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CCNA Network Security Controls Protocols And Devices Questions

37 questions · Network Security Controls Protocols And Devices · All types, answers revealed

1
Multi-Selectmedium

A network administrator is configuring an intrusion prevention system (IPS) and needs to understand how signature-based and anomaly-based detection engines operate. Which TWO statements accurately describe anomaly-based IPS detection? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.It establishes a baseline of normal network traffic patterns and detects deviations from that baseline.
B.It is highly effective at detecting previously unknown zero-day attacks that lack known signatures.
C.It relies on an up-to-date database of known malware signatures and explicit attack strings.
D.It guarantees zero false positive alerts in high-throughput enterprise network environments.
E.It requires manual updates from vendor threat intelligence feeds every time a new vulnerability is discovered.
AnswersA, B

Anomaly detection builds a behavioral baseline and flags deviations.

Why this answer

Anomaly-based detection establishes a baseline of normal network behavior and generates alerts when deviations occur, making it effective against zero-day attacks, though it can suffer from higher false positive rates.

2
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is designing a redundant network architecture to prevent single points of failure at the gateway level. Which THREE protocols or features are commonly used to provide gateway redundancy and high availability for default routers or firewalls? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)
B.Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)
C.Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) root guard
D.Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) snooping
E.Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
AnswersA, B, E

HSRP is a Cisco proprietary FHRP providing gateway redundancy.

Why this answer

VRRP, HSRP, and GLBP are standard First Hop Redundancy Protocols (FHRPs) used to provide default gateway redundancy for endpoints.

3
MCQeasy

A corporate network is segmented into multiple zones. The security policy dictates that the Finance department subnet must be completely isolated from the Guest Wi-Fi subnet, and traffic between them must pass through a security device enforcing access control lists. Where should this security device be placed?

A.On the internal network boundary between the Finance and Guest VLANs
B.At the perimeter boundary directly connected to the ISP modem
C.On the local loopback interface of each end-user workstation
D.Inside the ISP core routing infrastructure
AnswerA

An internal firewall or routing boundary placed between distinct internal zones enforces security controls on east-west traffic.

Why this answer

To enforce policies and filter traffic between two distinct internal subnets or zones, the security device must be placed at the internal routing boundary, typically on an internal firewall interface acting as the default gateway for those subnets.

4
MCQeasy

An organization wants to protect internal workstations by deploying a host-based firewall that evaluates inbound and outbound connection requests based on application executable names rather than just IP addresses and port numbers. Which Windows built-in security feature provides this capability?

A.Windows User Account Control (UAC)
B.Windows Defender Firewall with Advanced Security
C.Windows BitLocker Drive Encryption
D.Windows Subsystem for Linux (WSL)
AnswerB

The advanced Windows firewall natively supports application-aware rule creation based on file paths and executable signatures.

Why this answer

Windows Defender Firewall with Advanced Security allows administrators to create inbound and outbound rules based on specific application paths, services, and executable names.

5
MCQmedium

A security engineer is configuring a stateful inspection firewall and needs to handle incoming traffic for an active FTP data connection operating in passive mode. What specific challenge does passive FTP present to the firewall, and how does the firewall resolve it?

A.The firewall must permanently open all ports above 1024 to allow inbound FTP file transfers.
B.Passive FTP encrypts the control channel by default, preventing the firewall from inspecting port numbers.
C.The client uses UDP port 69, which requires disabling stateful inspection for TFTP traffic.
D.The server initiates a connection back to a random client port, which is blocked unless an Application Layer Gateway (ALG) dynamically opens the port.
AnswerD

Passive FTP requires an FTP ALG on the firewall to inspect control commands and dynamically permit the server-specified data port.

Why this answer

In passive FTP, the client initiates both the control and data connections, but the server dictates the dynamic high-port number for the data channel. Stateful firewalls use an application layer gateway (ALG) inspect the FTP control channel negotiation to dynamically open the required high-port for the data connection.

6
Multi-Selectmedium

A security engineer needs to configure secure log management and transmission from edge firewalls and switches to a centralized SIEM server. Which TWO protocols or features ensure that log data is transmitted securely and integrally across the network? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Unencrypted UDP Syslog (Port 514)
B.Encrypted log forwarding via HTTPS REST APIs to the SIEM collector
C.Syslog over TLS (TCP Port 6514)
D.Unauthenticated TFTP log backup transfers
E.SNMPv1 trap forwarding
AnswersB, C

Using encrypted HTTPS APIs ensures confidentiality and integrity of log transmissions.

