Courseiva

CCNA Risk Management Questions

39 questions · Risk Management · All types, answers revealed

1
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when an ISSEP identifies a high-risk vulnerability in a system that is currently in production?

A.Ignore the vulnerability until the next scheduled maintenance window.
B.Immediately shut down the system.
C.Fix the vulnerability immediately without informing anyone.
D.Document the vulnerability in the POA&M and coordinate a remediation plan with the system owner.
AnswerD

This is the standard RMF process for managing identified vulnerabilities.

Why this answer

The ISSEP must report the vulnerability to the system owner and the authorization official, then document it in the POA&M to track its remediation while managing the risk in the interim.

2
Multi-Selecthard

An ISSEP is assessing the security of a CI/CD pipeline. Which THREE of the following practices are crucial to ensure the security of the software supply chain?

Select 3 answers
A.Automated scanning of open-source dependencies for known vulnerabilities (SCA).
B.Ensuring all developers have administrative access to the production environment.
C.Allowing all developers to push directly to the production branch.
D.Digital signing of all build artifacts to ensure provenance and integrity.
E.Hardening the CI/CD build servers and restricting access.
AnswersA, D, E

Dependency management is critical in modern software development.

Why this answer

Securing the supply chain requires verifying code, managing dependencies, and ensuring that the build environment itself is hardened against tampering.

3
MCQhard

You are assessing a system that uses 'Homomorphic Encryption' for data processing. What is the primary operational trade-off the system designer must consider?

A.Increased security of data at rest.
B.Significant computational overhead and latency.
C.Incompatibility with standard database engines.
D.Complexity of key management.
AnswerB

This is the primary known limitation of currently available homomorphic encryption schemes.

Why this answer

Homomorphic encryption allows computation on encrypted data, but it is extremely resource-intensive, resulting in significant latency and performance overhead compared to processing unencrypted data.

4
MCQeasy

An organization is deploying a serverless architecture (AWS Lambda). How does the risk of patch management change compared to a traditional IaaS model?

A.Patch management of the underlying host OS is handled by the cloud provider.
B.Patch management complexity increases due to the number of functions.
C.The user must now use a specialized patching tool for the serverless platform.
D.The user is no longer responsible for any patching.
AnswerA

This is the primary security advantage of serverless computing architectures.

Why this answer

In serverless, the provider manages the underlying operating system and runtime patches, shifting the responsibility of patch management from the user to the provider, though the user still remains responsible for their code and configuration.

5
MCQhard

You are assessing an Engineered System that utilizes a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) for secure boot. A scan reveals that the firmware version is outdated and susceptible to a known key-injection vulnerability. Which action should the ISSEP prioritize?

A.Update the security policy to include manual verification of boot logs.
B.Configure an IDS to block unauthorized firmware update attempts.
C.Disable TPM-based secure boot until the vendor releases a patch.
D.Perform a firmware update using the manufacturer's signed secure update process.
AnswerD

Firmware updates are the only way to patch hardware-level vulnerabilities in the TPM/secure boot mechanism.

Why this answer

Firmware vulnerabilities involving the TPM and secure boot chain represent a fundamental compromise of the root of trust. Remediation must prioritize the update of the firmware to restore the integrity of the secure boot sequence.

6
MCQeasy

During a risk assessment of an industrial control system (ICS), the engineer identifies that an administrative workstation shares the same VLAN as the PLC network. Which remediation action is most effective from a risk management perspective?

A.Require MFA for workstation access.
B.Implement VLAN segmentation to isolate the workstation from the PLC network.
C.Install an antivirus on the workstation.
D.Disable all unused ports on the PLC network switch.
AnswerB

VLAN segmentation creates a logical boundary that prevents direct access and lateral movement.

Why this answer

Network segmentation, particularly by isolating critical control devices from general-purpose administrative workstations, is a foundational risk mitigation strategy in ICS security.

7
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is performing a system-level risk assessment on a cloud-native architecture using the NIST SP 800-37 RMF. During the 'Assess' step, the engineer identifies that an automated security configuration baseline is missing for the container orchestration layer. What is the most appropriate action to maintain RMF compliance?

