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CCNA Incident Response Questions

49 questions · Incident Response topic · All types, answers revealed

1
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE actions are part of the 'Recovery' phase?

Select 3 answers
A.Monitoring for reinfection
B.Increasing the analyst's pay
C.Deleting the original ticket
D.Restoring from clean backups
E.Validating system integrity
AnswersA, D, E

Critical for stability post-restore.

Why this answer

Restoring systems from clean backups, monitoring for reinfection, and validating system integrity are recovery actions.

2
MCQmedium

A suspicious PowerShell script is found on an endpoint. Which tool would you use to perform volatile memory analysis to identify if the script injected malicious code?

A.Volatility
B.Nmap
C.Autopsy
D.Wireshark
E.Procmon
AnswerA

Volatility is designed for analyzing process memory structures.

Why this answer

Volatility is the industry-standard tool for memory forensics and analysis of injected code.

3
MCQhard

A SIEM alert indicates multiple failed logins followed by a successful login from a new IP in Splunk Enterprise Security. As a first responder, which dashboard should you navigate to in order to verify the MITRE ATT&CK mapping of this behavior?

A.Threat Intelligence dashboard
B.Access Anomalies dashboard
C.User Activity Monitoring
D.Incident Review dashboard
AnswerD

Incident Review provides the contextual mapping to MITRE ATT&CK.

Why this answer

The Incident Review dashboard allows analysts to view the MITRE ATT&CK tactics and techniques associated with notable events.

4
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE tools are typically used for forensic memory analysis?

Select 3 answers
A.Volatility
B.Nmap
C.Rekall
D.MemProcFS
E.Wireshark
AnswersA, C, D

Industry standard tool.

Why this answer

Volatility, MemProcFS, and Rekall are the primary tools used for memory forensics.

5
MCQmedium

You are analyzing an alert for a suspicious PowerShell command. Which logging setting must be enabled on Windows endpoints to capture the full command-line arguments?

A.PowerShell Script Block Logging
B.AppLocker
C.Credential Guard
D.Audit Process Creation
AnswerA

This logs the full content of the script block executed.

Why this answer

Script Block Logging (Event ID 4104) is required to capture the full content of executed PowerShell scripts.

6
MCQhard

You are managing a containment procedure for an external C2 callback. Which firewall rule configuration is most effective for immediate containment?

A.Allow all, then log
B.Enable Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) in 'Alert' mode
C.Enable SSL Inspection
D.Deny egress to the specific destination IP
AnswerD

This terminates the C2 channel immediately.

Why this answer

Blocking the egress connection to the specific malicious IP at the perimeter firewall is the fastest way to stop C2 communication.

7
MCQhard

You notice an anomaly in your DNS traffic. Which type of DNS record is commonly associated with DNS tunneling for command and control?

A.A record
B.TXT record
C.CNAME record
D.MX record
AnswerB

TXT records can store arbitrary string data used for tunneling.

Why this answer

TXT records are commonly used in DNS tunneling to encode data within the record's payload.

8
MCQeasy

What is the primary goal of the 'Eradication' phase in incident response?

A.To identify the root cause
B.To remove the threat from the environment
C.To restore business operations
D.To report to stakeholders
AnswerB

Eradication is the process of cleaning the environment.

Why this answer

To remove all traces of the threat (malware, backdoors, compromised accounts) from the environment.

9
MCQeasy

During incident triage, you realize an alert is a False Positive. What is the most appropriate action to take within the SIEM ticketing system?

A.Assign it to another team to verify
B.Set status to 'Closed' with resolution code 'False Positive'
C.Ignore the ticket and let it expire
D.Delete the incident
AnswerB

This follows standard lifecycle management for SOC tickets.

Why this answer

Closing the ticket as 'False Positive' with a mandatory comment ensures the audit trail reflects why the alert was dismissed.

10
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO steps are part of the 'Preparation' phase of the incident response process?

