The correct answer is to request documented risk acceptance with compensating controls and a migration or remediation plan. This is required because a legacy system unpatched vendor end of life presents an unavoidable security gap that cannot be closed through traditional patching, so the vulnerability manager must formally acknowledge the risk, implement compensating controls like network segmentation or application whitelisting to reduce exploitability, and establish a timeline to retire or replace the system. On the CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 exam, this scenario tests your understanding of the risk management framework from NIST SP 800-53, where accepting risk is only valid when compensating controls are in place and a remediation plan exists—a common trap is thinking you can simply close the finding without documented approval. Remember the mnemonic "RAM": Risk acceptance, compensating controls, and a Migration plan must all be present before closing.
CS0-003 Vulnerability Management Practice Question
This CS0-003 practice question tests your understanding of vulnerability management. The scenario asks you to isolate a root cause — eliminate options that address a different problem before choosing. A key principle to apply: risk acceptance formally acknowledges unmitigated risk by management.. Once you have made your selection, read the full explanation to reinforce the concept and understand why each distractor is designed to mislead on exam day.
A legacy system cannot be patched because the vendor no longer supports the application. What should the vulnerability manager request? For validation, Which action should be taken before closing or downgrading the finding?
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
✓
Documented risk acceptance with compensating controls and a migration/remediation plan
When a legacy system cannot be patched due to vendor end-of-life, the vulnerability manager must formally accept the risk by documenting the risk acceptance, implementing compensating controls (e.g., network segmentation, host-based firewall rules, or application whitelisting), and creating a migration or remediation plan to eventually retire or replace the system. This aligns with the NIST SP 800-53 risk management framework and ensures auditability.
Key principle: Risk acceptance formally acknowledges unmitigated risk by management.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
✗
Give all users local admin rights
Why it's wrong here
Extra privileges increase risk.
✗
Mark the vulnerability as fixed
Why it's wrong here
It is not fixed if the vulnerable condition remains.
✓
Documented risk acceptance with compensating controls and a migration/remediation plan
Why this is correct
Unsupported systems need formal exception handling, mitigation, ownership, and an exit path.
Related concept
Risk acceptance formally acknowledges unmitigated risk by management.
✗
Remove the system from future reports
Why it's wrong here
Suppressing visibility hides unmanaged risk.
Common exam traps
Common exam trap: answer the scenario, not the keyword
Cisco often tests the misconception that 'no patch available' means the vulnerability can be closed as 'fixed' or that compensating controls alone are sufficient without formal documentation and a plan.
Detailed technical explanation
How to think about this question
In practice, compensating controls for an unpatched legacy system might include placing it on a separate VLAN with strict ACLs (e.g., only allowing specific IPs and ports), deploying a web application firewall (WAF) in front of it, or using host-based intrusion prevention (HIPS) to block exploit attempts. The documented risk acceptance should reference a specific business owner, a risk score (e.g., CVSS 9.0), and a timeline for migration, often tracked in a risk register or GRC tool.
KKey Concepts to Remember
Risk acceptance formally acknowledges unmitigated risk by management.
Compensating controls are alternative measures to reduce risk when direct remediation isn't possible.
A migration/remediation plan outlines the long-term strategy to eliminate the vulnerability.
This process ensures accountability and visibility for unaddressed security risks.
TExam Day Tips
→Watch for words such as best, first, most likely and least administrative effort.
→Review why wrong options are wrong, not only why the correct option is correct.
Key takeaway
Risk acceptance formally acknowledges unmitigated risk by management.
Real-world example
How this comes up in practice
A security team runs a vulnerability scan on a web application and discovers an unpatched SQL injection flaw. The team prioritises remediation by CVSS score — critical flaws are patched within 24 hours, high within 7 days. Questions like this test whether you understand vulnerability management processes, scanning tools, and remediation prioritisation.
Related glossary terms
Concepts from this question explained
These glossary pages explain the core terms tested in this CS0-003 question in full detail.
Review risk acceptance formally acknowledges unmitigated risk by management., then practise related CS0-003 questions on the same topic to reinforce the concept.
Vulnerability Management — This question tests Vulnerability Management — Risk acceptance formally acknowledges unmitigated risk by management..
What is the correct answer to this question?
The correct answer is: Documented risk acceptance with compensating controls and a migration/remediation plan — When a legacy system cannot be patched due to vendor end-of-life, the vulnerability manager must formally accept the risk by documenting the risk acceptance, implementing compensating controls (e.g., network segmentation, host-based firewall rules, or application whitelisting), and creating a migration or remediation plan to eventually retire or replace the system. This aligns with the NIST SP 800-53 risk management framework and ensures auditability.
What should I do if I get this CS0-003 question wrong?
Review risk acceptance formally acknowledges unmitigated risk by management., then practise related CS0-003 questions on the same topic to reinforce the concept.
What is the key concept behind this question?
Risk acceptance formally acknowledges unmitigated risk by management.
About these practice questions
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These questions test the same concept from different angles. Work through them to make sure you can recognise it however the exam phrases it.
Variation 1. A legacy system cannot be patched because the vendor no longer supports the application. What should the vulnerability manager request? For business prioritization, Which recommendation gives the best risk-based order of work?
medium
A.Give all users local admin rights
B.Mark the vulnerability as fixed
✓ C.Documented risk acceptance with compensating controls and a migration/remediation plan
D.Remove the system from future reports
Why C: When a legacy system cannot be patched due to vendor end-of-life, the vulnerability manager should request a documented risk acceptance with compensating controls and a migration/remediation plan. This is the only option that formally acknowledges the risk, implements compensating controls (e.g., network segmentation, host-based firewall rules, or application whitelisting) to reduce exploitability, and establishes a timeline to decommission or replace the system. This aligns with the risk-based prioritization required for business decisions.
Variation 2. A legacy system cannot be patched because the vendor no longer supports the application. What should the vulnerability manager request? For control selection, Which control best addresses the stated weakness without hiding risk?
medium
A.Mark the vulnerability as fixed
✓ B.Documented risk acceptance with compensating controls and a migration/remediation plan
C.Remove the system from future reports
D.Give all users local admin rights
Why B: When a legacy system cannot be patched due to vendor end-of-life, the vulnerability manager must formally document the risk acceptance, implement compensating controls (e.g., network segmentation, host-based firewall rules, or application whitelisting), and create a migration or remediation plan to eventually retire or replace the system. This approach transparently acknowledges the residual risk rather than hiding it, aligning with the principle of risk treatment as defined in NIST SP 800-53 and ISO 27005.
Variation 3. A legacy system cannot be patched because the vendor no longer supports the application. What should the vulnerability manager request? For tool configuration, Which scanner or pipeline change most directly improves result quality?
medium
A.Give all users local admin rights
✓ B.Documented risk acceptance with compensating controls and a migration/remediation plan
C.Mark the vulnerability as fixed
D.Remove the system from future reports
Why B: Option B is correct because when a legacy system cannot be patched due to vendor end-of-life, the vulnerability manager must formally accept the risk through documented risk acceptance, implement compensating controls (e.g., network segmentation, host-based firewall rules, or application whitelisting), and create a migration or remediation plan to eventually retire or replace the system. This aligns with the NIST SP 800-53 risk management framework and ensures auditability and accountability for the unpatched vulnerability.
Last reviewed: Jun 11, 2026
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