CRISC Risk Response and Mitigation Practice Question
After implementing a new web application, the risk owner reports that the residual risk level is still above the risk appetite. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST action?
⚠ Common exam trap
Many exam-takers confuse the urgency of residual risk with the need to immediately escalate or accept it, when the correct first step is to revisit treatment options with the risk owner to see if further controls can close the gap.
Answer choices
Why each option matters
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
✓
Re-evaluate risk treatment options with the risk owner
When residual risk remains above the risk appetite after treatment, the risk practitioner must first re-evaluate the existing risk treatment options with the risk owner. This collaborative review identifies whether additional controls (e.g., stricter input validation, rate limiting, or Web Application Firewall tuning) can further reduce the risk to an acceptable level before considering escalation or acceptance.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
- ✓
Re-evaluate risk treatment options with the risk owner
Why this is correct
Residual risk exceeding appetite means the implemented treatment proved insufficient, so the practitioner must revisit treatment with the risk owner to identify additional or alternative controls. Re-evaluating options directly addresses the gap between current residual exposure and the defined appetite before escalation or acceptance is considered.
- ✗
Escalate directly to the board
Why it's wrong here
Escalating to the board bypasses the risk owner and the risk response process; the practitioner should first work with the owner to identify additional treatments. Board escalation is correct only after governance routes and management remedies have been exhausted.
- ✗
Update the risk register to reflect the residual risk
Why it's wrong here
Updating the register records the residual risk but does nothing to bring it within appetite; documentation is not treatment. It is tempting because register maintenance is a routine practitioner task, and it would be correct once a response has been selected and implemented, not before.
- ✗
Accept the residual risk
Why it's wrong here
Acceptance is a decision reserved for the risk owner once treatment options are exhausted, not a practitioner's first move. It is tempting because acceptance is a legitimate risk response, but it applies only after the owner formally acknowledges that residual risk exceeds appetite and chooses to retain it.
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JA
Written by Johnson Ajibi, MSc IT Security
Senior Network & Security Engineer · founder of Courseiva
This CRISC practice question is part of Courseiva's free ISACA certification practice question bank. Courseiva provides original exam-style practice questions with explanations, topic-based practice, mock exams, readiness tracking, and study analytics to help learners prepare for the CRISC exam.