Select 2 answers
A.Writing the final report
B.Containment of the breach
C.Root cause analysis
D.Training personnel
E.Developing IR policies
AnswersD, E

Preparedness depends on capable staff.

Why this answer

Having tools and policies in place is what preparation is all about.

11
MCQmedium

During a suspected malware incident, a SOC analyst needs to isolate an infected workstation using Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. Which specific action should the analyst select within the Device inventory dashboard?

A.Restrict application execution
B.Isolate device
C.Device tagging
D.Run antivirus scan
AnswerB

Isolate device is the correct action to contain the threat by severing network connectivity.

Why this answer

Isolate device stops network traffic to the host while keeping the communication with the Microsoft Defender for Endpoint service open.

12
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of a 'War Room' during a major incident?

A.To store physical evidence
B.To hide the incident from the public
C.To conduct IT maintenance
D.To centralize real-time communication and coordination
AnswerD

This is the definition of a war room purpose.

Why this answer

To centralize communication, expedite decision-making, and coordinate response efforts among stakeholders.

13
MCQeasy

What is the main objective of the 'Post-Incident Activity' phase?

A.To close all firewall ports
B.To discipline the employee involved
C.To identify lessons learned and improve future response
D.To delete all evidence
AnswerC

This is the core objective of the lessons learned meeting.

Why this answer

To learn from the incident to improve future response, capabilities, and security posture.

14
MCQeasy

Which document is essential for recording every action taken during an incident for legal and audit purposes?

A.Change Management Request
B.System Configuration Document
C.Business Continuity Plan
D.Incident Response Log/Journal
AnswerD

The log ensures accountability and traceability.

Why this answer

An Incident Log (or Journal) is mandatory for maintaining a chronological record of all response actions.

15
MCQhard

You are remediating a compromised web server. After identifying the web shell, what is the next step to prevent further access?

A.Remove the malicious file and rotate credentials
B.Flush DNS
C.Restart the web service
D.Update the OS
AnswerA

This removes the access point and invalidates any credentials stolen.

Why this answer

After identifying the web shell, removing the file and resetting the web application credentials is the critical next step.

16
MCQhard

You are investigating a data exfiltration incident. Which protocol's logs would most likely show large volumes of data being moved to a cloud storage provider?

A.DHCP logs
B.NTP logs
C.HTTP/HTTPS proxy logs
D.SNMP logs
AnswerC

These logs show the destination URL and volume of data transferred.

Why this answer

HTTP/HTTPS (proxy/firewall) logs are the most common indicator of exfiltration to cloud services.

17
MCQeasy

A ticket is assigned to you with high priority. What is the first thing you should do?

A.Verify the alert and scope the incident
B.Call the CISO
C.Isolate the host immediately
D.Email the user
AnswerA

Scoping and validation are the first steps in triage.

Why this answer

Verify the alert's validity to ensure it is not a false positive before proceeding with full containment.

18
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO types of evidence should be collected during the identification phase of an incident?

Select 2 answers
A.System event logs
B.Employee performance reviews
C.Disk images
D.Coffee machine logs
E.Building access badges
AnswersA, C

Crucial for audit trail.

Why this answer

Logs and disk images provide the raw data necessary for reconstruction.

19
MCQmedium

When an analyst suspects that a malicious user is using a VPN to hide their source IP, which technique is most helpful for attribution?

A.Analyzing DNS queries
B.Checking OS version
C.Comparing source IP against threat intel feeds of VPN exit nodes
D.Scanning the source IP
AnswerC

This is the standard approach to identify proxy/VPN usage.

Why this answer

Reviewing connection logs for anomalous login times and comparing them against known VPN exit node lists is the primary technique.

20
MCQeasy

While using ServiceNow Security Incident Response (SIR), you need to escalate a ticket. What is the standard process to ensure the security manager receives notification?

