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CCNA Infrastructure And System Security Questions

54 questions · Infrastructure And System Security · All types, answers revealed

1
MCQhard

You are designing a Zero Trust architecture in AWS. You need to implement micro-segmentation for a set of EC2 instances running a web application. Which AWS feature provides the most granular control over traffic flow between specific instances within the same VPC subnet?

A.Security Groups
B.AWS PrivateLink
C.AWS Transit Gateway Route Tables
D.Network Access Control Lists (NACLs)
AnswerA

Security Groups are stateful, instance-level virtual firewalls whose rules reference other security groups, enabling allow-list control between specific EC2 instances rather than whole subnets. This delivers the granular micro-segmentation the scenario demands within a single VPC subnet.

Why this answer

Security Groups are stateful and provide instance-level (interface-level) filtering, making them the appropriate tool for micro-segmentation within a subnet.

2
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are essential for protecting against SQL Injection?

Select 2 answers
A.Using dynamic SQL building in code.
B.Using parameterized queries (prepared statements).
C.Disabling error logging entirely.
D.Validating and sanitizing all user inputs.
E.Running the database as root.
AnswersB, D

Parameterized queries cleanly separate SQL code from user-supplied data, satisfying the requirement to protect against SQL Injection. When using prepared statements, the database engine compiles the SQL structure first, treating any input values strictly as parameters rather than executable code. This fundamental architectural constraint prevents malicious input from altering the query logic, effectively neutralizing injection attempts even if the input contains rogue SQL syntax.

Why this answer

Prepared statements and input validation are the primary defenses against SQLi.

3
MCQeasy

Which security measure is most effective at preventing unauthorized access to a physical data center?

A.Layered physical access controls.
B.Complex password requirements.
C.A robust firewall configuration.
D.Implementing an EDR solution.
AnswerA

Deploying multiple, independent security barriers such as perimeter fencing, biometric mantraps, and smart-card turnstiles satisfies the constraint of absolute prevention against sophisticated, determined physical intrusion. Relying on a single perimeter checkpoint creates a single point of failure that an adversary can bypass through tailgating or coercion. Integrating heterogeneous authorization mechanisms—requiring distinct authentication factors and physical validation steps at progressive zones—maximises dwell time, ensures continuous verification, and effectively neutralises unauthorised access attempts before critical computing assets are compromised.

Why this answer

Layered physical security (e.g., mantraps, badge access, surveillance) provides the most comprehensive defense for physical infrastructure.

4
MCQeasy

Which protocol should be prioritized when designing a secure logging infrastructure to prevent log tampering?

A.Cleartext HTTP.
B.UDP Syslog.
C.TLS-encrypted logging stream.
D.SNMP v1.
AnswerC

Transport Layer Security (TLS) encryption directly satisfies the requirement to prevent log tampering in transit by establishing a cryptographically secured tunnel between the log source and the collector. This mechanism guarantees message integrity through keyed message authentication codes and prevents adversarial eavesdropping or active man-in-the-middle modification before logs reach immutable storage. By enforcing strict cipher suite negotiation and optional mutual certificate authentication, this approach ensures that telemetry data cannot be intercepted, altered, or injected by unauthorised actors along the transmission path.

Why this answer

Syslog-ng or TLS-based transport ensures that logs are encrypted in transit and can be digitally signed to prevent tampering by an attacker.

5
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE of the following are common network security architecture tools?

Select 3 answers
A.Intrusion Detection System (IDS).
B.VPN.
C.Firewall.
D.Unencrypted Telnet.
E.Cleartext FTP server.
AnswersA, B, C

An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) operates as a foundational network security architecture tool by passively monitoring network traffic and analysing packet payloads or header anomalies against known attack signatures and baseline behavioural thresholds. This passive monitoring mechanism satisfies the core architectural constraint of providing deep visibility into transit traffic without introducing latency or becoming a single point of failure for inline traffic blocking, allowing security analysts to detect malicious activities and policy violations efficiently.

Why this answer

Firewalls, IDS/IPS, and VPNs are foundational components of a secure network architecture.

6
MCQeasy

What is the primary security goal of an 'Air-Gapped' network segment?

A.To increase network bandwidth.
B.To simplify patch management.
C.To eliminate the possibility of remote network-based exploitation.
D.To improve log collection.
AnswerC

Physical isolation is the definitive security mechanism satisfying the air-gapped constraint, completely severing any physical or wireless link to external networks. By ensuring zero common pathways with the internet or adjacent systems, this absolute topological separation prevents any threat actor from establishing a remote command channel or executing network-based exploits. Without physical transmission media or protocol interfaces available externally, malicious traffic cannot traverse the boundary, protecting highly sensitive environments from remote cyber attacks.

Why this answer

Total physical isolation ensures that no network traffic can enter or leave the segment, protecting critical systems from remote attacks.

7
MCQhard

You are auditing a serverless architecture and find that functions are configured to use 'Public' network access. What is the biggest risk?

A.Higher cost of execution.
B.Inability to use environment variables.
C.Exposure of the function's endpoint to the public internet.
D.Increased latency.
AnswerC

Configuring serverless functions with public network access directly exposes their HTTP endpoints to the public internet, satisfying the stem's vulnerability condition by bypassing network-level perimeter controls. This configuration assigns a public IP address or routable URL, permitting any external client to invoke the function directly without traversing a virtual network gateway, private endpoint, or internal load balancer. Consequently, the attack surface expands significantly, inviting unauthenticated probes, distributed denial-of-service attacks, and potential exploitation of underlying application logic vulnerabilities that would otherwise remain shielded behind a secure enterprise perimeter.

Why this answer

When a serverless function is configured with 'Public' network access, its invocation endpoint (e.g., an AWS Lambda Function URL or API Gateway route with no authorizer) is reachable from any internet host without authentication or network-layer restriction. This directly expands the attack surface, allowing unauthenticated actors to invoke the function, probe for input-validation flaws, or abuse downstream permissions granted to the function's execution role. The core risk is therefore endpoint exposure, not performance or configuration limitations.

