CRISC Risk Response and Mitigation Practice Question
During a risk assessment, the risk owner identifies that the residual risk level is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following actions should the risk owner take FIRST?
⚠ Common exam trap
Watch out — candidates often confuse the risk owner's authority with senior management's authority, assuming the risk owner can independently implement controls or adjust appetite without escalation.
Answer choices
Why each option matters
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
✓
Escalate to senior management
When residual risk exceeds risk appetite, the risk owner must escalate to senior management because they have the authority to accept the risk or allocate resources for additional controls. This aligns with the CRISC framework's principle that risk acceptance decisions beyond appetite are a management responsibility, not the risk owner's alone.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
- ✗
Update the risk register
Why it's wrong here
Updating the risk register does not address the exceedance.
- ✓
Escalate to senior management
Why this is correct
Residual risk exceeding appetite requires senior management decision.
- ✗
Implement additional controls
Why it's wrong here
Increasing controls may not be feasible without approval.
- ✗
Reduce the risk appetite
Why it's wrong here
Reducing appetite without addressing risk is not appropriate.
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JA
Written by Johnson Ajibi, MSc IT Security
Senior Network & Security Engineer · founder of Courseiva
This CRISC practice question is part of Courseiva's free ISACA certification practice question bank. Courseiva provides original exam-style practice questions with explanations, topic-based practice, mock exams, readiness tracking, and study analytics to help learners prepare for the CRISC exam.