A.Update the Work notes with an @mention to the manager
B.Delete the ticket and create a new one
C.Manually email the manager with incident details
D.Change the State to 'Closed'
AnswerA

Using @mentions within the work notes notifies the relevant stakeholders via the platform.

Why this answer

Updating the 'Assigned to' or 'Assignment group' fields while using the 'Work notes' to trigger a business rule notification is the standard workflow.

21
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO methods are commonly used to achieve persistence on a Windows host?

Select 2 answers
A.Changing the desktop wallpaper
B.Clearing browser cache
C.Registry Run keys
D.Disabling the firewall
E.Scheduled tasks
AnswersC, E

Classic persistence technique.

Why this answer

Scheduled tasks and Registry run keys are the most common methods for maintaining persistence.

22
MCQmedium

You are performing triage for an alert involving unauthorized access to an S3 bucket. Which service would you consult to review the API calls made to that bucket?

A.Amazon GuardDuty
B.AWS CloudTrail
C.AWS Config
D.AWS IAM Access Analyzer
AnswerB

CloudTrail records all API activity.

Why this answer

AWS CloudTrail logs all API calls made within an AWS account, including S3 operations.

23
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO indicators should an analyst watch for in a potential phishing campaign?

Select 2 answers
A.Suspicious sender address
B.The email is sent during business hours
C.The email has a subject line
D.The email is from the CEO
E.Urgent/threatening tone
AnswersA, E

Primary indicator of spoofing.

Why this answer

Unusual sender addresses and urgent language are classic phishing indicators.

24
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE items should be included in a standard incident containment report?

Select 3 answers
A.Current status of affected hosts
B.Timestamp of containment actions
C.The analyst's home address
D.Employee payroll details
E.Technical methods used for containment
AnswersA, B, E

Required for situational awareness.

Why this answer

The report must detail what was done, when, and the status of the containment.

25
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE factors should be considered when determining the severity level of an incident?

Select 3 answers
A.The analyst's mood
B.Business impact
C.Data sensitivity
D.The day of the week
E.Urgency
AnswersB, C, E

Critical for severity.

Why this answer

Impact, urgency, and the sensitivity of the data define severity.

26
MCQmedium

During a phishing investigation, you receive a suspicious link. Which safety measure should you use to analyze the link?

A.Open the link in your local browser
B.Download the link contents to your desktop
C.Forward the email to your personal account
D.Use a sandboxed/isolated browser environment
AnswerD

This protects the analyst's machine while allowing investigation.

Why this answer

A secure sandbox or isolated browser provides a safe environment to observe the link's behavior.

27
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO types of logs are most useful for detecting lateral movement?

Select 2 answers
A.System temperature logs
B.Application log
C.Windows Event Log (Logon events)
D.Network flow logs (SMB/RDP)
E.Printer spooler logs
AnswersC, D

Detects account movement.

Why this answer

Authentication logs (logons) and network traffic (NetFlow/SMB) are the primary indicators of lateral movement.

28
MCQhard

You are auditing user access logs for a potential privilege escalation. What indicates that a user has successfully used 'runas' to switch context?

A.Event ID 4624 with Logon Type 9
B.Event ID 4670
C.Event ID 4625
D.Event ID 1102
AnswerA

Logon Type 9 indicates a 'NewCredentials' logon, typical of runas.

Why this answer

Event ID 4672 (Special privileges assigned to new logon) combined with 4624 (Logon type 9) indicates a runas session.

29
MCQeasy

In the context of the MITRE ATT&CK framework, what is the primary goal of the 'Command and Control' tactic?

A.To escalate privileges
B.To maintain persistent communication
C.To steal data
D.To gain initial access
AnswerB

C2 is defined by the maintainance of communication.

Why this answer

The goal is to maintain communication between the compromised system and the attacker's infrastructure.

30
MCQhard

When dealing with a ransomware incident, why should you prioritize disconnecting the host from the network over immediate rebooting?