Exam trap

The trap here is conflating 'public network access' with operational concerns like cost or latency; ISC-style questions test whether you recognize that public exposure is a confidentiality and attack-surface issue, not a performance one.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because network access mode does not change the billing model — serverless pricing is based on invocations, duration, and provisioned concurrency, not on whether the endpoint is public or private. Option B is wrong because environment variables are a runtime configuration feature available regardless of network access setting; public access does not disable them. Option D is wrong because latency is determined by cold starts, VPC attachment, and downstream calls, not by whether the endpoint is publicly reachable.

8
MCQhard

A security engineer is hardening a Linux system. Which kernel-level feature should be used to restrict processes so that even if they are compromised, they cannot access unauthorized files?

A.Sudoers file.
B.SELinux (Mandatory Access Control).
C.Standard Linux Permissions (rwx).
D.Cgroups.
AnswerB

Security-Enhanced Linux implements Mandatory Access Control by enforcing fine-grained security policies that govern every process and file interaction based on labels. Unlike discretionary models, this kernel-level framework ensures that even a compromised process remains confined to its assigned security context, effectively preventing unauthorised access to system resources. By restricting subjects to only the specific operations defined within the security policy, it satisfies the requirement to isolate processes and maintain system integrity despite potential vulnerabilities within individual applications.

Why this answer

SELinux implements Mandatory Access Control (MAC), where the kernel enforces a system-wide policy that confines processes (domains) to only the resources (types) they are explicitly allowed to access, even if the process runs as root. This means a compromised process cannot read or write unauthorized files because the kernel denies access based on policy, not on user identity. This is the kernel-level confinement feature designed for exactly this scenario.

Exam trap

The trap is conflating access-control mechanisms — candidates may pick standard permissions or sudoers, but only SELinux (MAC) provides kernel-enforced confinement that survives a root compromise.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the sudoers file controls which users can run which commands with elevated privileges — it governs privilege delegation, not runtime confinement of already-running processes. Option C is wrong because standard Linux permissions (rwx) are Discretionary Access Control (DAC) based on user/group ownership; a compromised root process can bypass them entirely. Option D is wrong because cgroups limit and isolate resource usage (CPU, memory, I/O) but do not restrict which files a process can access.

9
MCQhard

A security architect is designing an authentication flow for a distributed system. Which method provides the best defense against replay attacks?

A.Using IP-based restriction.
B.Using short-lived tokens with nonces.
C.Using long-lived API keys.
D.Enabling HTTPS for all traffic.
AnswerB

Combining short-lived tokens with nonces satisfies the strict requirement for robust defence against replay attacks in a distributed system. Expiry timestamps severely limit the time window during which an intercepted token remains valid, while cryptographically random nonces ensure that every authentication attempt is entirely unique. This dual approach prevents an attacker from successfully retransmitting previously captured authentication payloads across distributed verification nodes, mitigating interception risks without requiring stateful session tracking.

Why this answer

Using a nonce or a short-lived token with a timestamp ensures that each authentication request is unique and can only be processed once.

10
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are indicators of a potential system compromise?

Select 3 answers
A.Normal user logons.
B.Unexpected outbound network traffic.
C.Scheduled system backups.
D.Unusual login times or locations.
E.Unauthorized modification of system files.
AnswersB, D, E

Unexpected outbound network traffic serves as a primary indicator of compromise because compromised endpoints frequently communicate with external command and control (C2) infrastructure or exfiltrate sensitive data to unauthorised external hosts. By continuously monitoring egress points for anomalous connection volumes, destination IP reputations, or non-standard port usage, security teams can effectively detect covert exfiltration attempts and malicious beaconing activity that violate baseline organisational network access policies.

Why this answer

Unusual login times, unauthorized file modification, and unexpected network traffic are common indicators of compromise (IoC).

11
MCQmedium

A company is implementing database encryption at rest. What is the most secure way to handle the master encryption keys?

A.Encrypt the keys with a password and store them in the database.
B.Hardcode keys into the application environment variables.
C.Store keys in a configuration file on the database server.
D.Use a Hardware Security Module (HSM).
AnswerD

Hardware Security Modules (HSMs) provide tamper-resistant cryptographic processing and dedicated physical security boundaries that protect master keys from OS-level vulnerabilities and physical theft, satisfying the stringent confidentiality and integrity constraints required for database encryption at rest. By isolating key generation, storage, and cryptographic operations within a certified hardware appliance, HSMs prevent unauthorized extraction of the root of trust, ensuring that even privileged administrators cannot access plain-text keys.

Why this answer

Using a FIPS 140-2 Level 3 Hardware Security Module (HSM) ensures that the master keys are never exposed in plaintext and are protected by tamper-evident hardware.

12
MCQmedium

You are configuring an F5 BIG-IP LTM (Local Traffic Manager). You need to terminate SSL/TLS connections at the load balancer to inspect decrypted traffic before forwarding it to the backend web servers. Which object must you configure?

A.Server SSL Profile
B.Client SSL Profile
C.SNAT Pool
D.iRule
AnswerB

A Client SSL Profile holds the certificate and key used to terminate inbound TLS sessions on the BIG-IP virtual server. Configuring it enables decryption at the load balancer, satisfying the requirement to inspect plaintext traffic before forwarding it to backend web servers.

Why this answer

A Client SSL profile is required on the Virtual Server to handle the decryption of traffic from the client.

13
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are core principles of a Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA)?

Select 3 answers
A.Trust all internal network traffic.
B.Use static, long-lived access tokens.
C.Always verify explicitly.
D.Assume breach.
E.Use least privileged access.
AnswersC, D, E

Authenticating and authorising requests based on all available data points—including user identity, location, device health, service or workload, data classification, and anomalies—satisfies the core Zero Trust constraint of continuous explicit verification. Rather than relying on a perimeter-based implicit trust assumption, systems must evaluate context dynamically for every access request, utilising policy engines integrated with identity providers such as Microsoft Entra ID to enforce least-privilege access across the entire architecture.

Why this answer

Zero Trust relies on explicit verification, least privilege, and assuming breach, rather than perimeter-based defense.

14
MCQeasy

Which mechanism is best suited for securing internal web traffic using mutual authentication at the TLS layer?

