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CCNA Secure Software Supply Chain Questions

20 questions · Secure Software Supply Chain · All types, answers revealed

1
Multi-Selectmedium

When designing an automated pipeline to prevent supply chain attacks, which THREE of the following features should be included in your artifact registry?

Select 3 answers
A.Auto-scaling of the registry's storage capacity.
B.Automatic translation of code into multiple languages.
C.Automated vulnerability scanning of stored artifacts.
D.Immutable tags (preventing overwriting of existing tags).
E.Granular Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).
AnswersC, D, E

Automated scanning of stored artifacts detects known CVEs in dependencies and images before deployment, blocking compromised components from reaching consumers. This satisfies the supply chain constraint by continuously verifying that registry contents remain free of exploitable vulnerabilities throughout their retention.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because automated vulnerability scanning of stored artifacts detects known CVEs in container images and packages at push time, enabling the pipeline to block or quarantine compromised artifacts before they reach production. Option D is correct because immutable tags prevent an attacker or compromised build from overwriting an existing tag (e.g., re-pushing a malicious image under a trusted 'latest' or version tag), which is a common supply chain attack vector; immutability ensures a tag always resolves to the same digest. Option E is correct because granular RBAC enforces least privilege, restricting who can push, pull, or delete artifacts and preventing unauthorized modification or injection of malicious images into the registry.

Option A does not belong because auto-scaling storage addresses availability and capacity, not supply chain security. Option B does not belong because translating code into multiple languages is unrelated to artifact registry security and is not a registry feature.

2
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of a 'Vulnerability Disclosure Policy' (VDP) in a vendor's secure development lifecycle?

A.Provide a secure channel for researchers to report vulnerabilities.
B.Automate the patching of production servers.
C.Create a list of known hardware defects.
D.Legal protection against data breaches.
AnswerA

A VDP publishes a defined intake route, such as a security contact or bug bounty portal, so external researchers can report findings without resorting to public disclosure. This gives the vendor private remediation time, satisfying the stem's focus on the policy's primary function.

Why this answer

A Vulnerability Disclosure Policy (VDP) defines how external security researchers can report vulnerabilities to an organization, specifying the scope, reporting channel, and safe harbor terms. Its primary function is to provide a clear, secure, and legal channel for receiving vulnerability reports so they can be triaged and remediated. It is a foundational element of coordinated vulnerability disclosure (CVD) and is distinct from bug bounty programs, which add incentives.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing a VDP with a bug bounty program or with legal/insurance protections, when the VDP's core purpose is to establish a reporting channel and safe harbor for researchers.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because automating patching of production servers is a configuration management and deployment concern (e.g., CI/CD, patch management tools), not the function of a VDP. Option C is wrong because a list of known hardware defects is an asset inventory or hardware lifecycle artifact; a VDP addresses software and system vulnerabilities reported by external parties. Option D is wrong because legal protection against data breaches is provided by contracts, insurance, and compliance programs; a VDP provides safe harbor for good-faith researchers, not blanket legal protection against breaches.

3
MCQmedium

Your development team is integrating a new third-party library via npm. To prevent dependency confusion attacks where a malicious package is pulled from a public registry instead of your internal private registry, which configuration should be applied?

A.Set the registry URL in the .npmrc file to point specifically to your internal Artifactory or Nexus scope.
B.Run 'npm audit fix' before every build process.
C.Add the dependency to the 'bundledDependencies' array in package.json.
D.Enable 'strict-ssl' in the global npm configuration.
AnswerA

Scoping the registry URL in .npmrc to your internal Artifactory or Nexus ensures npm resolves scoped packages only from the private registry, so a malicious public package with the same name cannot be substituted. This directly prevents the dependency confusion attack described in the stem.

Why this answer

Scoped registries in .npmrc ensure that packages within a specific scope are always fetched from the designated private registry, preventing the resolution of malicious public packages with the same name.

4
MCQmedium

You notice that your build server environment pulls Docker images from a public registry with the ':latest' tag. Why is this a major supply chain security flaw?