A.Rebooting takes too long
B.Rebooting resets the firewall
C.Rebooting may cause data loss in volatile memory
D.Rebooting alerts the attacker
AnswerC

Memory contains keys and malicious process artifacts that are lost on reboot.

Why this answer

Rebooting can cause the ransomware to execute encryption routines or clear volatile memory artifacts needed for forensics.

31
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE factors contribute to 'dwell time' in a security incident?

Select 3 answers
A.Inadequate logging visibility
B.The number of coffee machines in the SOC
C.The speed of the network
D.Insufficient automated alerting
E.Lack of threat intelligence
AnswersA, D, E

Poor visibility leads to delayed detection.

Why this answer

Dwell time is the duration between the start of an intrusion and its detection.

32
MCQmedium

You need to export a PCAP for a suspicious network flow. Using Wireshark, which filter would you use to isolate traffic from a specific suspicious source IP 192.168.1.50?

A.ip.addr == 192.168.1.50
B.src.ip == 192.168.1.50
C.ip.src == 192.168.1.50
D.filter: 192.168.1.50
AnswerC

This correctly filters for source traffic only.

Why this answer

The 'ip.src' filter isolates traffic originating from the specified source IP.

33
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of an IOC (Indicator of Compromise) in an incident?

A.To validate and scope the threat
B.To communicate with law enforcement
C.To prevent future incidents
D.To manage system backups
AnswerA

IOCs provide empirical evidence to confirm and trace a threat.

Why this answer

IOCs act as signatures or artifacts that help confirm the presence of a threat.

34
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO actions should be taken immediately upon identifying an active malware infection on a workstation?

Select 2 answers
A.Reboot the machine
B.Disable the user account associated
C.Delete the malware file
D.Isolate the host from the network
E.Update antivirus definitions
AnswersB, D

Prevents the attacker from continuing to use the compromised creds.

Why this answer

Isolating the host prevents spreading; disconnecting the network allows for forensics without alerting the malware to changes.

35
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO pieces of information are critical to include in an initial incident ticket?

Select 2 answers
A.Affected systems/users
B.The salary of the analyst
C.The color of the server rack
D.Source of the alert
E.Name of the CEO
AnswersA, D

Scopes the impact.

Why this answer

Knowing who is affected and the source of the alert is critical for triage.

36
MCQeasy

In the NIST Incident Response lifecycle, which phase involves the identification of the incident type and scope?

A.Preparation
B.Post-Incident Activity
C.Containment, Eradication, and Recovery
D.Detection and Analysis
AnswerD

This phase formally identifies the incident and its characteristics.

Why this answer

The Detection and Analysis phase focuses on identifying, validating, and scoping the incident.

37
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO items are part of the 'Lessons Learned' process?

Select 2 answers
A.Firing the employee who made the mistake
B.Changing the building security code
C.Identifying what went well
D.Purchasing new snacks for the SOC
E.Identifying process improvements
AnswersC, E

Core goal of the meeting.

Why this answer

Identifying what went wrong and what went right improves future responses.

38
MCQmedium

You are using an EDR to hunt for persistent scheduled tasks. Which artifact should you analyze to see tasks created within the last 24 hours?

A.Registry 'Run' keys
B.System event logs (Event ID 4698)
C.Application event logs
D.Security event logs (Event ID 4624)
AnswerB

Event ID 4698 captures scheduled task creation.

Why this answer

The Task Scheduler event logs, specifically Event ID 4698, document the creation of scheduled tasks.

39
MCQmedium

You are investigating a suspicious login. Which attribute in the Azure AD sign-in logs helps determine if the user successfully authenticated using MFA?

A.MFA Result
B.Device ID
C.Risk State
D.Conditional Access Status
AnswerA

This indicates whether MFA was satisfied.

Why this answer

The 'Authentication Requirement' or 'MFA Result' fields in Azure AD logs detail the MFA challenge status.