A.OAuth 2.0 Client Credentials flow.
B.HTTP Basic Authentication over HTTPS.
C.IP address filtering on the load balancer.
D.Mutual TLS (mTLS) with client certificates.
AnswerD

Mutual TLS (mTLS) with client certificates directly satisfies the core constraint of securing internal web traffic using mutual authentication at the Transport Layer Security (TLS) layer. By enforcing cryptographic validation of both the client and the server during the TLS handshake, this mechanism ensures that internal services can verify each other's identities before establishing a session. This cryptographic verification operates natively within the transport layer, providing robust, unalterable zero-trust access control without requiring application-layer credential prompts or session tokens.

Why this answer

Mutual TLS (mTLS) requires both the client and the server to present valid X.509 certificates, proving the identity of both parties.

15
MCQhard

An organization is migrating to a serverless architecture. Which security control is most effective at preventing 'Insecure Serverless Function Configuration' attacks?

A.Monitor CloudWatch logs for abnormal function execution.
B.Enable runtime application self-protection (RASP).
C.Implement CI/CD pipeline security and IaC scanning.
D.Regularly rotate the function's execution role.
AnswerC

Implementing CI/CD pipeline security and Infrastructure as Code (IaC) scanning directly addresses the misconfiguration vector cited in the stem by statically analysing templates before deployment. This technical control intercepts flawed definitions—such as overly permissive IAM roles, exposed environment variables, or missing function timeouts—at the build stage. By automating compliance checks within the deployment workflow, it prevents vulnerable serverless function configurations from ever reaching the runtime environment, satisfying the proactive governance constraint required for secure serverless architectures.

Why this answer

Using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) scanning tools to audit function configurations before deployment ensures that least privilege and networking are correctly applied.

16
MCQhard

You are implementing DNS Security (DNSSEC). What is the primary benefit of this implementation?

A.It verifies the integrity and origin of DNS responses.
B.It hides DNS queries from ISP monitoring.
C.It prevents DDoS attacks against DNS servers.
D.It increases the speed of DNS resolution.
AnswerA

DNSSEC addresses the fundamental vulnerability of standard DNS by utilising digital signatures based on public-key cryptography to authenticate data. By attaching Resource Record Signatures (RRSIG) to DNS records, it allows resolvers to verify that the information originated from the authorised zone owner and has not been altered in transit. This cryptographic validation satisfies the requirement for ensuring data integrity and origin authenticity, effectively mitigating cache poisoning and man-in-the-middle attacks that compromise traditional, unauthenticated DNS lookups.

Why this answer

DNSSEC provides cryptographic authentication of DNS data, preventing DNS spoofing and cache poisoning attacks by verifying that records have not been modified.

17
MCQmedium

An organization is deploying an EDR solution across their endpoints. To ensure maximum visibility without crashing legacy applications, what is the best deployment strategy?

A.Push a mass deployment with blocking enabled immediately.
B.Deploy to a pilot group in 'Audit Mode' first.
C.Manually install the agent on every endpoint.
D.Exempt all legacy applications from EDR monitoring.
AnswerB

Deploying in 'Audit Mode' allows the EDR agent to monitor system calls and process behaviours without enforcing blocking policies, thereby satisfying the constraint of preventing crashes in legacy applications. This strategy provides visibility into potential compatibility conflicts within a controlled pilot group before full-scale implementation. By observing how the agent interacts with sensitive legacy processes, administrators can fine-tune exclusion rules and security policies, ensuring operational stability across the environment while maintaining the robust threat detection capabilities required for modern endpoint protection.

Why this answer

Phased rollout starting with 'Audit Mode' allows the organization to baseline behavior and identify potential conflicts before enforcing blocking actions.

18
MCQhard

You are architecting a cloud-based application that needs to share secrets between two different cloud environments (AWS and Azure). What is the most secure way to exchange credentials?

A.Use OIDC federation between cloud providers.
B.Email the credentials to the other team.
C.Use a shared S3 bucket to store keys.
D.Hardcode credentials in both environments.
AnswerA

OpenID Connect (OIDC) federation establishes a trust relationship between AWS and Microsoft Entra ID, satisfying the cross-environment constraint without requiring long-lived static credentials or hardcoded keys. By leveraging short-lived JSON Web Tokens (JWTs) issued by Microsoft Entra ID and validated directly by AWS Security Token Service (STS), workloads can securely assume temporary roles. This eliminates the operational risk of credential leakage across cloud boundaries and avoids storing secrets within the application configuration, aligning with zero-trust architectural principles.

Why this answer

Using a federation-based approach with an identity provider that supports OIDC (OpenID Connect) allows for secure, temporary, and audited credential exchange without storing static long-lived keys.

19
Multi-Selecthard

You are deploying a Zero Trust architecture for a remote workforce. Which THREE of the following technologies should be implemented to effectively enforce granular access control at the application layer?

Select 3 answers
A.Traditional VPN
B.Network Perimeter Firewall
C.Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC)
D.Identity-Aware Proxy (IAP)
E.Micro-segmentation
AnswersC, D, E

Policy-Based Access Control enables the granular access control required for a remote workforce by evaluating dynamic attributes—such as device health, geolocation, and user risk—rather than relying solely on static roles. By integrating these contextual variables into the authorisation decision, organisations can enforce precise, least-privilege policies at the application layer. When managed through Microsoft Entra ID, this mechanism ensures that access is continuously validated against real-time security constraints, effectively mitigating risks associated with remote connections to sensitive corporate resources.

Why this answer

Micro-segmentation, Identity-Aware Proxy (IAP), and Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC) are pillars of modern Zero Trust architecture.

20
Multi-Selecthard

A security architect is hardening a Linux-based server environment. Which TWO of the following kernel-level security modules should be configured to enforce mandatory access control?

Select 2 answers
A.AppArmor
B.iptables
C.SELinux
D.Auditd
E.PAM
AnswersA, C

AppArmor satisfies the requirement for mandatory access control by utilising path-based labels to restrict program capabilities. By associating security profiles with specific executable files, it enforces granular constraints on system resources, such as file access, network sockets, and capabilities. This kernel-level enforcement mechanism ensures that processes operate within defined security boundaries, effectively mitigating the risk of unauthorised actions and privilege escalation, which is essential when hardening a Linux-based server environment against potential threats.

Why this answer

SELinux and AppArmor are the two industry-standard Linux kernel security modules that enforce mandatory access control (MAC).