A.The tag prevents container layer caching.
B.The tag is mutable, allowing an attacker to inject a malicious image.
C.The registry will throttle downloads of the ':latest' tag.
D.The tag is deprecated in favor of ':stable'.
AnswerB

The ':latest' tag is mutable: a registry push can repoint it to a different image digest at any time. Because the build server resolves the tag at pull time, an attacker who compromises the registry or upstream project can substitute a malicious image, executing arbitrary code in the build pipeline.

Why this answer

The ':latest' tag is a mutable pointer, not a fixed version identifier. When a build server pulls 'image:latest', it retrieves whatever image the registry currently associates with that tag, which may differ from the image previously tested or approved. An attacker who compromises the upstream repository or registry account can push a malicious image under ':latest', and the next build will silently consume it — a classic software supply chain attack.

Exam trap

CSSLP often tests the misconception that ':latest' means 'the newest, most secure version' — candidates overlook that it is a mutable alias that can be silently repointed to a malicious image.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because image tags have no bearing on Docker layer caching; caching is determined by layer digests and the Dockerfile build context, not the tag name. Option C is wrong because registries do not throttle pulls based on the ':latest' tag specifically; rate limits (e.g., Docker Hub's pull limits) apply to account/IP, not tag value. Option D is wrong because ':latest' is not deprecated — it remains a valid default tag in Docker, though best practice discourages its use in production.

5
MCQeasy

A software vendor provides a critical component to your organization. During contract negotiations, you request that the vendor provide a Software Bill of Materials (SBOM) for each release. The vendor agrees to provide a document listing all open-source libraries and their versions. Which additional attribute is most important to include in the SBOM to support rapid vulnerability response?

A.The URL of the project's public repository.
B.The cryptographic hash of each component artifact.
C.The name of the developer who contributed the most lines of code to each library.
D.The license type of each component.
AnswerB

Cryptographic hashes uniquely identify the exact artifact and enable integrity verification. When a new vulnerability is announced, a hash allows you to confirm whether the specific binary or package you received is affected, rather than relying solely on version numbers which can be ambiguous or spoofed. This supports rapid and accurate response, as you can match the hash against known vulnerable artifacts and ensure you are analyzing the correct code.

Why this answer

Including cryptographic hashes in an SBOM provides a precise fingerprint for each component. When a vulnerability is announced, you can compare the hash of your deployed artifact against known vulnerable hashes or use it to verify that the correct component is being analyzed. This eliminates ambiguity from version strings and supports automated, rapid response.

Other attributes like licenses and repository URLs are valuable but do not fulfill the critical need for exact identification.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that a version number or repository URL is sufficient to identify a component, when hash-based identification is required for unambiguous vulnerability matching.

6
Multi-Selectmedium

To protect against a compromised build pipeline, which TWO of the following configurations should be implemented to ensure 'Hermetic Builds'?

Select 2 answers
A.Enable verbose logging to standard output.
B.Automatically pull the latest compiler version.
C.Disable network access during the build process.
D.Use pinned dependencies with cryptographic hashes.
E.Allow developers to trigger manual builds via SSH.
AnswersC, D

Hermetic builds require isolation from external inputs, so disabling network access during the build stops dependency downloads, exfiltration and remote code retrieval. This closes the pipeline compromise vector where an attacker injects malicious content over the network mid-build.

Why this answer

Hermetic builds require that a build is isolated from external influences and fully reproducible, so option C (disable network access during the build process) is correct because it prevents the build from fetching unpinned or potentially tampered artifacts, dependencies, or tooling from the internet at build time. Option D (use pinned dependencies with cryptographic hashes) is also correct because pinning exact dependency versions and verifying them against cryptographic hashes guarantees that only the intended, untampered artifacts are consumed, which is essential for reproducibility and supply-chain integrity. In contrast, option A (verbose logging to standard output) only improves observability and does not enforce isolation or reproducibility.

Option B (automatically pulling the latest compiler version) is the opposite of hermetic, since it introduces non-deterministic, mutable toolchain inputs. Option E (allowing developers to trigger manual builds via SSH) expands the attack surface and bypasses controlled, automated build pipelines, so it does not support hermetic builds.

7
Multi-Selectmedium

When performing a vendor security assessment for a new SaaS product, which THREE of the following should be requested to evaluate their supply chain resilience?