Why this answer

Standard Syslog (UDP 514) transmits logs in cleartext. Secure transmission requires Syslog over TLS or encrypted forwarding mechanisms like SECURE SNMP/SFTP/HTTPS log shipping.

7
MCQhard

An enterprise is deploying an IPsec site-to-site VPN. The security team wants to ensure that if an attacker captures today's encrypted network traffic, they cannot decrypt it even if they eventually compromise the long-term preshared keys or private keys used during the initial key exchange. What cryptographic property must be enforced?

A.Authenticated Encryption with Associated Data (AEAD) using GCM mode
B.Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) via ephemeral Diffie-Hellman key exchanges
C.Anti-replay protection using sequence number windows
D.RSA signature-based peer authentication
AnswerB

PFS ensures session keys are ephemeral and not derived from long-term master keys, protecting historical captured traffic.

Why this answer

Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) ensures that session keys derived from Diffie-Hellman key exchanges are independent of long-term root secret keys, meaning compromise of the master keys does not compromise past session data.

8
MCQhard

An organization is deploying an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) in an enterprise data center. To minimize latency and avoid becoming a single point of failure that disrupts network uptime if the hardware fails, the engineering team chooses a specific deployment topology. Which deployment option provides inline inspection with hardware-level bypass capability?

A.Configuring the IPS as an out-of-band active response server using SNMP traps.
B.Placing the IPS behind a load balancer using round-robin DNS routing.
C.Deploying the IPS inline equipped with hardware fail-open optical/electrical bypass tap modules
D.Deploying the IPS in passive tap mode using a network packet broker span session.
AnswerC

Hardware bypass modules automatically bridge network ports during power failure, maintaining high availability for inline security devices.

Why this answer

An inline deployment with an optical or electrical bypass tap (fail-open NIC) ensures that if the IPS loses power or crashes, the network links physically bridge together, allowing traffic to continue flowing without dropping connectivity.

9
MCQhard

An enterprise network security team is analyzing BGP routing anomalies at the internet edge. An attacker is attempting to inject malicious routing updates to hijack corporate IP space (BGP prefix hijacking). Which mechanism should the network edge routers implement to cryptographically verify the origin autonomy of IP prefixes?

A.Resource Public Key Infrastructure (RPKI) with Route Origin Validation (ROV)
B.DNSSEC zone signing across all authoritative name servers
C.OSPFv3 authentication trailers using HMAC-SHA-256
D.IPsec Transport Mode with pre-shared keys
AnswerA

RPKI uses digital certificates to validate that an AS is authorized to originate a specific IP prefix, defending against BGP hijacking.

Why this answer

Resource Public Key Infrastructure (RPKP) allows resource holders to cryptographically associate IP address blocks with their legitimate Autonomous System Number (ASN) via Route Origin Authorizations (ROAs), preventing BGP hijacking.

10
MCQeasy

A network administrator needs to deploy a security device that inspects inbound HTTP and HTTPS traffic at the application layer and drops requests containing SQL injection signatures before they reach the web server. Which device should the administrator deploy?

A.Network Intrusion Prevention System (NIPS)
B.Packet filtering router
C.Traditional Stateful Packet Inspection Firewall
D.Web Application Firewall (WAF)
AnswerD

A WAF provides Layer 7 application inspection, specifically tailored to detect and block web attacks such as SQL injection.

Why this answer

A Web Application Firewall (WAF) operates at Layer 7 and is specifically designed to inspect HTTP/HTTPS traffic and protect web applications against attacks like SQL injection and cross-site scripting.

11
MCQmedium

A company is implementing a next-generation firewall (NGFW) and wants to inspect encrypted HTTPS traffic traversing the network without triggering browser certificate warning errors on corporate-managed endpoints. Which deployment method achieves this?

A.Disable certificate validation checks on all user web browsers via group policy.
B.Configure the firewall in passive tap mode using asymmetric decryption keys derived from the public web server's private key.
C.Install a self-signed certificate generated by the firewall onto the firewall itself.
D.Deploy an internal Enterprise CA-signed forward proxy decryption certificate to all managed endpoints' trusted root stores.
AnswerD

Endpoints must trust the issuing CA of the firewall's re-signing certificate to prevent certificate warning errors during HTTPS inspection.