21
MCQmedium

You are configuring a load balancer for a secure web application. Which setting ensures that cookies are protected?

A.Enabling HTTP/2.
B.Increasing cookie expiration time.
C.Disabling session persistence.
D.Setting the 'Secure' and 'HttpOnly' flags.
AnswerD

Enabling the 'Secure' flag ensures the browser only transmits cookies over encrypted HTTPS connections, preventing interception during transit. Simultaneously, the 'HttpOnly' flag restricts client-side script access to the cookie, mitigating cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks that attempt to exfiltrate session tokens. By implementing both, you satisfy the requirement to protect cookies within a secure web application, reinforcing the overall security posture alongside identity management solutions like Microsoft Entra ID. This dual-layered approach effectively hardens session management against common network and application-level vulnerabilities.

Why this answer

The 'Secure' and 'HttpOnly' flags prevent cookies from being sent over unencrypted connections and restrict access via client-side scripts, mitigating XSS.

22
MCQhard

In a VMware NSX-T environment, you need to implement a 'Distributed Firewall' (DFW) policy that separates traffic based on the application tier regardless of which ESXi host the VM is running on. What is the primary object used to achieve this logical grouping?

A.VLAN ID
B.NSX Groups
C.Logical Switch Port ID
D.Physical NIC MAC Address
AnswerB

NSX Groups aggregate VMs by logical criteria such as tags, segments, or VM names, independent of ESXi host location. Distributed Firewall rules reference these groups, so tier-based separation persists regardless of where workloads run, satisfying the stem's host-independent requirement.

Why this answer

NSX-T Distributed Firewall policies are applied to NSX Groups, which are logical containers of VMs defined by dynamic criteria such as tags, VM names, or security groups. Because DFW enforcement happens at the vNIC level on each ESXi host, grouping by NSX Groups allows consistent tier-based rules (e.g., web, app, db) regardless of physical host placement. This decouples security policy from network topology.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming network identifiers (VLAN, port ID, MAC) are used for DFW grouping — candidates must recognize that NSX-T uses logical NSX Groups (often tag-based) to achieve host-independent micro-segmentation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because VLAN IDs are Layer 2 constructs tied to physical network segments; they do not provide host-independent logical grouping and would require VMs to be on the same VLAN, defeating the purpose. Option C is wrong because a Logical Switch Port ID identifies a specific port on a logical switch, not an application tier — it is too granular and not used for DFW policy grouping. Option D is wrong because a physical NIC MAC address is a hardware identifier tied to a specific host, which is exactly the kind of physical dependency NSX-T is designed to abstract away.

23
MCQmedium

A developer needs to store sensitive secrets for an application. Which approach is considered the industry standard for cloud environments?

A.Using a cloud provider's Secret Management service.
B.Hardcoding them in a secure configuration file.
C.Storing them in Git using an encrypted file.
D.Passing them as command-line arguments at runtime.
AnswerA

Leveraging a cloud-native secret management service satisfies the requirement for secure, centralised storage of sensitive credentials by offloading the burden of encryption and rotation from the application code. These services utilise hardware security modules to protect secrets at rest, while integrating with identity providers like Microsoft Entra ID to enforce granular, role-based access control. This mechanism ensures that secrets are never hardcoded, thereby mitigating the risk of credential exposure and enabling automated auditing of every access request within the cloud environment.

Why this answer

Using a dedicated secret management service (e.g., AWS Secrets Manager, Azure Key Vault) allows for secure storage, automatic rotation, and granular access control.

24
MCQmedium

Which feature is essential for protecting against 'Credential Stuffing' attacks on an enterprise authentication portal?

A.Limiting the password character set.
B.Implementing Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA).
C.Increasing the session timeout.
D.Implementing a strong password policy.
AnswerB

Multi-Factor Authentication directly neutralises credential stuffing attacks by introducing an out-of-band verification constraint that automated credential-replay scripts cannot satisfy. Even when an adversary successfully mass-automates valid stolen username and password pairs gathered from credential dumps, the authentication portal requires a secondary dynamic token—such as a time-based one-time password or cryptographic push notification—which the automated bot lacks. This forces the adversary to fail the login attempt because the stolen static credentials alone are insufficient to grant enterprise access.

Why this answer

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) is the most effective defense against credential stuffing because compromised passwords alone are insufficient to gain access.

25
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are key requirements for securing a container orchestrator like Kubernetes?

Select 2 answers
A.Exposing the Kube API to the public internet.
B.Running all pods with root privileges.
C.Implementing Network Policies to restrict pod communication.
D.Disabling RBAC.
E.Securing the etcd datastore with encryption.
AnswersC, E

Implementing Network Policies satisfies the container orchestrator security requirement for micro-segmentation by enforcing layer 3 and 4 traffic controls at the pod level. Using label selectors and namespace isolation, these policies act as a distributed firewall within the cluster, preventing lateral movement if a single container is compromised. This ensures that pods can only communicate with authorised services, effectively neutralising the default flat networking model of Kubernetes and satisfying the core need to restrict inter-pod traffic.

Why this answer

Securing Kubernetes requires protecting the control plane and enforcing isolation through policies.

26
MCQmedium

When configuring Cisco ASA firewalls for high availability, which protocol is used to maintain state information between the primary and standby units?

A.Stateful Failover (Failover Link)
B.HSRP
C.OSPF
D.VRRP
AnswerA

Stateful Failover over the dedicated failover link replicates connection state, translation tables, and session data from primary to standby, enabling seamless session continuity on switchover. This is the mechanism Cisco ASA pairs use to maintain synchronised state information.

Why this answer

Cisco ASA high availability uses a dedicated failover link to exchange state information between the active and standby units, a feature called Stateful Failover. This link synchronizes connection tables, translation tables, and other stateful data so the standby can take over without dropping established sessions. This is why A is correct.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing first-hop redundancy protocols (HSRP/VRRP) with ASA stateful failover — candidates pick HSRP because it sounds like high availability, but HSRP does not synchronize firewall connection state.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because HSRP is a first-hop redundancy protocol for IP gateway failover, not for synchronizing stateful firewall connection tables between ASA peers. Option C is wrong because OSPF is a routing protocol used for dynamic route exchange, not for state synchronization. Option D is wrong because VRRP is a gateway redundancy protocol similar to HSRP and does not carry ASA stateful failover information.

