NSE7 Advanced Networking and SD-WAN Practice Question
An administrator has configured an SD-WAN rule with the 'lowest-cost' strategy. The rule includes two members: port1 and port2. The administrator notices that all traffic is being sent over port1, even though port2 has a lower latency. Which factor is most likely causing this behavior?
⚠ Common exam trap
The trap here is assuming that the lowest-cost strategy considers latency, when it actually uses a manually configured cost value.
Answer choices
Why each option matters
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
✓
The cost of port1 is configured lower than the cost of port2.
The 'lowest-cost' strategy selects the member with the lowest configured cost. Even if another member has better performance metrics like latency, the cost takes precedence. Therefore, if port1 has a lower cost than port2, it will be selected for all traffic. Administrators must ensure costs are set appropriately to reflect the desired priority.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
- ✗
The SD-WAN rule is configured with 'maximize-bandwidth' instead of 'lowest-cost'.
Why it's wrong here
If the rule were configured with 'maximize-bandwidth', traffic would be distributed across both members based on available bandwidth, not all sent over one member. The scenario states the rule uses 'lowest-cost', so this is not the cause. The behavior described is consistent with 'lowest-cost' selecting the lower-cost member.
- ✓
The cost of port1 is configured lower than the cost of port2.
Why this is correct
In the 'lowest-cost' strategy, the FortiGate selects the member with the lowest cost. If port1 has a lower cost than port2, it will be chosen regardless of latency. The cost is a manual setting that can override performance metrics. This is the most likely reason for all traffic going over port1.
- ✗
Port2 is administratively down.
Why it's wrong here
If port2 were administratively down, it would not be a viable member, and traffic would indeed go over port1. However, the scenario implies port2 is up but not being used. The question asks for the most likely factor causing all traffic over port1 despite port2 having lower latency. An administrative down would be an obvious cause, but the scenario suggests port2 is operational.
- ✗
The performance SLA is not configured for port2.
Why it's wrong here
If the performance SLA is not configured for port2, port2 might be considered dead or not monitored, but that would typically cause traffic to avoid port2. However, the issue is that traffic is going over port1 despite port2 having lower latency. The SLA configuration could be a factor, but it is not the most likely cause if port1 is being selected.
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JA
Written and reviewed by Johnson Ajibi, MSc IT Security
Senior Network & Security Engineer · founder of Courseiva
Last reviewed September 2026 · checked against the official Fortinet exam blueprint
This NSE7 practice question is part of Courseiva's free Fortinet certification practice question bank. Courseiva provides original exam-style practice questions with explanations, topic-based practice, mock exams, readiness tracking, and study analytics to help learners prepare for the NSE7 exam.