Why this answer

To inspect HTTPS traffic without causing SSL/TLS warnings, the NGFW must perform SSL/TLS decryption (Forward Proxy) and be configured to issue dynamically generated certificates signed by the organization's internal Enterprise Root Certificate Authority, which is pre-installed on all corporate endpoints.

12
Multi-Selecthard

An enterprise security architect is designing a Zero Trust network segmentation model. Which THREE core principles are foundational to Zero Trust architecture regarding network access and device verification? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Assuming breach and inspecting all traffic regardless of whether it originates internally or externally
B.Implicit trust of internal network segments once a user connects to the corporate LAN or VPN
C.Enforcement of least privilege access limiting users to only the specific applications they require
D.Continuous verification of user identity and device security posture for every access request
E.Static perimeter firewalls as the sole security control required to protect enterprise assets
AnswersA, C, D

'Assume breach' requires logging, monitoring, and inspecting all internal and external east-west traffic.

Why this answer

Zero Trust principles dictate continuous verification, least privilege access, and assuming breach rather than trusting internal zones implicitly.

13
MCQmedium

A network engineer is configuring an OpenVPN server in TUN mode for remote workers. What is the fundamental characteristic of TUN mode compared to TAP mode regarding network layer operation?

A.TUN mode operates at Layer 3 (Network Layer) routing IP packets without layer 2 broadcast traffic.
B.TUN mode only supports TCP transport and cannot function over UDP connections.
C.TUN mode operates at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) handling Ethernet frames and broadcasts.
D.TUN mode requires the use of MAC-level bridging across all connected client interfaces.
AnswerA

TUN virtual network interfaces process Layer 3 IP packets directly, making them more efficient and secure for routed VPN tunnels.

Why this answer

TUN mode operates at Layer 3 (Network Layer), routing IP packets. TAP mode operates at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer), handling Ethernet frames and allowing bridged broadcast traffic.

14
MCQmedium

A security analyst observes that an internal host is generating excessive DNS queries containing encoded data within subdomains, indicative of a DNS tunneling attack. The network perimeter firewall allows outbound DNS traffic on UDP port 53 to any external IP. Which network security control should be implemented to mitigate this threat?

A.Block all outbound TCP and UDP port 53 traffic globally across the entire perimeter firewall
B.Force all internal clients to query only designated internal DNS resolvers and block direct outbound port 53 to external IPs
C.Implement an HTTP web proxy to inspect all DNS packets at Layer 7
D.Enable spanning-tree root guard on all switch access ports
AnswerB

Restricting DNS queries to internal forwarders allows the organization to monitor, log, and filter abnormal DNS tunneling patterns effectively.

Why this answer

To prevent DNS tunneling, organizations should restrict outbound DNS queries so that internal hosts can only query authorized, internal DNS resolvers (such as corporate DNS forwarders), which then inspect or proxy external requests, blocking direct external port 53 traffic to arbitrary IPs.

15
MCQhard

A network engineer is configuring TLS 1.3 on an enterprise load balancer. During cipher suite selection, the engineer observes that cipher suites like TLS_ECDHE_RSA_WITH_AES_128_GCM_SHA256 are no longer listed in the configuration menu. What is the primary reason for this change in TLS 1.3?

A.TLS 1.3 separates key exchange parameters from cipher suites, simplifying options to AEAD algorithms
B.TLS 1.3 eliminates symmetric encryption in favor of asynchronous cryptographic operations for all data payloads
C.TLS 1.3 requires all connections to use legacy RSA key transport mechanisms
D.TLS 1.3 mandates the use of pre-shared keys (PSKs) exclusively for all sessions
AnswerA

TLS 1.3 restructured cipher suites so that key exchange is negotiated independently, and only authenticated encryption with associated data (AEAD) ciphers are permitted.

Why this answer

TLS 1.3 decouples key exchange algorithms from authentication algorithms and removes obsolete static RSA and static DH cipher suites, supporting only AEAD (Authenticated Encryption with Associated Data) ciphers and modern key exchange methods.

16
MCQmedium

A security engineer is tasked with restricting network access to a sensitive database server so that only the application server VLAN can communicate with it on TCP port 1433. The database server is hosted on a virtualized hypervisor switch. Where should this micro-segmentation control be implemented for optimal enforcement?

