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CCNA Application And Data Security Questions

44 questions · Application And Data Security · All types, answers revealed

1
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO factors are critical when configuring an automated remediation workflow in Cisco Cloudlock to prevent data loss?

Select 2 answers
A.Action selection (e.g., Delete, Notify, Quarantine).
B.Manual user approval for every file deletion.
C.Hardware firewall throughput settings.
D.Policy trigger conditions (e.g., severity, file type).
E.Network bandwidth throttling configuration.
AnswersA, D

Selecting the remediation action determines what Cloudlock does once a policy matches — delete, notify or quarantine the offending item. Without an action, the workflow detects violations but never prevents data loss, so action selection is critical to the stem's remediation outcome.

Why this answer

Effective remediation requires an action (what to do) and a trigger condition (when to do it based on policy severity).

2
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO methods can Cisco Cloudlock use to notify an administrator of a policy violation?

Select 2 answers
A.Email notification
B.Physical alarm sound
C.Webhook integration
D.Automated phone call
E.SMS text message
AnswersA, C

Email notification satisfies the requirement by delivering policy-violation alerts directly to an administrator's inbox through Cisco Cloudlock's built-in notification engine. Cloudlock generates the alert when a policy rule matches monitored content, then dispatches it via SMTP to configured recipients, requiring no additional infrastructure or third-party integration.

Why this answer

Cisco Cloudlock can notify administrators of policy violations via Email notification (A), which sends an alert message to configured administrator email addresses, and via Webhook integration (C), which posts an HTTP callback to a configured external endpoint so that third-party systems (such as SIEM or ticketing platforms) can receive and act on the violation event. These two are the supported alerting/notification mechanisms Cloudlock exposes for policy violations. Physical alarm sound (B) is not a Cloudlock capability since it is a cloud service with no local hardware alerting.

Automated phone call (D) and SMS text message (E) are also not supported notification channels in Cloudlock's policy violation alerting.

3
MCQeasy

Which feature in Cisco Cloudlock allows administrators to view a dashboard of users who are behaving outside of their normal baseline?

A.App Firewall
B.UBA
C.Policy manager
D.DLP engine
AnswerB

User Behaviour Analytics baselines each user's normal activity and surfaces deviations from it, exactly matching the requirement to view users behaving outside their normal baseline. The dashboard aggregates these anomalies, distinguishing UBA from static policy or DLP-based Cloudlock features.

Why this answer

Cloudlock's UBA (User Behavior Analytics) module uses machine learning to establish a baseline and flag anomalies.

4
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO actions can a user take if a file is quarantined by Cisco Cloudlock?

Select 2 answers
A.Move the file to another folder
B.Delete the original file directly
C.Change the file permissions
D.Read the tombstone file
E.Request a review
AnswersD, E

Cloudlock replaces quarantined content with a tombstone placeholder, so the user can still open and read that tombstone file to see the quarantine notice and metadata. This satisfies the scenario's requirement for an action available on a quarantined file.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because when Cisco Cloudlock quarantines a file, it replaces the original with a tombstone file that the user can still read to see the quarantine notice and understand what happened to the content. Option E is correct because Cloudlock provides a remediation workflow in which the user can request a review of the quarantine decision, allowing an administrator or security team to re-evaluate and potentially restore the file. Options A, B, and C are not valid user actions on a quarantined file: moving, deleting the original, or changing permissions would require access to the original file, which Cloudlock has already removed and replaced with the tombstone, and those actions are not part of the standard quarantine remediation options presented to end users.

5
MCQmedium

When creating a policy in Cisco Cloudlock, what is the significance of setting a 'Threshold'?

A.To limit the total number of files scanned.
B.To define the minimum number of occurrences to trigger an alert.
C.To set the maximum file size for scanning.
D.To assign an expiration date to the policy.
AnswerB

The Threshold sets how many matching occurrences within the policy's scope must accumulate before Cisco Cloudlock raises an alert, preventing single benign events from generating noise. It defines the minimum count that triggers notification, directly matching the stated significance.

Why this answer

Thresholds allow you to define how many times a violation must occur (or how many instances of sensitive data are found) before an incident is triggered, reducing noise.

6
MCQeasy

What is the primary role of a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)?

A.To develop SaaS applications.
B.To enforce security policies between cloud users and cloud applications.
C.To manage physical server racks.
D.To provide internet connectivity.
AnswerB

A CASB sits inline between cloud users and cloud applications, enforcing policies such as authentication, authorisation, data-loss prevention and threat protection on that traffic. This directly satisfies the stem's requirement for the primary role: mediating and controlling access, rather than merely monitoring or configuring the cloud service itself.

