CRISC IT Risk Assessment Practice Question
A risk analyst is assessing a critical application's inherent risk. After implementing controls, the residual risk is calculated as high. The analyst determines that the control design is adequate but operating effectiveness is poor. Which factor most likely explains the high residual risk?
Answer choices
Why each option matters
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
✓
Control operating effectiveness is poor
Residual risk = inherent risk adjusted for control effectiveness. If controls are well-designed but not operating effectively, they fail to reduce risk as intended, leading to high residual risk.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
- ✗
Control design is inadequate
Why it's wrong here
Incorrect; design was assessed adequate.
- ✓
Control operating effectiveness is poor
Why this is correct
Correct; poor operation means controls don't reduce risk as expected.
- ✗
Risk appetite was misstated
Why it's wrong here
Incorrect; residual risk is based on control effectiveness, not appetite.
- ✗
Inherent risk is too low
Why it's wrong here
Incorrect; inherent risk is typically high for critical apps.
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Written by Johnson Ajibi, MSc IT Security
Senior Network & Security Engineer · founder of Courseiva
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