A.By modifying the DNS records of the database server to point to a sinkhole
B.On the core router's default gateway interface for the entire data center
C.Using a distributed virtual firewall configured at the hypervisor switch layer
D.On the perimeter firewall facing the internet gateway
AnswerC

Distributed firewalls operate at the virtual switch level, providing micro-segmentation directly adjacent to the VM vNICs regardless of VLAN boundaries.

Why this answer

Micro-segmentation is best implemented using distributed firewall rules directly at the hypervisor virtual switch level (or host firewall) to control traffic between virtual machines on the same physical host or VLAN.

17
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is hardening its wireless network infrastructure to prevent unauthorized client association and eavesdropping. Which TWO wireless security mechanisms should be enforced according to modern enterprise standards? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.IEEE 802.1X port-based authentication backed by a RADIUS server infrastructure
B.WPA2-Personal with a shared pre-shared key (PSK) written on the office whiteboard
C.Open authentication with a captive portal for guest acceptance of terms
D.WPA3-Enterprise with Protected EAP (PEAP) or TLS authentication
E.Legacy WEP encryption with static 128-bit shared keys
AnswersA, D

802.1X provides strong centralized authentication for enterprise wireless and wired access.

Why this answer

WPA3-Enterprise and 802.1X/EAP authentication represent the current standard for secure enterprise wireless networks. WEP and open networks are insecure.

18
MCQmedium

An organization is configuring an IPsec VPN tunnel between two branch offices using Cisco IOS routers. The engineering team requires the use of a secure key exchange method that provides perfect forward secrecy (PFS) during the Phase 1 Internet Key Exchange (IKEv1) negotiation. Which Phase 1 mode must be selected?

A.Transport Mode
B.Aggressive Mode
C.Main Mode
D.Quick Mode
AnswerC

Main Mode uses a six-message exchange that protects identity and incorporates a Diffie-Hellman exchange, ensuring PFS for the IPsec security associations.

Why this answer

Main Mode in IKEv1 protects the identity of the peers and uses Diffie-Hellman exchanges to derive keying material, which ensures Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) for the phase 2 keys derived from it. Aggressive Mode does not protect peer identities.

19
Multi-Selectmedium

A network engineer is configuring IPsec site-to-site VPN policies. During Phase 2 negotiations, which TWO parameters must match identically on both VPN peers for the security association (SA) to establish successfully? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.The physical interface speed (e.g., 1 Gbps vs 10 Gbps) of the WAN ports
B.IPsec Encapsulation Mode (Tunnel mode or Transport mode)
C.The local device hostname configured in the router's global configuration
D.The SNMP community string configured on the management plane
E.IPsec Transform Set (Encryption and Integrity algorithms, e.g., AES-256 and SHA-256)
AnswersB, E

Both peers must agree on whether Tunnel or Transport mode is used for encapsulation.

Why this answer

Phase 2 (IPsec) negotiations require agreement on encapsulation mode (Transport/Tunnel) and the cryptographic transform set (encryption and integrity algorithms). Pre-shared keys and Diffie-Hellman groups for Phase 1 are handled in Phase 1 (IKE).

20
Multi-Selecthard

A security analyst is investigating a compromised network segment and discovers that an attacker bypassed network perimeter access controls by tunneling malicious command-and-control traffic through allowed protocols. Which THREE protocols are most commonly abused for covert data exfiltration and tunneling through corporate firewalls? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)
B.HTTPS / TLS (Port 443)
C.BGP (Border Gateway Protocol, Port 179)
D.DNS (Port 53)
E.RIP (Routing Information Protocol, UDP Port 520)
AnswersA, B, D

ICMP tunneling embeds payload data within echo request and reply packets, often left uninspected by basic firewalls.

Why this answer

DNS, HTTPS (TLS), and ICMP are frequently abused protocols for tunneling because corporate firewalls almost always permit outbound traffic on these ports to maintain business functionality.

21
MCQhard

A security architect is designing a Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) solution to replace a legacy remote access VPN. Unlike traditional VPNs that grant network-level access upon initial authentication, how does a true service-initiated ZTNA architecture handle application access for a remote user?