Select 3 answers
A.A list of critical fourth-party service providers (sub-processors).
B.The vendor's employee handbook.
C.The vendor's annual financial report.
D.Software Bill of Materials (SBOM) for the application.
E.Evidence of automated CI/CD dependency vulnerability scanning.
AnswersA, D, E

Fourth-party sub-processors are the upstream dependencies where supply chain failures actually originate. Requesting this list exposes concentration risk and unassessed vendors beneath the SaaS provider, directly satisfying the stem's resilience evaluation of the extended supply chain rather than the provider's own controls.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because identifying critical fourth-party service providers (sub-processors) is essential to map the extended supply chain and assess concentration, geographic, and jurisdictional risks that could disrupt the SaaS service. Option D is correct because an SBOM enumerates the software components and dependencies in the application, enabling verification of known vulnerabilities, license risks, and provenance of third-party libraries. Option E is correct because evidence of automated CI/CD dependency vulnerability scanning demonstrates continuous detection of vulnerable or malicious dependencies before deployment, directly strengthening supply chain resilience.

Option B is not relevant because an employee handbook addresses HR policies and conduct, not supply chain risk. Option C is not relevant because an annual financial report reflects the vendor's fiscal health, not the resilience of its software and service supply chain.

Exam trap

CSSLP often tests the scope of vendor assessment; candidates may include financial or HR documents because they seem relevant to due diligence, but the question specifically asks for supply chain resilience, which requires technical and dependency-related artifacts.

8
MCQhard

An organization is adopting the SLSA (Supply-chain Levels for Software Artifacts) framework. To achieve Level 3, what requirement must be met regarding the build platform?

A.The code must be written in a memory-safe language.
B.The build platform must be hardened and provenance must be authenticated.
C.The project must have 100% open-source components.
D.All developers must use a Linux-based OS.
AnswerB

SLSA Level 3 requires the build platform to be hardened against tampering and to generate authenticated provenance, cryptographically signed by the build service. This ensures artefacts trace to a trusted, isolated builder rather than a developer workstation.

Why this answer

SLSA Level 3 requires the build platform to be 'hardened' and 'non-falsifiable', meaning the build integrity is protected and the provenance is cryptographically signed.

9
MCQeasy

A supplier asks you to describe your 'Supply Chain Security Policy'. What is the most appropriate foundational element to include?

A.Requirement for 100% code coverage in unit tests.
B.Requirement to use proprietary code only.
C.Requirement for an SBOM for all delivered software.
D.Requirement for the supplier to perform a full system wipe.
AnswerC

Mandating an SBOM for all delivered software gives the policy a concrete, verifiable foundation: it establishes component-level visibility across the supply chain, enabling vulnerability tracking, licence review and provenance checks on third-party and open-source dependencies.

Why this answer

A secure supply chain policy must start with a requirement for software transparency, typically in the form of an SBOM for all delivered software.

10
MCQeasy

During a vendor security assessment, you require a supplier to provide proof that their software is signed. Which mechanism should you verify to ensure the code's integrity and origin authenticity?

A.Software License Agreement (SLA)
B.SHA-256 checksum published on a text file
C.Vendor SOC 2 Type II report
D.Digital Signature (e.g., Authenticode or GPG)
AnswerD

A digital signature, such as Authenticode or GPG, is verified with the signer's public key to confirm the code's integrity and origin authenticity. This satisfies the stem's proof-of-signing requirement, unlike a hash alone, which detects alteration but does not establish who signed.

Why this answer

A digital signature (e.g., Authenticode on Windows, GPG on Linux) uses asymmetric cryptography to provide both integrity and origin authenticity. The vendor signs the code with its private key; you verify with the vendor's public key, confirming the code has not been tampered with and genuinely came from that vendor. This is the only mechanism in the list that proves both integrity and origin.

Exam trap

CSSLP often tests the distinction between integrity-only mechanisms (checksums) and integrity-plus-authenticity mechanisms (digital signatures) — candidates pick SHA-256 checksums thinking they prove origin.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Software License Agreement is a legal contract defining usage rights, not a technical integrity or authenticity mechanism — it says nothing about whether the binary was modified. Option B is wrong because a SHA-256 checksum published on a text file provides integrity verification only if the checksum itself is trusted; an attacker who can modify the binary can also modify the checksum file, so it does not prove origin authenticity. Option C is wrong because a SOC 2 Type II report attests to the vendor's operational controls over time, not to the integrity or provenance of a specific software artifact.