A.Update the System Security Plan (SSP) to include the missing controls and implement the baseline via Infrastructure-as-Code (IaC) templates.
B.Modify the Security Assessment Plan (SAP) to exclude the container layer from the current assessment scope.
C.Proceed to authorization and defer the container baseline to the next Continuous Monitoring cycle.
D.Request a waiver from the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) for container orchestration security.
AnswerA

Updating documentation and implementing automated configuration management is the correct RMF workflow for remediation.

Why this answer

The RMF requires that security controls be implemented and documented. Identifying a missing baseline during the assessment phase necessitates updating the System Security Plan (SSP) and verifying the implementation of baseline controls before proceeding to the 'Authorize' step.

8
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is evaluating the risk of an API that uses basic authentication over HTTP. What is the most significant risk, and how should it be mitigated?

A.Denial of Service (DoS); mitigate by using a WAF.
B.API rate limiting; mitigate by adding a rate limiter.
C.Unauthorized data access; mitigate by using OAuth 2.0.
D.Credential interception; mitigate by upgrading to HTTPS/TLS.
AnswerD

HTTPS encrypts the communication channel, protecting the credentials.

Why this answer

Basic authentication sends credentials in cleartext; HTTP does not provide encryption. The risk is credential interception, and it must be mitigated by upgrading to HTTPS (TLS).

9
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are essential for protecting against 'Man-in-the-Middle' (MitM) attacks in a service-oriented architecture?

Select 3 answers
A.Storing all credentials in a plain-text configuration file.
B.Disabling all firewall rules between services to ensure performance.
C.Implementing certificate pinning to prevent the use of fraudulent certificates.
D.Enforcing mandatory TLS 1.3 for all service-to-service communication.
E.Using mutual authentication (mTLS) to verify both the client and server.
AnswersC, D, E

Pinning ensures that the client only accepts the expected server certificate.

Why this answer

MitM protection requires ensuring that the communication channel is encrypted (TLS), that the identity of the communicating parties is verified (mutual authentication), and that the certificate chain is trusted.

10
MCQhard

You are assessing an Engineered System that uses a micro-segmentation strategy to isolate workloads. An attacker has compromised a single container and is attempting to perform network reconnaissance. What mechanism should block this attempt?

A.Zero-trust network policies that enforce default-deny communication between containers.
B.Enabling flow logging on the network switches.
C.Host-based IPS (HIPS).
D.Implementing a web application firewall (WAF) at the edge.
AnswerA

Default-deny policies restrict communication and prevent lateral movement and reconnaissance.

Why this answer

Micro-segmentation uses policies to restrict communication between workloads, typically at the application or service level. Deny-all by default policies between containers would prevent reconnaissance.

11
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are key inputs for a quantitative risk analysis?

Select 2 answers
A.The qualitative ranking of threats (e.g., High, Medium, Low).
B.The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) of the asset.
C.The Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) of the threat.
D.A list of all potential security control vendors.
E.The subjective opinion of the IT staff.
AnswersB, C

SLE is a fundamental variable in the ALE calculation.

Why this answer

Quantitative risk analysis requires numerical data, specifically the value of the asset (Single Loss Expectancy) and the likelihood of the event (Annualized Rate of Occurrence).

12
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are critical for an effective 'Continuous Monitoring' (ConMon) program under RMF?

Select 2 answers
A.Manual inspection of every system component once per year.
B.Automated security scanning and log aggregation.
C.A complete cessation of all system updates.
D.Limiting the scope of monitoring to only the primary web server.
E.A defined process for reporting and remediating identified security weaknesses.
AnswersB, E

Automation is essential for scale and consistency in ConMon.

Why this answer

ConMon requires both the technical capability to detect changes/vulnerabilities and the organizational capability to respond to those findings in a timely manner.

13
MCQhard

You are evaluating the risk of an Artificial Intelligence (AI) model deployment. The model is susceptible to 'model inversion' attacks, where an attacker can reconstruct sensitive training data. What is the most effective engineering control to prevent this?