40
MCQmedium

You are triaging an alert in CrowdStrike Falcon. An endpoint shows a 'Suspicious File' detection. To verify the process tree and identify the parent process, which view do you use?

A.Host Timeline
B.Detection Details
C.Process Tree
D.Network Activity
AnswerC

The Process Tree displays the parent-child relationships of execution.

Why this answer

The Process Tree in CrowdStrike Falcon visualizes the genealogy of the process that triggered the detection.

41
MCQhard

During a suspected lateral movement incident, you observe successful SMB sessions between two workstations. Which tool in Windows can be used to view these active sessions?

A.wmic
B.Get-SmbSession
C.tasklist
D.ipconfig
AnswerB

This command lists current SMB sessions.

Why this answer

The 'net sessions' or 'net file' command provides info on local sessions, but 'Get-SmbSession' is the modern PowerShell equivalent for this analysis.

42
MCQeasy

Which document should you reference first to determine the communication path during a high-severity security incident?

A.Incident Response Plan
B.Employee Handbook
C.Network Topology Diagram
D.Disaster Recovery Plan
AnswerA

IRP provides the necessary communication structure.

Why this answer

The Incident Response Plan (IRP) specifically defines the roles, responsibilities, and communication channels for incidents.

43
MCQmedium

An analyst is reviewing logs in Splunk to investigate a potential exfiltration event. Which field should the analyst focus on to identify the volume of data sent to an external IP?

A.session_duration
B.source_port
C.packets_received
D.bytes_sent
AnswerD

This field tracks data egress volume.

Why this answer

In common flow logs like NetFlow or firewall logs, 'bytes_sent' or 'bytes_out' indicates the amount of data transferred.

44
MCQhard

During an investigation, you need to perform a live acquisition of a suspect's system memory using FTK Imager. What is the correct order of operations to maintain integrity?

A.Reboot, then memory dump
B.Disk image, then memory dump
C.Suspend, then disk image
D.Memory dump, then disk image
AnswerD

Memory is volatile and must be captured before disk.

Why this answer

Always capture volatile memory first, then disk, as memory changes constantly.

45
MCQhard

While analyzing an incident involving a malicious domain, you need to determine when the domain was registered. Which database should you query?

A.DNSSEC database
B.IP Reputation database
C.WHOIS database
D.Passive DNS database
AnswerC

WHOIS contains registration history and dates.

Why this answer

WHOIS databases provide registration details for domain names.

46
MCQhard

During a suspected breach, you identify a rogue process running on a Linux server. Which command identifies the network socket associated with this process?

A.top
B.netstat -tulnp
C.ps aux
D.lsmod
AnswerB

The -p flag shows the PID associated with the socket.

Why this answer

The 'netstat -tulnp' or 'ss -tulnp' command shows the process ID alongside the listening socket.

47
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE actions are appropriate during the eradication phase of a malware incident?

Select 3 answers
A.Patching the underlying vulnerability
B.Scanning the network for other infected hosts
C.Adding the attacker on social media
D.Removing malicious binaries
E.Deleting the entire server
AnswersA, B, D

Prevents re-infection.

Why this answer

Cleaning the malware, patching the vulnerability, and scanning the environment are core eradication steps.

48
MCQmedium

You need to verify if an executable is malicious. Which site is most effective for checking the hash against multiple antivirus engines?

A.VirusTotal
B.Google Search
C.Microsoft Update
D.WHOIS
AnswerA

VirusTotal checks hashes against a massive engine database.

Why this answer

VirusTotal aggregates results from multiple AV vendors, providing a comprehensive report on a file hash.

49
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE elements are essential in an incident notification email to senior management?

Select 3 answers
A.Business impact assessment
B.The personal phone number of the attacker
C.High-level summary of the incident
D.The full raw packet dump
E.Expected next steps/timeline
AnswersA, C, E

Management cares about the bottom line.

Why this answer

Management needs to know the impact, current status, and next steps.

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