Why this answer

A CASB sits between cloud users and cloud applications and enforces security policies such as DLP, access control, threat protection, and compliance monitoring. It is a policy enforcement point for cloud traffic, not an application development or infrastructure management tool.

Exam trap

SCAZT often tests whether candidates confuse a CASB (policy enforcement between users and cloud apps) with adjacent technologies like SWG, ZTNA, or CSPM — the key discriminator is 'between cloud users and cloud applications.'

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because developing SaaS applications is the job of developers and PaaS platforms, not a CASB — a CASB governs access to SaaS, it does not build it. Option C is wrong because managing physical server racks is a data center facilities function, entirely outside the CASB's cloud-traffic scope. Option D is wrong because providing internet connectivity is the role of ISPs, SD-WAN, or cloud networking services; a CASB inspects and controls traffic that already has connectivity, it does not supply it.

7
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO settings should be verified if a Cisco Cloudlock API connector to Google Workspace is showing a 'Warning' status?

Select 2 answers
A.Network bandwidth usage
B.Physical server cooling status
C.Service account permissions
D.API Token expiration
E.Local DNS server settings
AnswersC, D

Cloudlock's API connector authenticates to Google Workspace through a service account; if its scopes are revoked or misassigned, the connector cannot enumerate users and files, triggering the Warning status. Verifying these permissions restores the API access the connector requires.

Why this answer

Option C (Service account permissions) is correct because the Cisco Cloudlock API connector authenticates to Google Workspace using a service account, and if that account lacks the required OAuth scopes or admin-granted domain-wide delegation, the connector cannot retrieve the necessary data and will report a Warning status. Option D (API Token expiration) is correct because Cloudlock's connector relies on OAuth credentials/tokens for the service account; if the token or its associated certificate/credential has expired or been revoked, authentication fails and the connector shows a Warning until the token is refreshed or reauthorized. Option A (Network bandwidth usage) is not a connector-specific setting and would not cause a Warning status for API authentication.

Option B (Physical server cooling status) is irrelevant to a cloud-based API connector. Option E (Local DNS server settings) is not a Cloudlock connector configuration and would not typically produce this Warning.

8
MCQhard

A user is attempting to upload a file to a SaaS application, but the Cisco Umbrella Intelligent Proxy blocks it. What is the most effective way to troubleshoot the block?

A.Use the Umbrella Activity Search dashboard.
B.Reboot the client device.
C.Disable the browser cache.
D.Check the local host logs.
AnswerA

Umbrella's Activity Search dashboard records every Intelligent Proxy verdict, showing the exact identity, destination, and category that triggered the block. This directly satisfies the troubleshooting constraint by revealing why the upload was denied, rather than guessing at policy or inspecting endpoint logs.

Why this answer

The Umbrella Activity Search dashboard (also called Activity Search or Reporting) provides detailed DNS, proxy, and firewall event logs, including the identity, destination, category, and policy that triggered a block. Searching for the user and the destination domain or URL will show exactly which policy rule blocked the upload, making it the most effective troubleshooting tool.

Exam trap

SCAZT often tests the misconception that endpoint-side logs or client actions (reboot, cache clear) can diagnose cloud-enforced policy blocks, when the exam expects recognition that Umbrella's cloud reporting dashboards are the authoritative source.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because rebooting the client device does not change policy enforcement and will not reveal why the block occurred. Option C is wrong because disabling the browser cache has no effect on Umbrella's proxy-layer inspection or policy decisions. Option D is wrong because local host logs on the endpoint do not contain Umbrella's cloud-side policy decision data; the enforcement and logging happen in Umbrella's cloud, not on the endpoint.

9
MCQhard

An administrator needs to ensure that only managed devices can access sensitive data in Box. Which Cisco solution feature enables this verification?

A.SAML assertion mapping.
B.Cloudlock custom regex matching.
C.Secure Access device posture check.
D.OAuth token rotation.
AnswerC

Secure Access device posture checks verify endpoint compliance attributes before granting access, ensuring only managed devices reach Box. This satisfies the stem's requirement that sensitive data be accessible exclusively from managed devices, enforced at the identity-aware proxy rather than relying on user credentials alone.

Why this answer

Cisco Secure Access with device posture checks ensures that only devices meeting minimum security requirements can access defined SaaS applications.