A.It extends the corporate VLAN directly to the user's laptop via an encrypted tunnel.
B.It authenticates the user, verifies device posture, and brokers a secure, single-application connection without exposing the network layer.
C.It relies on static firewall access control lists pre-configured with the user's home IP address.
D.It assigns a private IP address from a DHCP pool managed by the internal core router.
AnswerB

ZTNA provides identity- and context-aware, least-privilege access to individual applications rather than granting network-layer connectivity.

Why this answer

Service-initiated ZTNA hides application infrastructure from discovery (dark cloud/dark app), requiring the user to authenticate and pass posture checks before a secure proxy broker establishes a direct, encrypted connection to the specific application, never granting broad network access.

22
MCQeasy

A network administrator is setting up a secure remote management channel for Linux servers across the public internet. The security policy mandates that Telnet must not be used. Which protocol should be implemented?

A.SSH (Secure Shell)
B.HTTP
C.SNMPv1
D.FTP
AnswerA

SSH provides strong cryptographic authentication and encryption for remote command-line administration.

Why this answer

SSH (Secure Shell) provides a secure, encrypted channel for remote administrative access, replacing insecure legacy protocols like Telnet, rlogin, and rsh.

23
MCQhard

A network administrator is configuring a high-availability pair of firewalls in active/passive mode using virtual router redundancy protocol (VRRP). During a failover event, active TCP sessions drop, forcing users to re-authenticate to internal applications. Which firewall feature must be enabled to maintain stateful session continuity across the failover?

A.Network Address Translation (NAT) pool overloading
B.Asymmetric routing bypass mode
C.Stateful session synchronization (State Sync / HA heartbeat link)
D.Dynamic DNS update propagation
AnswerC

Session synchronization replicates active connection states to the standby unit so it can seamlessly take over existing TCP flows without interruption.

Why this answer

Stateful failover (or session synchronization/state sync) synchronizes connection tables, NAT mappings, and IPsec security associations from the active firewall to the standby firewall in real-time, preventing dropped sessions during a failover.

24
MCQhard

A security architect is designing a high-security DMZ architecture. Public-facing web servers must be isolated from the internal database servers, and an intermediary inspection zone is required. Which design pattern should the architect implement?

A.Three-legged firewall architecture creating separate internal, external, and DMZ zones
B.Placing all web and database servers on the same internal VLAN protected by host firewalls
C.Single-firewall dual-homed architecture with a software loopback filter
D.Direct flat bridging between the external router and the internal core switch
AnswerA

A three-legged firewall uses three distinct physical or logical interfaces to isolate the internal network, external network, and DMZ into separate security zones.

Why this answer

A three-legged firewall configuration (or dual-firewall DMZ architecture) places public servers in a DMZ zone separate from both the untrusted external internet and the trusted internal LAN, requiring traffic between zones to be inspected.

25
MCQhard

A security analyst is troubleshooting an IPsec site-to-site VPN tunnel failure on a Linux-based StrongSwan gateway. The logs indicate an 'ESP packet decryption failed' error. Upon reviewing the security association parameters, the analyst notices a mismatch in the cryptographic checksum algorithm. Which IPsec protocol component is responsible for providing data integrity and authentication for the inner packet?

A.Security Association Database (SAD)
B.Authentication Header (AH)
C.Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
D.Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
AnswerD

ESP provides integrity, authentication, and encryption services for IPsec, and its cryptographic parameters must match on both peers to avoid decryption failures.

Why this answer

The Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) protocol provides origin authenticity, integrity, and confidentiality protection of packets. The Authentication Header (AH) provides integrity and authentication only, without confidentiality.

26
MCQhard

A security engineer is configuring a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) to perform deep packet inspection (DPI) on encrypted TLS traffic. Due to privacy regulations, specific internal banking applications must be excluded from SSL decryption. How should the engineer configure the firewall to bypass decryption for these specific destinations without disabling overall inspection?

A.Create an outbound NAT rule mapping banking IP addresses to a loopback interface.
B.Configure a static route directing banking traffic through an uninspected bypass interface.
C.Configure a Decryption Exclusion / Bypass rule for specific trusted destination URL categories or domains
D.Disable all Layer 7 application inspection signatures globally for TCP port 443.
AnswerC

Decryption bypass lists permit specific sensitive domains to be excluded from SSL inspection while maintaining protection for other traffic.

