The correct remediation for an SMBv1 vulnerability is to disable SMBv1 on the server. This is because SMBv1 is a legacy protocol that lacks encryption and authentication protections, making it a prime vector for exploits like EternalBlue, which enabled the WannaCry ransomware worm to spread laterally across networks. On the CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-002 exam, this concept tests your ability to recommend secure configurations after vulnerability scanning—a common scenario where the trap is to suggest patching or upgrading instead of outright disabling the protocol, since SMBv2 and SMBv3 remain fully functional and secure. Remember that disabling SMBv1 eliminates the attack surface without breaking modern file sharing, so think of it as “kill the old, keep the new.” A useful memory tip: “SMBv1 is the one that’s done—disable it to stop the run.”
PT0-002 Attacks and Exploits Practice Question
This PT0-002 practice question tests your understanding of attacks and exploits. Read the scenario carefully and evaluate each option against the stated constraints before committing to an answer. After answering, compare your reasoning against the explanation and wrong-answer breakdown below. Once you have made your selection, read the full explanation to reinforce the concept and understand why each distractor is designed to mislead on exam day.
A penetration tester is using a vulnerability scanner that reports a 'Critical' severity for an 'SMBv1 vulnerability' on a Windows server. Which of the following is the correct remediation recommendation?
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
✓
Disable SMBv1 on the server
The correct remediation for an SMBv1 vulnerability is to disable SMBv1 on the server. SMBv1 is a legacy protocol that lacks modern security features and is known to be exploited by malware like EternalBlue (used in WannaCry). Disabling SMBv1 eliminates the attack surface without affecting SMBv2 or SMBv3, which are secure and still functional.
Key principle: Answer the scenario, not the keyword: identify the specific constraint before choosing the most familiar-sounding option.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
✗
Apply the latest Windows security patches
Why it's wrong here
While patches may mitigate, they do not disable the protocol; best practice is to disable SMBv1.
✓
Disable SMBv1 on the server
Why this is correct
Disabling the insecure protocol is the most effective remediation.
Related concept
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
✗
Enable SMB signing
Why it's wrong here
SMB signing prevents relay attacks but does not fix the SMBv1 vulnerability.
✗
Enable SMB encryption
Why it's wrong here
Encryption does not address the underlying SMBv1 protocol flaws.
Common exam traps
Common exam trap: answer the scenario, not the keyword
The trap here is that candidates assume patching (Option A) is sufficient for all vulnerabilities, but for SMBv1, the protocol itself is deprecated and must be disabled rather than just patched.
Detailed technical explanation
How to think about this question
SMBv1 uses a 16-byte header and lacks pre-authentication integrity checks, making it susceptible to man-in-the-middle downgrade attacks and remote code execution via crafted packets. Disabling SMBv1 can be done via PowerShell with `Set-SmbServerConfiguration -EnableSMB1Protocol $false` or through the Windows Features dialog, and it forces clients to use SMBv2 or SMBv3, which include encryption, signing, and better session security. In real-world scenarios, organizations often keep SMBv1 enabled for legacy device compatibility, but this creates a critical risk that scanning tools flag as 'Critical' due to the protocol's history in major ransomware outbreaks.
KKey Concepts to Remember
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
Find the constraint that changes the correct option.
Eliminate answers that are true in general but not in this case.
TExam Day Tips
→Watch for words such as best, first, most likely and least administrative effort.
→Review why wrong options are wrong, not only why the correct option is correct.
Key takeaway
Answer the scenario, not the keyword: identify the specific constraint before choosing the most familiar-sounding option.
Real-world example
How this comes up in practice
A developer is choosing between AES-256 (symmetric) and RSA-2048 (asymmetric) for encrypting a large file that will be sent to a partner. Symmetric encryption is fast but requires key exchange; asymmetric is slower but solves the key distribution problem. A hybrid approach — encrypt the file with AES, encrypt the AES key with RSA — is standard. Questions like this test whether you understand when each approach applies.
Related glossary terms
Concepts from this question explained
These glossary pages explain the core terms tested in this PT0-002 question in full detail.
Attacks and Exploits — This question tests Attacks and Exploits — Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer..
What is the correct answer to this question?
The correct answer is: Disable SMBv1 on the server — The correct remediation for an SMBv1 vulnerability is to disable SMBv1 on the server. SMBv1 is a legacy protocol that lacks modern security features and is known to be exploited by malware like EternalBlue (used in WannaCry). Disabling SMBv1 eliminates the attack surface without affecting SMBv2 or SMBv3, which are secure and still functional.
What should I do if I get this PT0-002 question wrong?
Identify which exam domain this question belongs to, review the core concept, then practise similar questions from the same domain.
What is the key concept behind this question?
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
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Question Discussion
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