A.Encrypt the model weights at rest.
B.Implement rate limiting on the model's API.
C.Retrain the model on a smaller, obfuscated dataset.
D.Apply differential privacy techniques to the training process.
AnswerD

Differential privacy provides a mathematical guarantee against the reconstruction of individual data points.

Why this answer

Differential privacy adds statistical noise to the training data or the model's output, preventing the reconstruction of individual training samples while maintaining the model's overall utility.

14
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are essential components of a robust threat modeling process for an engineered system?

Select 2 answers
A.A detailed legal review of all contracts.
B.Creation of data flow diagrams (DFDs).
C.A complete inventory of all organizational personnel.
D.A list of all software vendors used by the organization.
E.The use of an established framework like STRIDE or PASTA.
AnswersB, E

DFDs are necessary to identify entry points and data paths.

Why this answer

Threat modeling requires understanding the system architecture (data flow diagrams) and identifying potential threats using established methodologies like STRIDE to systematically address risks.

15
Multi-Selecthard

An ISSEP is evaluating the security of an OT/ICS environment. Which THREE of the following are considered high-priority mitigation strategies to protect against common ICS cyber threats?

Select 3 answers
A.Implementing unidirectional gateways (data diodes) to isolate the control network.
B.Enforcing strict access control and MFA for all remote access to the ICS environment.
C.Replacing all legacy controllers with cloud-based instances.
D.Deploying standard IT-based patch management tools directly on all PLCs.
E.Disabling all unused physical ports and services on ICS controllers.
AnswersA, B, E

This ensures that traffic can only leave the control network, not enter it.

Why this answer

ICS security focuses on availability and integrity, requiring physical segmentation, secure remote access, and protecting the PLC/DCS controllers themselves from direct interference.

16
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is reviewing the 'Maintain' phase of the RMF for a system that has undergone a significant software update. What is the most critical activity to ensure that the system's security posture remains intact?

A.Conduct a Security Impact Analysis (SIA) to determine the extent of the changes.
B.Perform a full system penetration test.
C.Notify the system users of the update.
D.Update the system backup schedule.
AnswerA

The SIA is the formal RMF process for evaluating the impact of changes on the existing security controls.

Why this answer

Following a significant change, a re-assessment (or targeted assessment) is required to ensure that the security controls remain effective and that new vulnerabilities have not been introduced.

17
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is conducting a quantitative risk assessment for a mission-critical database. The Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is 0.5, and the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is $100,000. What is the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)?

A.$200,000
B.$50,000
C.$500,000
D.$100,000
AnswerB

This is the correct calculation of SLE * ARO.

Why this answer

The ALE is calculated by multiplying the SLE by the ARO (100,000 * 0.5 = 50,000).

18
MCQhard

You are analyzing a proprietary SCADA system's threat landscape. The system uses a non-standard protocol that prevents the use of traditional deep packet inspection (DPI) tools. Which method provides the most effective risk reduction?

A.Enforce physical network isolation using unidirectional security gateways to separate the control network from the enterprise network.
B.Replace the proprietary protocol with OPC-UA to enable standard security monitoring.
C.Implement a host-based firewall on the SCADA master station.
D.Deploy an intrusion detection system (IDS) that uses behavioral pattern matching.
AnswerA

Data diodes physically prevent data ingress, effectively mitigating network-based threats when DPI is not an option.

Why this answer

When protocol-specific inspection is impossible, network segmentation and the implementation of unidirectional security gateways (data diodes) provide the highest assurance of protecting critical control systems from external threat vectors.

19
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are acceptable ways to handle residual risk after implementing security controls in an RMF process?

Select 2 answers
A.Replace the entire system to eliminate the risk.
B.Transfer the risk via insurance or contractual arrangements.
C.Ignore the risk if it is below a certain threshold.
D.Accept the risk after documenting the decision and the potential impact.
E.Automate the assessment of the risk indefinitely.
AnswersB, D

Risk transfer is a valid risk management strategy.

Why this answer

Residual risk must be formally addressed by either the risk owner accepting it (based on analysis) or transferring it (e.g., insurance), as controls rarely eliminate all risk.

20
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is performing a supply chain risk assessment for an IOT-based sensor array. Which finding poses the highest systemic risk to the overall system integrity?

