CRISC IT Risk Assessment Practice Question
An organization has an inherent risk score of 20 for a process. After controls, the residual risk score is 8. If the control design is assessed as adequate but operating effectiveness is only 60%, what is the control effectiveness adjustment?
⚠ Common exam trap
It's easy for candidates to confuse the absolute risk reduction (12 points) with the percentage reduction relative to inherent risk, or mistakenly use the control effectiveness percentage (60%) as a multiplier on the residual risk instead of the reduction.
Answer choices
Why each option matters
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
✓
The controls reduce risk by 60%
The inherent risk score is 20, and the residual risk score is 8, meaning controls reduce risk by 12 points (20 – 8 = 12). This reduction of 12 out of 20 equals a 60% reduction (12/20 = 0.60). The control design is adequate, but operating effectiveness is only 60%, so the actual risk reduction achieved matches the operating effectiveness percentage. Thus, the control effectiveness adjustment is 60%.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
- ✗
The controls reduce risk by 20%
Why it's wrong here
Incorrect calculation.
- ✗
The controls have no effect
Why it's wrong here
Residual is lower than inherent.
- ✓
The controls reduce risk by 60%
Why this is correct
Residual risk is 40% of inherent, so reduction is 60%.
- ✗
The controls reduce risk by 40%
Why it's wrong here
That would leave 60% residual, not 8.
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JA
Written by Johnson Ajibi, MSc IT Security
Senior Network & Security Engineer · founder of Courseiva
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