10
MCQeasy

In Cisco Cloudlock, what is the purpose of an 'Incident'?

A.To record system uptime.
B.To manage app credentials.
C.To notify admins of a policy violation.
D.To backup user data.
AnswerC

An Incident in Cisco Cloudlock is generated when a policy violation is detected, alerting administrators so they can investigate and respond. It satisfies the stem's requirement by representing the notification mechanism for policy breaches, distinct from dashboards or reports that merely display data without triggering admin alerts.

Why this answer

An incident is an alert generated when a specific policy rule is triggered by a user or data action within a protected SaaS app.

11
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE criteria can be used to classify a 'Shadow IT' application in Cisco Umbrella?

Select 3 answers
A.Volume of traffic
B.Category (e.g., File Sharing)
C.User's password hash
D.Device serial number
E.Risk level
AnswersA, B, E

Umbrella's Shadow IT report ranks discovered cloud applications by the volume of traffic generated, exposing which unsanctioned services consume the most bandwidth. Traffic volume is one of the three classification criteria the stem requests, alongside category and risk level.

Why this answer

In Cisco Umbrella, Shadow IT discovery classifies discovered cloud applications using criteria such as the volume of traffic (A), which helps identify how heavily an unsanctioned app is being used across the organization, and the application category (B), such as File Sharing or Collaboration, which groups apps by function for policy decisions. The risk level (E) is also a classification criterion, since Umbrella assigns a risk score to each discovered app to help prioritize which Shadow IT services pose the greatest threat. These three attributes—traffic volume, category, and risk level—are the standard dimensions Umbrella uses to report and filter Shadow IT applications.

A user's password hash (C) is never used, as Umbrella does not collect or classify applications by credential data, and a device serial number (D) is not a classification criterion for Shadow IT apps in Umbrella.

12
MCQmedium

What is the primary function of the 'CASB' category in Cisco Umbrella's web policy?

A.To scan emails for malware.
B.To govern application usage and control data movement.
C.To filter malicious DNS queries.
D.To provide VPN connectivity to the cloud.
AnswerB

Cisco Umbrella's CASB category enforces granular control over sanctioned and unsanctioned cloud applications, including blocking uploads or restricting actions. This governs application usage and controls data movement, satisfying the requirement to manage shadow IT and prevent data exfiltration.

Why this answer

The CASB category in Umbrella allows admins to enforce policies specifically for cloud applications, such as blocking uploads to unsanctioned tenants.

13
MCQmedium

You are configuring a Cisco Cloudlock policy to detect sensitive PII in a Salesforce instance. Which configuration step ensures that the policy specifically triggers when sensitive data is uploaded to a public-facing object?

A.Configure an API-based firewall rule to block all inbound traffic from Salesforce.
B.Apply a global blocklist for all Salesforce users.
C.Set the policy scan interval to 'Real-time' and enable TLS decryption.
D.Enable the PII inspection engine and set the exposure filter to 'Public'.
AnswerD

Setting the exposure filter to 'Public' scopes the PII inspection engine to objects with public sharing, satisfying the stem's public-facing constraint. Cloudlock evaluates exposure metadata alongside content matches, so detection triggers only when sensitive data lands in a publicly accessible object rather than any internal record.

Why this answer

Cisco Cloudlock's PII inspection engine is the component that actually scans content for sensitive data patterns (SSNs, credit cards, etc.). The exposure filter is what scopes the policy to only fire when that data sits in a publicly accessible object, so combining the PII engine with the 'Public' exposure filter is what produces a targeted alert. Without the exposure filter, the policy would trigger on any PII regardless of visibility, generating noise.

Exam trap

SCAZT often tests whether candidates confuse the detection engine (what content to look for) with the exposure/scope filter (where it must be visible), leading them to pick timing or decryption options that don't change policy logic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an API-based firewall rule blocking inbound Salesforce traffic has nothing to do with Cloudlock's data-loss inspection and would break the integration rather than detect PII exposure. Option B is wrong because a global blocklist for all Salesforce users would lock out the entire tenant and does not perform any content inspection or exposure scoping. Option C is wrong because scan interval and TLS decryption affect timing and visibility of traffic, not the logical condition (PII + public exposure) that determines whether the policy fires.

14
Multi-Selecthard

When configuring an OAuth policy in Cisco Cloudlock, which TWO actions can be taken against third-party applications granted access to user data?

