hardMultiple Choice
CRISC Practice Question: During a risk identification workshop, the team…
During a risk identification workshop, the team identifies a potential data leakage from a legacy system. What is the FIRST step the risk owner should take?
⚠ Common exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often jump to immediate remediation (like encryption) or escalation, forgetting that formal documentation is the mandatory first step to ensure traceability and compliance with risk management processes.
Answer choices
Why each option matters
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
✓
Document the risk and its source
The first step for the risk owner is to formally document the risk and its source. This ensures that the identified data leakage from the legacy system is captured in the risk register, establishing a baseline for analysis and treatment. Without documentation, subsequent steps like risk scoring, control implementation, or escalation cannot be properly justified or tracked.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
- ✗
Implement encryption immediately
Why it's wrong here
Implementing encryption addresses a symptom before the risk is understood; the risk owner must first assess likelihood and impact to determine whether treatment is warranted. Encryption is a control selection activity, appropriate later in risk response, once analysis confirms data leakage exposure exceeds the organisation's defined risk appetite and treatment is prioritised.
- ✓
Document the risk and its source
Why this is correct
Recording the risk and its source in the risk register creates the documented basis for subsequent analysis, evaluation and treatment. Until captured, the data leakage cannot be assessed or assigned, so documentation is the prerequisite first step before any response.
- ✗
Assign a risk score
Why it's wrong here
Scoring requires an assessed likelihood and impact, which do not yet exist for an unanalysed risk. It is tempting because scoring prioritises treatment, and would be correct once the risk has been analysed and its likelihood and impact determined.
- ✗
Report to senior management
Why it's wrong here
Escalation to senior management is a communication step, not risk identification; the risk owner must first analyse the legacy system's exposure and document the scenario before anyone can act on it. Reporting upward is tempting because governance demands oversight, and it would be right once a validated, prioritised risk needs a funding or acceptance decision.
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JA
Written by Johnson Ajibi, MSc IT Security
Senior Network & Security Engineer · founder of Courseiva
This CRISC practice question is part of Courseiva's free ISACA certification practice question bank. Courseiva provides original exam-style practice questions with explanations, topic-based practice, mock exams, readiness tracking, and study analytics to help learners prepare for the CRISC exam.