27
MCQhard

A security engineer is designing a zero-trust architecture for a hybrid environment. They need to ensure that local service-to-service communication is encrypted without modifying application code. Which tool should be used?

A.Implement IPsec tunnels between all application servers.
B.Hardcode SSL libraries into each application binary.
C.Deploy a global VPN concentrator for all intra-datacenter traffic.
D.Configure Istio with an mTLS PeerAuthentication policy.
AnswerD

Configuring Istio with a mutual TLS (mTLS) PeerAuthentication policy satisfies the strict constraint of encrypting local service-to-service communication without requiring any application code modifications. Istio achieves this transparently by injecting Envoy sidecar proxies into the application pods, which intercept network traffic at the infrastructure layer. These sidecars automatically negotiate and establish mTLS connections, enforcing zero-trust transport encryption across the hybrid environment while leaving the underlying software logic entirely untouched.

Why this answer

A service mesh, such as Istio, provides mutual TLS (mTLS) for all service-to-service communication transparently through sidecar proxies, requiring no application changes.

28
MCQmedium

When designing a secure API, which protocol is recommended for authorization?

A.RADIUS.
B.SAML 2.0.
C.OAuth 2.0.
D.LDAP.
AnswerC

OAuth 2.0 directly satisfies the authorization constraint in the stem by providing a delegated authorisation framework that decouples client applications from resource ownership through scoped access tokens. Rather than sharing user credentials, an authorization server issues cryptographically signed tokens—typically JSON Web Tokens—granting granular, time-bound permissions to specific API endpoints. This mechanism ensures that third-party systems interact with microservices securely, enforcing the principle of least privilege without exposing underlying identity credentials.

Why this answer

OAuth 2.0 is the industry-standard authorization framework for enabling third-party applications to obtain limited access to an HTTP service.

29
MCQmedium

A security architect is configuring IPsec VPN tunnels between two data centers. Which encryption standard provides the best balance of security and modern performance?

A.AES-GCM.
B.3DES
C.Blowfish
D.DES
AnswerA

AES-GCM (Galois/Counter Mode) satisfies the constraint for high-throughput data centre interconnects by combining confidentiality and integrity into a single authenticated encryption with associated data (AEAD) operation. Unlike traditional CBC modes that require separate ciphers for encryption and hashing, AES-GCM leverages hardware acceleration via AES-NI instructions, drastically reducing CPU overhead while preventing chosen-ciphertext attacks. This ensures the maximum possible throughput and low latency required for modern high-speed IPsec VPN tunnels.

Why this answer

AES-GCM is the preferred choice for modern IPsec tunnels because it provides both confidentiality and authentication (AEAD) with hardware acceleration.

30
MCQmedium

You need to protect a legacy web application that cannot be patched. What is the best strategy?

A.Disable all logging.
B.Deploy a WAF to provide virtual patching.
C.Migrate the app to a new language.
D.Isolate the server on an isolated VLAN.
AnswerB

Deploying a Web Application Firewall directly satisfies the constraint that the legacy application cannot be patched by implementing virtual patching. A WAF inspects incoming HTTP traffic at the application layer, using signature-based rules and positive security models to intercept and block exploits targeting known vulnerabilities before they reach the unpatched software. This approach isolates the vulnerable code from malicious payloads without requiring any modification to the underlying application source code, thereby maintaining operational stability while mitigating security risks.

Why this answer

Placing a Web Application Firewall (WAF) or an RASP solution in front of the application can filter malicious traffic before it reaches the vulnerable application.

31
MCQhard

You are designing a secure data enclave using Confidential Computing. Which technology allows you to verify that the code running inside the TEE (Trusted Execution Environment) has not been tampered with?

A.Remote Attestation.
B.Encrypted Page Tables.
C.Hardware Root of Trust (RoT).
D.Signed firmware updates.
AnswerA

Remote Attestation directly satisfies the requirement to verify that code inside a Trusted Execution Environment remains untampered. This cryptographic mechanism generates a hardware-signed measurement of the initial software state loaded into the enclave. A remote challenger can validate this quote against a known-good reference value, ensuring the integrity of the runtime environment before sensitive data is released into the secure enclave.

Why this answer

Remote Attestation allows a third party to verify the measurement (hash) of the code and the state of the TEE before providing sensitive keys.

32
MCQmedium

An organization is deploying Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS). To enforce organizational compliance, they must restrict which container images can be deployed. What is the most effective approach?

A.Assign RBAC roles to all developers to prevent image pull actions.
B.Modify the Kubelet configuration files directly on the nodes.
C.Configure the Azure CLI to deny access to unauthorized ACR registries.
D.Use the Azure Policy add-on for Kubernetes to enforce an 'Allowed Container Images' policy.
AnswerD

Deploying the Azure Policy add-on for Kubernetes directly satisfies the requirement to restrict container image deployment by leveraging Gatekeeper v3 and Open Policy Agent (OPA) under the hood. This integration intercepts Kubernetes API server requests, enforcing custom constraints such as allowed image registries and repositories at admission time. By centralising policy governance through Azure Policy rather than manual cluster configurations, administrators reliably prevent non-compliant workloads from starting across all clusters, thereby meeting the strict organisational compliance mandate.

Why this answer

Azure Policy for Kubernetes provides built-in policies to restrict container image registries and enforce image tagging, ensuring only trusted images are deployed.

33
MCQmedium

An organization is using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) to deploy resources. How can they ensure that developers do not introduce insecure configurations?

A.Only allow senior architects to deploy resources.
B.Relying on developers to perform self-audits.
C.Automated Policy-as-Code scanning in the CI/CD pipeline.
D.Manual code review of all commits.
AnswerC

Automated Policy-as-Code scanning directly satisfies the requirement to prevent developers from introducing insecure configurations by evaluating IaC templates against defined security baselines before deployment. Integrating tools such as Checkov or OPA (Open Policy Agent) directly into the CI/CD pipeline intercepts non-compliant code during the build stage. This shifts security left, enforcing compliance automatically without relying solely on manual code reviews, thereby mitigating human error and maintaining a secure cloud infrastructure posture.

Why this answer

Integrating automated policy-as-code tools (e.g., Checkov, Open Policy Agent) into the CI/CD pipeline enables automatic detection of misconfigurations before deployment.