11
MCQmedium

You are setting up an automated policy in GitHub Actions to block builds that contain dependencies with known high-severity vulnerabilities. Which tool is standard for this type of automated gated check?

A.Snyk Open Source integration.
B.GitHub Projects.
C.Git LFS.
D.GitHub Pages.
AnswerA

Snyk Open Source scans dependency manifests against a vulnerability database and fails the GitHub Actions job when high-severity issues are found, gating the build. This satisfies the automated policy requirement by blocking merges rather than merely reporting findings.

Why this answer

Snyk is widely used in CI/CD pipelines as a gatekeeper to block builds based on vulnerability thresholds.

12
MCQeasy

When evaluating a vendor's open-source usage, which factor is the strongest indicator of a proactive security posture?

A.The vendor provides a static list of libraries once a year.
B.The vendor does not use any open-source software.
C.The vendor maintains a documented process for tracking and patching vulnerable components.
D.The vendor uses only the newest versions of all libraries.
AnswerC

A documented tracking and patching process demonstrates repeatable, proactive vulnerability management rather than ad hoc reaction. This satisfies the stem's demand for the strongest indicator, since it evidences an ongoing capability to identify and remediate vulnerable components before exploitation.

Why this answer

A documented process for tracking and patching vulnerable components demonstrates an ongoing, repeatable capability to identify and remediate open-source vulnerabilities, which is the hallmark of a proactive security posture. It shows the vendor monitors advisories (e.g., CVEs, NVD, GitHub Security Advisories), maintains an SBOM, and has SLAs for patching. Static lists or version freshness alone do not prove the vendor can respond to newly disclosed vulnerabilities.

Exam trap

CSSLP often tests the misconception that avoiding open source or using the newest versions equals security, when the real indicator is a documented, repeatable vulnerability tracking and patching process.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a static annual list of libraries is a point-in-time snapshot that does not demonstrate continuous monitoring or the ability to respond to newly disclosed CVEs. Option B is wrong because avoiding all open-source software is neither realistic nor a security guarantee; it may indicate a lack of modern supply-chain practices and does not address vulnerabilities in proprietary or third-party components. Option D is wrong because using only the newest versions of all libraries can introduce instability and does not prove the vendor tracks or patches vulnerabilities; a vendor could be on the latest version today and miss a critical patch tomorrow without a process.

13
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are common threats to the Software Supply Chain that an SBOM can help mitigate?

Select 3 answers
A.Mitigation of SQL injection flaws in custom code.
B.Prevention of brute-force attacks on application login.
C.Identification of end-of-life (EOL) software components.
D.Identification of components with known CVEs.
E.Detection of non-compliant or restrictive open-source licenses.
AnswersC, D, E

An SBOM enumerates every component and version in the software, enabling automated matching against vendor lifecycle data to flag components past their support date. This directly satisfies the stem's supply chain threat: unpatched, unsupported dependencies that no longer receive security fixes, which attackers exploit through known vulnerabilities.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because an SBOM enumerates every component and its version, allowing teams to compare those versions against vendor end-of-life (EOL) and end-of-support dates so obsolete libraries can be flagged and replaced before they become an unpatched supply-chain risk. Option D is correct because an SBOM's component inventory (typically expressed in SPDX or CycloneDX with Package URLs) can be correlated against vulnerability databases such as the NVD to identify dependencies containing known CVEs, which is the core use case for SBOM-driven vulnerability management. Option E is correct because an SBOM records component names, versions, and license identifiers, enabling automated license-compliance scanning to detect restrictive or non-compliant open-source licenses (for example GPL obligations in a proprietary product).

Option A does not belong because SQL injection is an application-layer coding defect remediated through secure coding and input validation, not through component inventory. Option B does not belong because brute-force attacks on login are mitigated by account lockout, rate limiting, MFA, and CAPTCHAs, none of which an SBOM addresses.

14
MCQmedium

Your organization is adopting the SLSA framework to improve supply chain security. You are evaluating a build system that claims to meet SLSA level 3. During an assessment, you find that the build system generates provenance but does not sign it, and the provenance is stored on the same server that performs builds. Which SLSA level requirement is most directly violated by this finding?