Select 2 answers
A.Quarantine the application
B.Force an OS update on the app server
C.Revoke authorization
D.Update the app's source code
E.Enable two-factor authentication for the app
AnswersA, C

Quarantine moves the offending third-party application into a restricted state, blocking user access and preventing further data exposure. Cloudlock's OAuth policy supports this as a direct enforcement action against apps granted access to user data.

Why this answer

In Cisco Cloudlock's OAuth policy configuration, the platform is designed to govern third-party applications that users have authorized to access corporate data, and two of the enforcement actions available are quarantining the application (option A) and revoking authorization (option C). Quarantining the application (A) is correct because Cloudlock can place a risky or non-compliant OAuth app into a restricted/quarantined state, blocking its access to protected data until an administrator reviews it. Revoking authorization (C) is correct because Cloudlock can remove the OAuth token/grant that the user previously issued to the third-party app, immediately terminating the app's access to the user's data.

The remaining options are not Cloudlock OAuth policy actions: forcing an OS update on the app server (B) and updating the app's source code (D) are actions on the third-party provider's infrastructure that Cloudlock has no control over, and enabling two-factor authentication for the app (E) is an authentication control configured on the app or identity provider, not an enforcement action within a Cloudlock OAuth policy.

15
Multi-Selecthard

When setting up a DLP policy for cloud storage, which TWO elements should be defined to ensure accurate classification of sensitive data?

Select 2 answers
A.Hardware acceleration settings.
B.Scope of the policy (e.g., specific folders or users).
C.Data patterns (e.g., regex, predefined templates).
D.SaaS application uptime SLAs.
E.Physical server rack location.
AnswersB, C

Scoping to specific folders or users confines inspection to the exact repositories where sensitive data resides, preventing unrelated content from diluting classification accuracy. Microsoft Purview DLP evaluates only in-scope locations, so precise scoping satisfies the stem's requirement for accurate sensitive-data classification rather than broad, noisy matching across the tenant.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because defining the scope of the policy — the specific folders, users, or cloud storage locations it applies to — ensures the DLP engine only inspects and classifies the relevant data, preventing false positives or missed coverage outside the intended boundary. Option C is correct because data patterns such as regular expressions and predefined templates (e.g., credit card numbers, national ID formats, or PII templates) are the actual detection logic the DLP engine uses to identify and accurately classify sensitive content. Together, scope and data patterns form the two essential elements for accurate classification in a cloud storage DLP policy.

Option A is incorrect because hardware acceleration settings affect performance, not data classification accuracy. Option D is incorrect because SaaS uptime SLAs are contractual availability metrics unrelated to how data is classified. Option E is incorrect because physical server rack location is a facilities concern and has no bearing on DLP content classification.

16
Multi-Selectmedium

You are auditing a Cisco Cloudlock deployment for O365. Which TWO methods can be used to remediate a file that violates a Data Loss Prevention policy?

Select 2 answers
A.Delete the file
B.Block the user account in Active Directory
C.Change the file owner
D.Change sharing level to Private
E.Re-encrypt the file with a new key
AnswersA, D

Deleting the file removes the offending content from O365 entirely, eliminating exposure of the DLP-violating data. This satisfies the stem's remediation requirement because Cloudlock's response actions include deletion, applying directly to the file that breached policy.

Why this answer

In a Cisco Cloudlock DLP deployment for O365, remediation actions operate directly on the offending file's permissions or existence, so option A (Delete the file) is correct because Cloudlock can remove the violating file from the O365 workload (e.g., OneDrive/SharePoint) to eliminate the exposure. Option D (Change sharing level to Private) is also correct because Cloudlock can revoke external/anonymous access by resetting the file's sharing so only the owner retains access, which directly mitigates the DLP violation. Option B (Block the user account in Active Directory) is not a Cloudlock file-level remediation action and would be handled by identity/AD tooling, not the DLP policy engine.

Option C (Change the file owner) is not a standard Cloudlock remediation method and does not by itself stop the data exposure. Option E (Re-encrypt the file with a new key) is not a Cloudlock remediation capability for O365 files and does not address the sharing/permission violation.

Exam trap

SCAZT often tests the distinction between CASB file-level remediation actions and identity/endpoint controls, tricking candidates into selecting AD or encryption actions that sound security-relevant but are not Cloudlock DLP remediations.

17
MCQmedium

A security team is using Cisco Cloudlock to protect data in a sanctioned Microsoft 365 tenant. They need to automatically apply a sensitivity label to files that match a custom regular expression for project code names, without blocking user activity. Which Cloudlock policy action should they configure?