Why this answer

NGFWs support SSL/TLS Decryption Exclusion (or SSL Decryption Profile exceptions) based on destination domain categories or specific URL lists, allowing traffic to pass encrypted while still applying Layer 7 application firewalls.

27
Multi-Selecthard

A network administrator is implementing defense-in-depth measures against ARP spoofing and man-in-the-middle attacks on a Cisco switched enterprise network. Which THREE switch security features should be enabled on access layer ports? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.DHCP Snooping
B.Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI)
C.EtherChannel load balancing using source-destination MAC hashing
D.IP Source Guard
E.Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)
AnswersA, B, D

DHCP snooping builds a trusted binding database used by DAI and IP Source Guard.

Why this answer

To mitigate layer 2 ARP and MAC manipulation attacks, administrators use DHCP snooping, Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI), and IP Source Guard.

28
Multi-Selecthard

A security team is conducting a penetration test against a corporate network and attempts a Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack using ICMP redirection and IPv6 Router Advertisement (RA) spoofing. Which THREE network controls effectively mitigate these specific local network redirection attacks? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Disabling ICMP redirect processing on host operating systems and core routers
B.Enabling IPv6 RA Guard on switch access ports to drop rogue router advertisements
C.Enabling Spanning Tree PortFast across all trunk ports
D.Enabling SNMPv1 community strings on all perimeter routing devices
E.Implementing source address validation and uRPF (Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding)
AnswersA, B, E

Disabling ICMP redirects prevents hosts from modifying their routing tables based on forged packets.

Why this answer

To defend against router advertisement spoofing and ICMP redirection attacks, administrators use RA Guard, ICMP redirect filtering, and secure switch port configurations.

29
Multi-Selectmedium

A network administrator is configuring secure remote access for employees. The security policy mandates that the remote access solution must support multi-factor authentication (MFA) and encrypt all traffic from the client device. Which TWO technologies or protocols can meet these requirements? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Unencrypted Telnet management session over port 23
B.Unauthenticated PPTP remote dial-up connection
C.SSL/TLS-based VPN (e.g., OpenVPN or AnyConnect) integrated with an identity provider for MFA
D.Standard HTTP web browsing to internal unencrypted portals
E.IPsec VPN client software configured with IKEv2 and certificate/MFA authentication
AnswersC, E

SSL/TLS VPNs encrypt traffic and integrate with modern MFA identity providers.

Why this answer

IPsec VPNs and SSL/TLS VPNs are both industry-standard remote access solutions that encrypt all traffic and integrate with AAA/MFA servers (like RADIUS/TACACS+ or SAML) to enforce multi-factor authentication.

30
MCQmedium

An enterprise network uses an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) deployed in passive monitoring mode via a switch span port. The security operations center (SOC) notices that the IDS generates high volumes of alerts for internal vulnerability scanning activities, obscuring real attacks. Which network design modification should be implemented to reduce false positive alert fatigue without disabling the detection signatures?

A.Upgrade the IDS hardware to process higher bandwidth capacity
B.Convert the IDS into an inline IPS
C.Tune the IDS sensor signature policies to exclude the internal vulnerability scanner's source IP addresses
D.Move the IDS from a switch SPAN port to an inline routing position
AnswerC

Excluding authorized scanning IPs or creating suppression rules for known administrative scans is the correct tuning method to reduce alert fatigue.

Why this answer

Tuning or relocating the IDS sensor by filtering out authorized internal scanner source IPs from the monitoring profile or moving the span port configuration to exclude trusted management subnets reduces false positives. Alternatively, tuning the signature rules to whitelist specific source IPs is standard practice.

31
MCQmedium

An organization's security policy requires that all remote workers connect to the corporate network via a VPN that routes all client internet traffic through the corporate data center security stack. Which type of VPN architecture must the remote client be configured to use?

A.Clientless SSL VPN
B.Full-tunnel VPN
C.Split-tunnel VPN
D.Transport mode IPsec VPN
AnswerB

A full-tunnel VPN forces all user traffic through the corporate security gateway, satisfying the requirement to inspect all internet traffic.

Why this answer

A Full-Tunnel VPN routes all client traffic through the encrypted VPN tunnel to the corporate gateway, regardless of whether the destination is internal or on the public internet.

32
MCQeasy

An organization wants to deploy a wireless intrusion prevention system (WIPS) sensor to detect unauthorized access points and rogue devices broadcasting corporate SSIDs. Where should the WIPS sensor be deployed?