34
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are critical for a secure identity architecture?

Select 3 answers
A.Enforcing Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA).
B.Sharing accounts between users.
C.Regular audit of identity permissions.
D.Using passwords as the only factor.
E.Granting least privilege access.
AnswersA, C, E

Enforcing multi-factor authentication satisfies the core architectural constraint of mitigating credential-based attacks by requiring independent verification factors across multiple distinct categories—typically something you know, something you have, and something you are. By demanding this cryptographic or out-of-band verification alongside traditional primary credentials, the system prevents unauthorized access even when primary passwords are compromised through phishing or brute-force vectors, thereby establishing zero trust principles directly at the authentication boundary.

Why this answer

Multi-factor authentication, least privilege, and robust auditing are required for identity security.

35
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are valid security controls for a database?

Select 3 answers
A.Allowing anonymous access for testing.
B.Enabling audit logging.
C.Storing database credentials in plain text.
D.Encryption at rest.
E.Strong access control lists (ACLs).
AnswersB, D, E

Enabling audit logging creates a chronological, tamper-evident record of all database transactions, administrative alterations, and authentication attempts. This mechanism directly satisfies the requirement for accountability and forensic traceability, which are fundamental security controls for monitoring unauthorized access attempts and satisfying regulatory compliance mandates. By capturing granular event data at the database engine level, administrators can investigate security incidents, reconstruct timeline events, and detect anomalous query patterns that indicate privilege escalation or data exfiltration.

Why this answer

Encryption, auditing, and access control are fundamental database security controls.

36
MCQmedium

You are designing a VPC architecture in AWS. You need to ensure that database instances in a private subnet can download patches from the internet without being directly reachable from the public internet. Which architecture component should you deploy?

A.Internet Gateway
B.VPC Endpoint
C.NAT Gateway
D.Egress-Only Internet Gateway
AnswerC

A NAT Gateway resides in a public subnet and performs source NAT for outbound traffic originating in private subnets, allowing database instances to reach internet patch repositories. Return traffic cannot initiate inbound connections, satisfying the constraint that instances remain unreachable from the public internet.

Why this answer

A NAT Gateway allows instances in a private subnet to connect to the internet (e.g., for software updates) while preventing the internet from initiating a connection with those instances.

37
MCQeasy

When designing a secure network, which zone should host public-facing services to minimize the risk of lateral movement to internal networks?

A.Management LAN.
B.DMZ (Demilitarized Zone).
C.User Access Subnet.
D.Back-end database subnet.
AnswerB

Placing public-facing services within a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) directly satisfies the requirement to minimise the risk of lateral movement to internal networks by implementing a segmented perimeter network situated between external untrusted zones and the internal corporate infrastructure. Firewall rule sets and access control lists explicitly restrict traffic flow from the DMZ to the internal network, ensuring that a compromised web or email server cannot directly pivot into core databases or domain controllers, thereby containing potential breaches to the isolated buffer zone.

Why this answer

The DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) acts as a buffer, isolating public services from the internal trusted network.

38
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are best practices for securing a remote worker's endpoint?

Select 3 answers
A.EDR solution for threat monitoring.
B.Disabling the lock screen.
C.Always-on VPN.
D.Using a shared local account.
E.Full-disk encryption (FDE).
AnswersA, C, E

Deploying an endpoint detection and response (EDR) solution addresses the remote worker constraint by providing continuous behavioural monitoring and telemetry collection off the corporate network. Unlike perimeter defenses that rely on static signature matching, EDR agents analyse process execution, memory injection, and network connections locally on the device. This mechanism enables security teams to detect advanced threats, contain compromised hosts remotely via automated isolation, and remediate persistent footholds without requiring direct physical access to the corporate infrastructure.

Why this answer

Endpoint protection, disk encryption, and VPN usage are critical for remote endpoints.

39
MCQmedium

A security engineer needs to secure SSH access to Linux servers in a cloud VPC. What is the most secure method to replace static SSH keys?

A.Implement an SSH Certificate Authority (CA) system.
B.Restrict SSH to a hardened bastion host.
C.Use a central password manager to rotate keys.
D.Require MFA for every single SSH connection.
AnswerA

SSH Certificate Authorities eliminate the operational overhead and security risks associated with managing static key pairs by issuing short-lived, cryptographically signed certificates. This mechanism satisfies the constraint of replacing static keys by centralising trust through a CA, which validates identities dynamically rather than relying on persistent public keys stored on target servers. By enforcing ephemeral access, this approach mitigates the risk of credential leakage and simplifies revocation, providing a robust identity-based architecture superior to manual key rotation or integration with services like Microsoft Entra ID.

Why this answer

Short-lived, ephemeral SSH certificates generated by an Identity Provider (IdP) eliminate the need for static, long-lived keys.

40
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are key benefits of 'Immutable Infrastructure'?

Select 2 answers
A.Increases administrative overhead.
B.Reduces disk space usage.
C.Prevents configuration drift.
D.Enables reliable automated recovery.
E.Allows manual patching on live servers.
AnswersC, D

Immutable infrastructure eliminates configuration drift by ensuring that servers are never modified in place after deployment. Instead of applying manual patches or runtime updates which introduce discrepancies between environments, any system change requires building a completely new server image and replacing the existing instance entirely. This architectural constraint guarantees that the running state always matches the version-controlled source template, maintaining absolute consistency across production and development lifecycles.

Why this answer

Immutability prevents configuration drift and allows for rapid recovery.

41
Multi-Selecthard

You are reviewing the security architecture of a Kubernetes cluster. Which TWO of the following configurations are considered best practices for preventing unauthorized container privilege escalation?

Select 2 answers
A.Using a default Namespace for all workloads
B.Increasing the memory limit for pods
C.Setting allowPrivilegeEscalation to false in the SecurityContext
D.Running containers as a non-root user
E.Enabling ClusterIP services
AnswersC, D

Setting allowPrivilegeEscalation to false in the container's SecurityContext blocks processes from gaining more privileges than their parent, defeating setuid binaries and similar escalation vectors. This directly satisfies the requirement to prevent unauthorised container privilege escalation.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because setting allowPrivilegeEscalation to false in a container's SecurityContext prevents processes from gaining more privileges than their parent process, specifically blocking the setuid/setgid and file capability mechanisms that enable privilege escalation. Option D is correct because running containers as a non-root user (via runAsUser/runAsNonRoot in the SecurityContext) removes the default root privileges inside the container, so even if an attacker compromises the application, they lack the UID 0 capabilities needed to escalate. Option A is not a best practice for privilege escalation prevention; using a default Namespace for all workloads weakens isolation and RBAC scoping rather than restricting container privileges.