A.Set the policy action to 'Alert' with a notification to the security team.
B.Set the policy action to 'Revoke Sharing' and remove all external shares.
C.Set the policy action to 'Quarantine' and move the file to a secure folder.
D.Set the policy action to 'Apply Label' and select the appropriate sensitivity label.
AnswerD

Cisco Cloudlock supports a policy action that applies a Microsoft Information Protection sensitivity label to matching files. This action enriches the file with the chosen label, enabling downstream encryption and access controls without interrupting the user, which directly fulfills the requirement to label files that match the custom regular expression.

Why this answer

The requirement is to automatically apply a sensitivity label to files matching a custom regex while not blocking users. Cloudlock's Apply Label action integrates with Microsoft Information Protection to assign the chosen label, enabling encryption and policy enforcement downstream. Alerting, quarantining, or revoking sharing either do not label the file or are disruptive, so they do not meet the precise need.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any remediation action can apply a sensitivity label, when only the specific Apply Label action performs that classification.

18
MCQhard

A security architect is designing data loss prevention for a hybrid workforce using Cisco Cloudlock and Cisco Umbrella. They need to inspect encrypted traffic to a sanctioned cloud app to detect sensitive data uploads, while maintaining privacy for personal banking sites. Which combination of capabilities should they implement?

A.Use Cloudlock API-based scanning exclusively and disable SSL decryption entirely.
B.Configure selective SSL decryption for the sanctioned app category and apply Cloudlock DLP policies to that traffic.
C.Enable SSL decryption for all categories and use Cloudlock DLP policies on the decrypted traffic.
D.Implement Cisco Umbrella intelligent proxy to block all uploads to cloud apps and rely on that for data protection.
AnswerB

Selective SSL decryption allows inspection of traffic to the sanctioned cloud app category while bypassing decryption for financial services, preserving privacy. Cloudlock DLP policies can then analyze the decrypted uploads for sensitive data. This meets both the security need to detect data exfiltration and the privacy requirement for personal banking.

Why this answer

Selective SSL decryption for the sanctioned app category enables inspection of encrypted uploads while exempting financial services to respect privacy. Cloudlock DLP policies then analyze the decrypted traffic for sensitive data patterns. Decrypting everything, using only API scanning, or blocking all uploads either violates privacy, misses encrypted traffic, or is too blunt to detect specific sensitive content.

Exam trap

The trap here is treating SSL decryption as an all-or-nothing setting, when selective decryption based on category is both possible and necessary to meet privacy constraints.

19
MCQeasy

A company wants to use Cisco Cloudlock to protect data in a sanctioned cloud application. The security team needs to understand what type of data Cloudlock can inspect for policy violations. Which statement accurately describes Cloudlock's data inspection capability?

A.Cloudlock can inspect file content using predefined and custom regular expressions to detect sensitive data.
B.Cloudlock can inspect only files that are shared externally, not internal files.
C.Cloudlock can inspect only metadata such as file name and owner, not file content.
D.Cloudlock can inspect content only in real-time as files are uploaded, not at rest.
AnswerA

Cloudlock's DLP engine supports both predefined detectors (e.g., credit card numbers, PII) and custom regular expressions. It scans the content of files stored in connected cloud applications to identify sensitive data and enforce policies. This allows organizations to protect data based on content, not just metadata, meeting the requirement to understand inspection capabilities.

Why this answer

Cloudlock's DLP engine inspects file content using predefined and custom regular expressions to detect sensitive data. It scans files in connected cloud applications, both at rest and in motion, allowing enforcement of policies based on content. This capability enables organizations to protect data such as credit card numbers and PII, going beyond metadata inspection.

Exam trap

The trap here is underestimating Cloudlock's DLP capabilities by assuming it only inspects metadata or only externally shared files.

20
MCQmedium

You have detected a compromised account in Google Workspace via Cloudlock. Which automated response action can immediately prevent further data exfiltration from this user account?

A.Change user's DNS settings.
B.Delete the user's primary mailbox.
C.Suspend User account.
D.Clear browser cache for the user.
AnswerC

Suspending the account immediately revokes the user's sign-in and API access, halting any further data exfiltration from that identity. It is a direct, automated containment action available through Cloudlock response workflows, satisfying the requirement to stop exfiltration at once.

Why this answer

Suspending the user account in Google Workspace via Cloudlock's automated response immediately revokes the user's access, stopping any further authentication and data exfiltration from that compromised account. This is the standard, least-destructive containment action that preserves the mailbox and data for forensic review while cutting off the attacker.