A.The sensor housing is not tamper-evident.
B.The sensors use an older version of Bluetooth.
C.The sensor firmware is not signed.
D.The vendor does not provide a Service Level Agreement (SLA).
AnswerC

Lack of code signing at the supply chain level is a critical vulnerability that allows malicious code to be executed on the system.

Why this answer

Supply chain integrity is compromised when the provenance of hardware or software cannot be verified, as this allows for the insertion of hardware Trojans or backdoors that bypass traditional security controls.

21
Multi-Selecthard

You are assessing an Engineered System that uses 'Hardware Security Modules' (HSM). Which THREE of the following are the most critical administrative risks to address in an HSM policy?

Select 3 answers
A.Only requiring a password for physical access to the HSM appliance.
B.Using the default vendor password for the HSM web UI.
C.Lack of audit logs for access to the HSM's administrative interface.
D.Insecure key ceremony procedures that could allow key material to be observed.
E.Lack of separation of duties for administrative tasks (e.g., one person having full access).
AnswersC, D, E

Without logs, there is no accountability for administrative actions.

Why this answer

HSM administration requires strict separation of duties, secure key ceremony procedures, and robust auditing to prevent insider threats from accessing the root keys.

22
MCQeasy

An engineering team is designing a new cloud infrastructure. To ensure the system complies with FIPS 140-3, which action must the ISSEP verify during the design phase?

A.That the system uses TLS 1.3 for data in transit.
B.That the cloud management console uses Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA).
C.That all cryptographic modules utilized by the system are FIPS 140-3 validated.
D.That the cloud provider's storage is encrypted at rest.
AnswerC

This is the core requirement of FIPS 140-3 compliance for an engineered system.

Why this answer

FIPS 140-3 certification is specific to the cryptographic modules used within the system. The ISSEP must ensure that all cryptographic operations are handled by modules validated to this standard.

23
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is reviewing the risk of data residency for a system. Why is data residency a significant factor in a cloud-based risk assessment?

A.Cloud storage is inherently slower in some regions.
B.Cloud providers do not allow the choice of storage location.
C.Legal and regulatory frameworks may mandate that sensitive data be stored within specific jurisdictions.
D.Data residency is only applicable to on-premises systems.
AnswerC

Compliance with regional laws is a critical business and risk management requirement.

Why this answer

Data residency requirements often dictate that data must remain within specific geographic boundaries to comply with legal/regulatory obligations (e.g., GDPR, local laws), making it a significant compliance risk.

24
MCQmedium

Which of the following is the most important document for an ISSEP to review when starting a risk assessment for a new system to ensure that all security requirements are captured?

A.The vendor's marketing materials.
B.The project budget.
C.The System Security Plan (SSP).
D.The organizational chart.
AnswerC

The SSP is the master document detailing the controls and requirements for the system.

Why this answer

The System Requirements Specification (SRS) or the System Security Plan (SSP) (if in progress) captures the functional and non-functional requirements, including those for security, providing the foundation for the assessment.

25
MCQeasy

During the RMF process, which document serves as the primary record for the security controls selected and their implementation status?

A.The System Security Plan (SSP).
B.The Plan of Action and Milestones (POA&M).
C.The Authorization to Operate (ATO) letter.
D.The Risk Assessment Report (RAR).
E.The Security Assessment Plan (SAP).
AnswerA

The SSP is the authoritative document for control implementation and status.

Why this answer

The System Security Plan (SSP) is the core document that details the security control selection, tailoring, and implementation status for a system under the RMF.

26
MCQhard

You are assessing a system that uses machine learning for fraud detection. The system is experiencing 'concept drift'. What is the risk, and how should it be managed?

A.The risk is model poisoning; manage by sanitizing the training data.
B.The risk is model inversion; manage by adding differential privacy.
C.The risk is model inaccuracy; manage by monitoring performance metrics and retraining.
D.The risk is a data breach; manage by encrypting the dataset.
AnswerC

Drift degrades effectiveness, requiring ongoing maintenance and retraining.

Why this answer

Concept drift occurs when the statistical properties of the target variable change over time, rendering the model inaccurate. It must be managed through continuous monitoring and periodic model retraining.

