E) is a branding decision with no bearing on tracking risks or evaluating controls.

Exam trap

ISC often tests the distinction between risk monitoring and other risk processes (identification, analysis, response planning) or general management activities, so candidates may incorrectly select operational tasks like hiring or software development as part of monitoring.

42
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE criteria are essential for establishing a successful 'Risk Committee'?

Select 3 answers
A.Limiting membership to only IT security staff
B.Conducting meetings at midnight for secrecy
C.Representation from multiple business units
D.Explicit mandate and authority from the board
E.Regular cadence of meetings and reporting
AnswersC, D, E

Cross-functional governance requires input from diverse operational domains to ensure comprehensive threat visibility and accountability. By mandating representation from multiple business units, this approach directly satisfies the organisational inclusion criterion necessary for enterprise-wide risk management. Without this diverse participation, the committee would lack the contextual awareness needed to identify operational vulnerabilities and would fail to establish authority across disparate technological and business silos.

Why this answer

A successful committee needs diverse perspectives, executive support, and a defined mandate.

43
MCQeasy

What is the primary objective of a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?

A.To calculate the cost of a data breach
B.To identify all system vulnerabilities
C.To determine the impact of disruptions on business operations
D.To configure firewalls for recovery
AnswerC

A Business Impact Analysis systematically evaluates the operational and financial consequences of a disruption to critical business functions. By identifying maximum tolerable downtime and recovery time objectives, it directly satisfies the primary constraint of the stem—determining the operational impact of potential outages. This quantitative and qualitative assessment enables organisations to prioritise recovery strategies based on the criticality of underlying IT assets and dependencies, aligning business continuity planning with organisational risk appetite.

Why this answer

The BIA identifies critical business processes and the impact of their disruption, which informs the BCP/DR plan.

44
MCQmedium

An enterprise is moving to a 'Zero Trust' architecture. How does this impact the risk assessment process?

A.It makes the risk assessment easier
B.It eliminates the need for risk assessment
C.It requires assessing risk at the resource and identity level
D.It only impacts physical security
AnswerC

Transitioning to a Zero Trust architecture dismantles traditional perimeter-based defences, necessitating a shift from network-segmentation risk evaluations to continuous evaluation based on explicit verification. This constraint requires organisations to assess risk at the granular resource and identity level, evaluating context such as user role, device health, and behavioural telemetry through platforms like Microsoft Entra ID before granting least-privilege access. Consequently, trust is never implicitly inherited from network location, ensuring risk assessments dynamically govern every individual micro-segment and session request.

Why this answer

Zero Trust shifts the focus from network perimeters to identity and device health, requiring a more granular, asset-centric risk assessment.

45
MCQmedium

A financial services firm uses a risk matrix with likelihood and impact scales. During a risk assessment, the team identifies a new vulnerability in a core banking application. The likelihood is rated as 'Possible' (3 on a 1-5 scale) and the impact as 'Major' (4 on a 1-5 scale). The organization's risk appetite statement says that risks with a score of 12 or higher require immediate treatment. What is the risk score and what action should be taken?

A.Risk score = 4; immediate treatment required.
B.Risk score = 12; immediate treatment required.
C.Risk score = 12; monitor but no immediate treatment.
D.Risk score = 7; no immediate action required.
AnswerB

Multiplying likelihood (3) by impact (4) yields a risk score of 12. The risk appetite statement specifies that scores of 12 or higher require immediate treatment. Therefore, the organization must treat this risk immediately. This calculation aligns with standard risk matrix methodology, where the product of likelihood and impact determines the overall risk level.

Why this answer

The correct answer is the product of likelihood and impact, which is 12. Since the risk appetite threshold is 12 or higher, immediate treatment is required. Risk matrices typically multiply the two factors to produce a risk score that reflects both probability and consequence.

Using addition or ignoring one factor would misrepresent the risk and could result in inappropriate risk responses.

Exam trap

The trap here is adding likelihood and impact instead of multiplying them, which yields a lower score and might incorrectly suggest that no immediate action is needed.

46
MCQeasy

Which document is the primary source for defining the 'Risk Appetite' of an enterprise?

A.Risk Appetite Statement
B.Security Policy
C.Business Impact Analysis
D.Incident Response Plan
AnswerA

The Risk Appetite Statement satisfies the stem's specific constraint as the definitive governance artifact that explicitly quantifies the boundary conditions and aggregate level of risk an organisation is willing to accept in pursuit of its strategic objectives. Unlike operational risk registers or technical vulnerability assessments that focus on tactical mitigation, this executive-level instrument establishes the immutable threshold parameters required by senior leadership to properly calibrate enterprise-wide governance, compliance, and strategic decision-making frameworks.

Why this answer

The Risk Appetite Statement is the foundational document authorized by the board/senior management.

47
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are considered 'Risk Assessment' methodologies?

Select 3 answers
A.NIST SP 800-30
B.FAIR (Factor Analysis of Information Risk)
C.HTML 5.0
D.TCP/IP protocol
E.ISO 27005
AnswersA, B, E

NIST SP 800-30 provides a structured framework for conducting risk assessments by detailing the process of identifying threats, vulnerabilities, and the likelihood of exploitation within an information system. It satisfies the requirement for a formalised risk assessment methodology by offering a systematic approach to quantifying risk through asset valuation and impact analysis. Organisations utilise these guidelines to standardise their security posture, ensuring that risk management activities align with federal standards while maintaining a repeatable process for evaluating potential operational threats.

Why this answer

Common risk assessment methodologies include NIST RMF, FAIR, and ISO 27005.

48
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are valid responses to a high-risk finding?

Select 2 answers
A.Ask the auditor to leave
B.Delete all enterprise data
C.Purchase insurance (Transference)
D.Implement compensating controls (Mitigation)
E.Ignore the finding until the next budget cycle
AnswersC, D

Transferring risk through insurance effectively addresses the high-risk finding by shifting the financial impact of a potential security breach to a third party. This mechanism satisfies the risk treatment constraint by reducing the organisation’s residual liability, which is essential when technical controls cannot fully mitigate the threat. By formalising this contractual arrangement, the business ensures that the economic consequences of a compromised system—such as those managed via Microsoft Entra ID—are shared, thereby aligning with standard risk management frameworks for handling unavoidable high-impact vulnerabilities.

Why this answer

Risk treatment options are generally to mitigate, transfer, avoid, or accept.

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