Option B is unrelated, as increasing a pod's memory limit only affects resource allocation and has no bearing on privilege escalation. Option E is also unrelated, since enabling ClusterIP services merely exposes pods on an internal virtual IP for network access and does not affect container privilege levels.

Exam trap

ISC often tests the misconception that resource limits or network configurations improve security against privilege escalation, when in fact only SecurityContext settings like allowPrivilegeEscalation and runAsNonRoot directly address it.

42
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are primary components of a typical Cisco ACI (Application Centric Infrastructure) fabric design used to enforce security segmentation?

Select 3 answers
A.Physical Port Security
B.Tenants
C.Contracts
D.Endpoint Groups (EPG)
E.VLAN Tagging
AnswersB, C, D

Tenants are logical containers within the Cisco ACI fabric that isolate policies, VRFs and EPGs between organisational units. They provide the administrative and policy boundary through which security segmentation is enforced, making them a primary fabric design component for segmentation.

Why this answer

In Cisco ACI, security segmentation is enforced through the policy model built on Tenants (B), Contracts (C), and Endpoint Groups (D). Tenants (B) provide the logical container that isolates policy, routing, and security domains for different applications or business units within the fabric. Endpoint Groups (D) classify endpoints that share the same security and policy requirements, acting as the source/destination objects in the policy model.

Contracts (C) define the permitted communication relationships between EPGs, specifying which protocols and ports are allowed, thereby enforcing segmentation between groups. Physical Port Security (A) is a Layer 2 switchport feature, not an ACI fabric segmentation construct, and VLAN Tagging (E) is a traditional network isolation mechanism that ACI abstracts away rather than using as a primary segmentation component.

43
MCQhard

You are auditing a GCP environment. You discover that a Cloud Function is accessing a Cloud Storage bucket using the default Compute Engine service account. What is the primary security risk?

A.Cloud Functions do not support custom service accounts.
B.The storage bucket requires a specific bucket-level IAM policy.
C.The default service account lacks the 'Owner' role.
D.The default service account has excessive permissions and is shared across services.
AnswerD

Using the default Compute Engine service account violates the principle of least privilege because this identity is automatically granted the broad Editor role across the entire project. Since this service account is shared by multiple resources, any compromise of the Cloud Function grants an attacker excessive lateral access to other services within the environment. Implementing a dedicated, fine-grained service account for the function limits the potential blast radius, ensuring the identity possesses only the specific permissions required for the bucket interaction rather than project-wide administrative rights.

Why this answer

The default service account often has 'Editor' permissions on the project, violating the principle of least privilege. It should be replaced with a dedicated, fine-grained identity.

44
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are common methods to protect data during transit?

Select 2 answers
A.IPsec.
B.TLS 1.3.
C.Cleartext telnet.
D.Storing data on a local drive.
E.HTTP/1.1 (plain).
AnswersA, B

Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) operates at the network layer to secure communications across IP networks, directly satisfying the requirement to protect data during transit. By encapsulating and encrypting the entire packet payload alongside header information, IPsec establishes a secure virtual private network (VPN) tunnel between endpoints. This cryptographic mechanism ensures confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for all traversing traffic, effectively preventing interception or tampering while packets move across untrusted external networks.

Why this answer

TLS and IPsec are the primary protocols for protecting data in transit.

45
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are essential for a secure Cloud CI/CD pipeline?

Select 2 answers
A.Implementing automated security scanning (SAST/DAST).
B.Using ephemeral, isolated build runners.
C.Manual approval for every single build.
D.Hardcoding credentials in scripts.
E.Disabling build logs.
AnswersA, B

Automated security scanning via Static Application Security Testing (SAST) and Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) directly satisfies the fundamental cloud requirement for continuous, scalable vulnerability management within a rapid deployment pipeline. By embedding these tools natively into the build and test phases, code repositories and running artifacts are systematically inspected for flaws, hardcoded credentials, and configuration drift before promotion to production. This programmatic enforcement ensures that security checks scale dynamically alongside ephemeral cloud infrastructure without relying on manual oversight.

Why this answer

Securing the pipeline requires protecting the build environment and ensuring the integrity of the artifacts being deployed.

46
MCQhard

A company is migrating legacy workloads to Azure and requires host-based intrusion detection with file integrity monitoring (FIM) across hybrid environments. Which service provides this integrated capability?

A.Azure Monitor
B.Microsoft Defender for Servers
C.Network Watcher
D.Azure Bastion
AnswerB

Microsoft Defender for Servers satisfies the hybrid environment constraint by integrating Microsoft Defender for Cloud to deliver host-based intrusion detection systems alongside native file integrity monitoring. By deploying the Azure Monitor Agent or Log Analytics agent across both Azure and on-premises infrastructure, it continuously tracks registry changes, file modifications, and suspicious operating system activities. This unified architecture enables centralised security management and automated threat protection, directly fulfilling the requirement for integrated host-based monitoring across disparate deployment models.

Why this answer

Microsoft Defender for Servers (part of Microsoft Defender for Cloud) provides the integrated FIM and endpoint protection features required for hybrid cloud/on-premises machines.

47
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are fundamental pillars of information security (CIA triad)?

Select 2 answers
A.User Friendliness.
B.Confidentiality.
C.Availability.
D.Cost effectiveness.
E.Performance.
AnswersB, C

Confidentiality directly satisfies the fundamental requirement to restrict data access exclusively to authorised entities, preventing unauthorised disclosure. This pillar is enforced using technical mechanisms such as symmetric and asymmetric encryption algorithms, robust access control lists, and role-based access control models. By safeguarding data both at rest and in transit against interception or unauthorised viewing, these controls uphold the core information security constraint specified in the question stem.

Why this answer

The CIA triad consists of Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability.