A.The build system must provide a software bill of materials (SBOM) for every artifact it produces.
B.All build steps must be defined in a human-readable configuration file that is version-controlled.
C.The build system must be hosted by a third-party cloud provider and not on-premises.
D.The provenance must be signed by the build system and stored in a tamper-resistant location separate from the build infrastructure.
AnswerD

SLSA level 3 requires that provenance be generated by a trusted build platform and that it be signed and stored in a way that prevents tampering by the build system itself. Storing unsigned provenance on the same server allows an attacker who compromises the build server to alter both the artifact and its provenance. This violates the core requirement for non-falsifiable provenance and isolation between the build and provenance storage.

Why this answer

SLSA level 3 requires that provenance be signed and stored in a tamper-resistant location isolated from the build infrastructure. This ensures that an attacker who compromises the build system cannot forge or alter provenance. The scenario describes unsigned provenance stored on the same server, which directly violates this requirement.

Other options refer to practices that are either not mandated by SLSA or are associated with lower levels.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that generating provenance is sufficient for SLSA level 3, when the level specifically requires that provenance be signed and stored in a tamper-resistant location separate from the build system.

15
MCQmedium

You are using 'in-toto' to secure your software supply chain. What is the primary purpose of a 'layout' file in this framework?

A.To encrypt the source code repository.
B.To generate the final SBOM document.
C.To list all CVEs found in the dependencies.
D.To define the supply chain steps, actors, and expected artifacts.
AnswerD

The layout file is the signed root of trust in in-toto; it specifies the ordered supply chain steps, the functionaries authorised to perform each, and the artefacts each step must produce. Verification then checks link metadata against these defined expectations.

Why this answer

The layout file specifies the authorized steps, the actors responsible for each step, and the expected artifacts, providing the policy for verifying the supply chain.

16
Multi-Selecthard

You are designing a secure software supply chain for a healthcare application that must comply with FDA premarket cybersecurity guidance. Your team proposes using the OWASP Dependency-Check tool within the CI pipeline to identify vulnerable third-party libraries. Which TWO additional practices are essential to establish a defensible component governance process that meets regulatory expectations? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Maintain a formal component inventory that records the exact version, license, and provenance of every third-party library used in the application.
B.Configure the CI pipeline to automatically upgrade all dependencies to the latest version whenever a new release is published, ensuring no known vulnerabilities remain.
C.Use a single proprietary scanner for all vulnerability detection and forbid the use of any other tools to ensure consistency across the organization.
D.Define and enforce a policy that prohibits the use of components with known critical vulnerabilities unless a documented risk acceptance and compensating control are approved.
E.Require all developers to manually review the source code of every third-party library before inclusion to verify there are no security flaws.
AnswersA, D

A formal component inventory, such as an SBOM, is foundational for regulatory compliance and incident response. It enables traceability when a new vulnerability is disclosed, allowing the organization to quickly determine exposure. FDA guidance emphasizes software bill of materials and component transparency. Without an accurate inventory, even the best scanning tool cannot provide a complete picture of risk or support post-market surveillance obligations.

Why this answer

A defensible component governance process requires both transparency and control. Maintaining a formal component inventory provides the traceability needed for incident response and regulatory reporting. Defining and enforcing a policy for handling components with known critical vulnerabilities ensures that risks are explicitly accepted and mitigated.

Together, these practices create an auditable, repeatable process that meets FDA expectations and supports ongoing supply chain security.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that automated scanning alone constitutes a complete governance process, when regulators expect documented inventory and formal risk acceptance procedures.

17
MCQhard

An organization is concerned about 'Typosquatting' in their build system. Which strategy is most effective at preventing the accidental inclusion of malicious, similarly-named packages?

A.Rely on the developer's ability to check spelling.
B.Configure an allowlist-only proxy repository.
C.Increase the frequency of penetration tests.
D.Enable two-factor authentication on developer accounts.
AnswerB

An allowlist-only proxy permits only explicitly approved package names and versions, so a typosquatted dependency is rejected at resolution time regardless of how similar its name appears. This directly blocks accidental inclusion, satisfying the stem's constraint.