A.Installed directly on the core router's uplink interface facing the ISP
B.Configured as a virtual machine inside the cloud data center hypervisor cluster
C.Attached as a tap on the primary corporate database server's storage area network (SAN)
D.Distributed across the physical office space as dedicated RF monitoring sensors or dual-band access points
AnswerD

Dedicated WIPS sensors or access points with scanning radios are placed throughout facilities to capture wireless frames across all channels.

Why this answer

WIPS sensors should be distributed throughout the physical office space to effectively monitor all 802.11 radio frequency channels and detect rogue access points or ad-hoc connections.

33
MCQhard

An organization implements IEEE 802.1X port-based authentication across its enterprise switch infrastructure. A new IP security camera is connected to a switch port, but it does not support 802.1X supplicant software. How should the network administrator configure the switch port to authenticate and isolate the camera securely?

A.Configure the port as an 802.1X trunk port with automatic supplicant fallback enabled.
B.Place the port in an open dynamic VLAN using unauthenticated guest access without any RADIUS lookup.
C.Disable spanning-tree protocol (STP) on the port to allow unauthenticated legacy device association.
D.Configure MAC Authentication Bypass (MAB) with a specific device profiling and authorization profile on the RADIUS server.
AnswerD

MAB allows devices lacking 802.1X software to be authenticated based on their MAC address against a backend RADIUS/ISE server.

Why this answer

For non-supplicant devices like IoT equipment, switch ports can be configured with MAC Authentication Bypass (MAB), which uses the device's MAC address as credentials against a RADIUS server, combined with a restricted VLAN.

34
MCQeasy

An enterprise network uses VLANs to separate departments. Users in the Marketing VLAN need to access a printer located in the Sales VLAN. Which network device is strictly required to route traffic between these two distinct VLANs?

A.Layer 2 unmanaged switch
B.Layer 3 router or multilayer switch
C.Hub
D.Wireless range extender
AnswerB

A Layer 3 routing device provides inter-vlan routing capabilities across distinct subnet boundaries.

Why this answer

VLANs represent separate broadcast domains and subnets. Inter-VLAN routing performed by a Layer 3 switch or router is required for communication between them.

35
MCQeasy

An administrator needs to secure SNMP traffic on enterprise network switches so that management queries and responses are both encrypted and authenticated. Which version of SNMP must be configured?

A.SNMPv3
B.SNMPv2c
C.SNMPv1
D.SNMPv2u
AnswerA

SNMPv3 introduces robust user-based security with support for authentication and encryption.

Why this answer

SNMPv3 provides essential security features including message confidentiality (encryption via DES or AES), integrity (via HMAC-MD5 or SHA), and authentication (usm user-based security model). SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c lack encryption.

36
Multi-Selecthard

A security engineer is performing a security audit of an enterprise firewall and discovers several misconfigurations. Which THREE of the following practices represent severe security vulnerabilities in firewall deployment? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Configuring a default 'any-any-allow' rule at the bottom of the security policy rulebase without logging
B.Exposing the firewall management GUI/SSH interface directly to the public internet without a VPN or source IP restriction
C.Enabling stateful inspection on all internal DMZ interfaces
D.Implementing strict reverse path forwarding (RPF) checks on external interfaces
E.Leaving default factory administrator usernames and passwords active on the device
AnswersA, B, E

An unmonitored 'any-any-allow' rule bypasses intent-based security filtering and masks unauthorized traffic flows.

Why this answer

Placing administrative interfaces on the public internet, using 'any-any-allow' rules, and leaving default management credentials enabled are critical firewall misconfigurations that introduce severe security risks.

37
MCQmedium

A network security analyst is reviewing NetFlow records and notices an unusually high volume of small UDP packets originating from a single internal host destined to various random external IP addresses on ephemeral ports. What type of network attack or anomaly does this signature indicate?

A.ARP cache poisoning spoofing attack
B.UDP flood Denial of Service attack
C.TCP SYN flood attack against internal servers
D.DNS zone transfer enumeration (AXFR)
AnswerB

Flooding random external ports with UDP packets is characteristic of a UDP flood attack.

Why this answer

A high volume of small UDP packets sent to random high ports indicates a UDP flood Denial of Service (DoS) attack originating from the compromised internal host.

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