27
MCQhard

You are assessing a system that uses hardware security modules (HSM) for signing code. An attacker is attempting a 'side-channel' attack on the HSM. Which mitigation strategy should be implemented to protect the signing keys?

A.Implement a dual-factor authentication requirement for HSM access.
B.Implement constant-time cryptographic algorithms to eliminate timing signatures.
C.Increase the length of the RSA keys.
D.Use a larger number of HSMs in a cluster.
AnswerB

Constant-time algorithms remove the variability that attackers use for side-channel analysis.

Why this answer

Side-channel attacks often rely on power consumption or timing differences during cryptographic operations. Implementing constant-time algorithms and power-smoothing circuits within the HSM environment helps mask these signals.

28
Multi-Selecthard

An ISSEP is assessing the risk of a system that uses 'Secrets Management' services (e.g., HashiCorp Vault). Which THREE of the following are best practices for securing the secrets themselves?

Select 3 answers
A.Enforcing short-lived, dynamically generated credentials.
B.Enforcing the principle of least privilege for secret access.
C.Implementing robust auditing of all secret access attempts.
D.Using a single, static password for all administrative access.
E.Hardcoding the master recovery key in the application source code.
AnswersA, B, C

Dynamic secrets expire, limiting the impact of a potential breach.

Why this answer

Secrets management relies on strong access control, secure delivery, and the ability to rotate credentials to limit the window of opportunity for attackers.

29
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a primary objective of a 'System-Level Risk Assessment'?

A.To conduct a full penetration test of the entire enterprise.
B.To determine the risk level and prioritize the implementation of security controls.
C.To replace all security controls with newer technology.
D.To eliminate all risks to the system.
AnswerB

This is the core purpose of a risk assessment.

Why this answer

The primary objective is to identify and document the risks to a specific system, helping stakeholders make informed decisions about risk acceptance and mitigation.

30
MCQhard

A system uses a hardware-based root of trust (RoT) for verifying code execution. An attacker has managed to perform a 'fault injection' attack to bypass the verification. What is the most effective hardware-level defense?

A.Improve the software verification logic.
B.Increase the frequency of the RoT verification checks.
C.Add environmental sensors and hardened circuitry to detect and respond to fault injection attempts.
D.Implement a stronger hash algorithm for code signing.
AnswerC

Physical hardening is the correct defense against physical fault injection attacks.

Why this answer

Fault injection (like voltage or clock glitching) targets the physical hardware during verification. Hardening the hardware against these physical disturbances (e.g., adding sensors to detect voltage spikes) is the appropriate defense.

31
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following statements are true regarding the relationship between the System Security Plan (SSP) and the Plan of Action and Milestones (POA&M)?

Select 2 answers
A.The SSP identifies the controls to be implemented.
B.The SSP and POA&M are the same document.
C.The POA&M tracks the remediation of security gaps identified during the assessment.
D.The POA&M replaces the need for an SSP.
E.The SSP only needs to be updated when the system is decommissioned.
AnswersA, C

The SSP is the baseline requirement document.

Why this answer

The SSP defines the target security posture, while the POA&M tracks the remediation of items that fall short of that target (gaps). They work together to represent the security status of the system.

32
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is reviewing the security architecture for a system that handles PII. The system uses a centralized database for PII storage. What is the primary risk associated with this design pattern?

A.Incompatibility with cloud-based storage.
B.Increased latency for data retrieval.
C.Difficulty in performing data backups.
D.Increased risk of data exposure through a single point of compromise.
AnswerD

Centralization inherently increases the impact of a successful breach.

Why this answer

A centralized database creates a 'single point of failure' (or 'single point of compromise'), where an attacker gaining access to the database potentially compromises all stored PII at once.

33
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are common pitfalls when tailoring security controls in an RMF implementation?

Select 2 answers
A.Tailoring controls without documenting the security justification.
B.Over-tailoring controls to the point of compromising the system's baseline security.
C.Using the NIST 800-53 catalog to select controls.
D.Consulting with the System Owner during the tailoring process.
E.Including too many controls, which is always acceptable.
AnswersA, B

Documentation is a mandatory RMF requirement for tailoring.