Why this answer

An allowlist-only proxy repository permits only explicitly approved packages (by name, version, and hash) to be fetched, so a malicious package with a similar name (e.g., 'reqeusts' instead of 'requests') is rejected even if a developer mistypes it. This is the most effective technical control because it removes reliance on human vigilance and blocks the attack at the dependency-resolution layer.

Exam trap

CSSLP often tests the misconception that authentication controls (2FA) or periodic testing (pen tests) prevent supply-chain typosquatting, when the effective control is dependency allowlisting at the repository layer.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because relying on developers to check spelling is a human control that fails under time pressure, fatigue, or social engineering — typosquatting specifically exploits this. Option C is wrong because penetration tests are periodic, point-in-time assessments; they cannot prevent a malicious package from being pulled into a build between tests. Option D is wrong because two-factor authentication protects developer account access but does nothing to stop a developer from intentionally or accidentally installing a typosquatted package from a public registry.

18
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are essential components of an effective Vendor Security Assessment program?

Select 2 answers
A.Physical inspection of the vendor's data center.
B.Mandatory integration of your internal tools with the vendor.
C.Review of third-party audit reports (e.g., SOC 2, ISO 27001).
D.Standardized vendor security questionnaires.
E.Requiring the vendor to use your internal developers.
AnswersC, D

Reviewing SOC 2 and ISO 27001 reports provides independent, standardised assurance over a vendor's controls, satisfying the need for objective evidence rather than self-attestation. This directly addresses the stem's requirement for an essential assessment component, since third-party audits validate security posture against recognised frameworks without relying solely on vendor claims.

Why this answer

Effective programs combine standardized assessment questionnaires with a review of objective evidence, such as third-party audit reports (SOC 2).

19
MCQmedium

A financial services firm mandates that every open-source component pulled into its build pipeline must carry a cryptographically signed provenance attestation from the original project maintainer. During a review, you discover that Sigstore's cosign verification succeeds, but the attestation was generated by an internal CI runner rather than the upstream maintainer. What is the most significant supply chain risk introduced by this configuration?

A.The cosign verification will fail because Sigstore requires the signer's identity to match the artifact's origin repository, causing builds to break unpredictably.
B.The attestation lacks a timestamp from a trusted timestamp authority, making it impossible to determine whether the artifact was built before or after a known vulnerability disclosure.
C.The use of an internal runner instead of the upstream maintainer violates the SLSA level 3 requirement for a hosted build platform, automatically downgrading the artifact to SLSA level 1.
D.The signature does not bind the artifact to the actual build environment, so a compromised internal runner could attest to malicious code as if it originated upstream.
AnswerD

The attestation's value depends on the identity of the signer and the build environment it represents. If an internal runner signs on behalf of upstream, the cryptographic guarantee is only that the internal system produced that statement, not that the upstream maintainer did. An attacker who compromises the internal runner can generate a valid signature for a tampered artifact, and downstream verification will still pass.

Why this answer

A provenance attestation is only as trustworthy as the identity it binds to. When an internal CI runner signs an attestation claiming to represent upstream code, the signature proves internal origin, not upstream origin. An attacker who compromises that runner can attest to malicious artifacts, and cosign verification will still succeed because the internal identity is trusted.

The correct answer identifies this identity mismatch as the core supply chain risk.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a valid cryptographic signature from any trusted entity proves upstream provenance, when the real guarantee depends on the signer's identity matching the artifact's true origin.

20
MCQhard

When assessing a SaaS provider's supply chain, you are concerned about their 'Vendor Risk Management' (VRM) program. Which practice indicates a mature approach to fourth-party risk?

A.The vendor provides a generic privacy policy.
B.The vendor maintains an inventory of their critical fourth-party service providers.
C.The vendor only uses software developed internally.
D.The vendor uses a public cloud provider.
AnswerB

Fourth-party risk arises from subcontractors and downstream providers the vendor relies on. Maintaining an inventory of critical fourth-party service providers demonstrates visibility and control beyond direct suppliers, satisfying the mature Vendor Risk Management practice of mapping transitive dependencies.

Why this answer

A mature VRM program includes visibility into the vendor's sub-processors (fourth parties), as these are the vendors of your vendor, and represent a significant blind spot.

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