48
MCQmedium

A cloud architect is defining a network security architecture for a multi-tier application. How should they protect the application tier from direct internet access?

A.Place the app tier in a private subnet and restrict ingress to the ALB.
B.Use a NACL to block all incoming traffic.
C.Deploy a WAF on each application instance.
D.Attach a public IP to every instance in the app tier.
AnswerA

Placing the application tier within a private subnet entirely isolates it from public routing tables, directly satisfying the architectural constraint of preventing direct internet access. By restricting inbound ingress exclusively to the Application Load Balancer (ALB), traffic must traverse the designated edge service rather than reaching application instances directly. This enforces strict layer-4 and layer-7 filtering, ensuring that only validated, proxy-terminated requests from the public-facing presentation tier can reach the backend resources.

Why this answer

Place the application tier in a private subnet with no public IP, and allow traffic only from the Load Balancer (ELB) security group.

49
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are best practices for securing API endpoints?

Select 2 answers
A.Using OAuth/OIDC for authentication.
B.Publicly exposing all internal endpoints.
C.Ignoring input validation.
D.Implementing rate limiting.
E.Requiring no authentication for GET requests.
AnswersA, D

Implementing OAuth 2.0 and OpenID Connect (OIDC) provides a standardised framework for delegated authorisation and identity propagation, which directly satisfies the requirement for robust, scalable authentication across distributed API endpoints. By utilising bearer tokens rather than static credentials, these protocols decouple the authentication service from the resource server. Modern implementations, such as those integrated with Microsoft Entra ID, ensure that access is strictly scoped via claims, effectively mitigating risks associated with credential leakage and unauthorised access to sensitive service interfaces.

Why this answer

Rate limiting and strong authentication are foundational API security practices.

50
MCQeasy

A company is migrating to Microsoft 365. You need to ensure that users are only able to access SharePoint sites from managed devices that are compliant with corporate security policies. Which service provides this conditional access control?

A.SharePoint Online Admin Center
B.Microsoft Purview
C.Microsoft Entra Conditional Access
D.Microsoft Intune
AnswerC

Microsoft Entra Conditional Access evaluates signals such as device compliance and management status before granting access to SharePoint. By enforcing policies that require devices to be registered in Microsoft Entra ID and marked as compliant by Microsoft Intune, this service satisfies the constraint of restricting access to managed, compliant hardware. It acts as the central policy engine that bridges identity-based authentication with device-state verification, ensuring that only authorised endpoints can interact with corporate data within the Microsoft 365 environment.

Why this answer

Microsoft Entra ID (formerly Azure AD) Conditional Access policies are used to evaluate device compliance status before granting access to M365 resources.

51
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of a TPM chip in a laptop?

A.To increase CPU performance.
B.To accelerate disk encryption.
C.To store cryptographic keys and ensure platform integrity.
D.To provide biometric authentication.
AnswerC

A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) functions as a hardware-based root of trust, satisfying the requirement for platform integrity by performing measured boots and storing sensitive cryptographic material in tamper-resistant silicon. By isolating private keys from the main processor and operating system, the chip prevents unauthorised access to encrypted data, such as BitLocker volumes or credentials synchronised with Microsoft Entra ID. This physical isolation ensures that cryptographic operations remain secure even if the primary software environment is compromised by malicious actors or rootkits.

Why this answer

The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) stores cryptographic keys, performs hardware-based platform integrity checks, and enables secure boot.

52
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of an EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) tool compared to traditional Antivirus?

A.To encrypt the hard drive.
B.To provide visibility and response to suspicious behavioral activity.
C.To act as a personal firewall.
D.To block known file-based malware signatures.
AnswerB

Endpoint Detection and Response tools continuously monitor system-level telemetry, such as process execution, registry modifications, and network connections, to identify malicious patterns rather than relying solely on static file signatures. This behavioural analysis satisfies the requirement to move beyond traditional signature-based detection by providing deep visibility into post-exploitation activities. By capturing granular event logs, security teams can investigate and remediate threats that bypass perimeter defences, a function distinct from the reactive, file-centric approach of legacy antivirus software that lacks integration with broader identity platforms like Microsoft Entra ID.

Why this answer

EDR focuses on continuous monitoring and recording of endpoint activities to enable investigation, threat hunting, and automated response to sophisticated threats.

53
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the most effective way to secure a remote access connection for employees?

A.Using a simple password.
B.VPN with Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA).
C.Allowing SSH access directly from the internet.
D.Opening RDP port 3389 to the world.
AnswerB

Encapsulating traffic within an encrypted tunnel ensures data confidentiality across untrusted networks, directly addressing the requirement for a secure remote access connection. Integrating Multi-Factor Authentication provides a robust defence against credential theft by mandating an additional verification factor, such as a push notification via Microsoft Entra ID. This combination of transport-layer encryption and identity-based access control creates a layered security posture that effectively mitigates the risks inherent in remote connectivity, ensuring that only authorised users can establish a trusted session with internal resources.

Why this answer

A VPN using MFA provides both encryption for the transit path and strong verification of user identity.

54
MCQhard

A security architect is configuring an AWS VPC to ensure that traffic between two subnets is inspected by a centralized firewall appliance. Which configuration provides the most resilient design?

A.Configure static route tables on all subnets to point to the firewall's ENI.
B.Implement a transparent bridge on each EC2 instance in the destination subnet.
C.Utilize AWS Transit Gateway with route tables that hairpin traffic to a security VPC.
D.Deploy a Gateway Load Balancer (GWLB) and use VPC Ingress Routing to route traffic through the fleet.
AnswerD

Gateway Load Balancer (GWLB) provides the most resilient design by transparently scaling a fleet of virtual appliances across multiple availability zones. By leveraging VPC Ingress Routing to redirect traffic through the GWLB endpoints, the architecture ensures that all inter-subnet packets are inspected without introducing single points of failure. This mechanism satisfies the requirement for a resilient, centralized inspection point, as the load balancer automatically handles health checks and traffic distribution, ensuring high availability for the security stack compared to static routing configurations.

Why this answer

Using AWS Gateway Load Balancer (GWLB) with VPC Ingress Routing ensures that traffic is transparently intercepted and inspected by the firewall before reaching the destination, providing higher scalability than static routing.

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