Why this answer

Tailoring must be justified and documented. Pitfalls include excessive tailoring (reducing security too much) or lack of justification, which both undermine the compliance posture.

34
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is reviewing a cloud-based application that uses a multi-factor authentication (MFA) provider. The provider experiences an outage, and the system is configured to 'fail-open'. What is the security risk?

A.The security control is bypassed, allowing unauthorized access.
B.The system's performance will decrease.
C.The MFA provider will charge extra fees.
D.The system will be inaccessible to users.
AnswerA

Fail-open is a security failure when availability is prioritized over integrity/confidentiality.

Why this answer

A 'fail-open' configuration means that when a security control (MFA) is unavailable, the system grants access anyway, effectively bypassing the security requirement and creating a critical vulnerability.

35
MCQeasy

During a system engineering project, an ISSEP discovers that a vendor-provided API lacks robust authentication. Which risk management strategy is best suited for this vulnerability when the API cannot be updated by the development team?

A.Accept the risk because the API is internal-facing.
B.Disable the API entirely.
C.Encapsulate the API behind an authenticated API gateway that enforces OAuth 2.0.
D.Monitor API logs for suspicious activity.
AnswerC

The API gateway acts as a security proxy, effectively shielding the vulnerable legacy API.

Why this answer

In engineering, when a component is inherently vulnerable, compensating controls like API gateways that perform authentication and authorization can effectively mitigate the risk without modifying the legacy component.

36
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is conducting a risk assessment for a system that will be hosted in a multi-tenant cloud environment. Which risk is unique to the multi-tenancy model?

A.Risk of cross-tenant data leakage via side-channel attacks.
B.Risk of unauthorized access by the cloud provider's employees.
C.Difficulty in performing system backups.
D.Risk of data loss due to provider bankruptcy.
AnswerA

Side-channel attacks are a primary risk in shared resource environments.

Why this answer

The 'noisy neighbor' or cross-tenant data leakage risk is inherent to multi-tenant architectures where shared hardware/hypervisor resources could potentially be exploited to access data from another tenant.

37
MCQhard

You are designing an embedded system for a medical device. The device needs to store encryption keys securely. The hardware does not support a dedicated HSM or TPM. What is the most robust software-based alternative to protect these keys?

A.Use a password-based derivation function (PBKDF2) to store the keys.
B.Store the keys in a hardcoded configuration file.
C.Store the keys in the system's non-volatile memory (NVM) with XOR masking.
D.Utilize a TEE (e.g., ARM TrustZone) to isolate keys and perform cryptographic operations.
AnswerD

A TEE provides a hardware-isolated environment that protects keys even if the main OS is compromised.

Why this answer

In the absence of dedicated hardware, an obfuscated key store with a Trusted Execution Environment (TEE) or encrypted key wrapping utilizing a unique hardware-derived ID is the most secure software-centric approach.

38
Multi-Selecthard

You are assessing an Engineered System for cloud-native vulnerabilities. Which THREE of the following are common misconfigurations in containerized environments that an ISSEP should identify?

Select 3 answers
A.Enforcing non-root execution for all production images.
B.Running the container process as the 'root' user.
C.Using the default 'latest' tag for container images in production.
D.Exposing the Docker socket (/var/run/docker.sock) to the container.
E.Implementing a read-only filesystem for the container.
AnswersB, C, D

Running as root allows container escapes to compromise the host OS.

Why this answer

Common container security issues include running as root, insecure communication between containers, and exposing management interfaces unnecessarily.

39
MCQmedium

An ISSEP is performing a threat assessment for a mobile application. What is the biggest risk when using hardcoded API keys for third-party services within the app code?

A.Increased latency for API calls.
B.Easy extraction of keys through reverse engineering the binary.
C.The keys will expire too quickly.
D.The app will crash when the API is unavailable.
AnswerB

This is a classic vulnerability in mobile app development.

Why this answer

Hardcoded keys are easily extractable via reverse engineering the app binary, leading to unauthorized use of the third-party services and potential compromise of the developer's account.

Ready to test yourself?

Try a timed practice session using only Risk Management questions.