Exam trap

SCAZT often tests the difference between containment and destruction — candidates may pick 'delete mailbox' thinking it stops exfiltration, but the correct immediate action is to suspend the account and preserve evidence.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because changing DNS settings has no bearing on a compromised Google Workspace account and does not stop exfiltration. Option B is wrong because deleting the primary mailbox is destructive, destroys evidence, and is not an appropriate immediate containment action. Option D is wrong because clearing browser cache is a client-side action that does not affect the attacker's access to the account or halt exfiltration.

21
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE actions can be performed by the Cisco Cloudlock UBA engine?

Select 3 answers
A.Monitor mass file download events
B.Perform port scanning
C.Flag logins at unusual times
D.Block outbound DNS requests
E.Detect impossible travel
AnswersA, C, E

Cloudlock's User Behaviour Analytics engine baselines normal activity and flags anomalies, so bulk download volumes deviating from a user's established pattern trigger detection. This satisfies the stem's monitoring requirement by surfacing mass file download events as a behavioural risk indicator, distinct from static DLP policy matching.

Why this answer

Cisco Cloudlock's User Behavior Analytics (UBA) engine is designed to detect anomalous user activity across cloud environments, so option A (Monitor mass file download events) is correct because UBA baselines normal file access and flags excessive downloads that may indicate data exfiltration. Option C (Flag logins at unusual times) is correct because UBA correlates login timestamps against a user's historical pattern to identify suspicious off-hours access. Option E (Detect impossible travel) is correct because UBA compares geolocation and timing of successive logins to flag physically impossible authentication sequences.

Option B (Perform port scanning) is not a UBA function—port scanning is a network reconnaissance technique performed by tools like Nmap, not a cloud behavioral analytics engine. Option D (Block outbound DNS requests) is also incorrect because UBA is a detection and alerting capability, not an inline enforcement or firewall function that blocks DNS traffic.

22
MCQmedium

In Cisco Cloudlock, why would you use a 'Custom Regex' pattern in a DLP policy?

A.To detect non-standard sensitive data formats.
B.To increase the storage limit.
C.To scan files faster.
D.To bypass file encryption.
AnswerA

Custom Regex patterns let you define your own matching expression, so Cloudlock can identify sensitive data that does not conform to any built-in detector's format. This satisfies the need to detect non-standard sensitive data formats that predefined patterns would miss.

Why this answer

Custom Regex patterns allow you to define organization-specific sensitive data formats, such as employee ID numbers or unique project code formats, that aren't in standard templates.

23
Multi-Selecthard

When configuring Cisco Duo for SaaS application access, which THREE conditions can be used in a 'Policy' to restrict access to a sensitive application?

Select 3 answers
A.File size limit
B.Operating System version
C.MFA strength
D.Geographic location
E.Application bandwidth usage
AnswersB, C, D

Duo policies can evaluate the endpoint's operating system version as a condition, allowing administrators to deny or step-up access from outdated or unpatched platforms. This satisfies the requirement to restrict sensitive SaaS application access based on device posture.

Why this answer

Option B (Operating System version) is correct because Duo policies can include a device/OS-based condition that evaluates the operating system and version of the accessing endpoint, allowing administrators to block or require step-up authentication for outdated or unmanaged OS versions. Option C (MFA strength) is correct because Duo policies can enforce authentication strength by requiring specific factors or methods (e.g., Duo Push, WebAuthn, verified push, or phishing-resistant MFA), so access to a sensitive SaaS app can be restricted to stronger authentication. Option D (Geographic location) is correct because Duo policies support location-based conditions using geolocation/IP data, enabling administrators to allow, deny, or require additional verification based on the user's country or region.

Options A (File size limit) and E (Application bandwidth usage) are not Duo policy conditions; Duo evaluates identity, device, authentication, and network/context signals, not file transfer size or SaaS bandwidth consumption.

24
MCQmedium

You are configuring a Cisco Cloudlock policy to detect sensitive data in a Salesforce environment. You need to identify instances where credit card numbers are shared publicly. Which specific policy category should you configure?

A.User Behavior Analytics
B.Data Exposure
C.Application Firewall
D.Threat Intelligence
AnswerB

Data Exposure policies in Cisco Cloudlock inspect content shared publicly or externally, matching the requirement to detect credit card numbers exposed in Salesforce. Other categories cover malware, privileged users or compliance, not public sharing of regulated data.

Why this answer

The Cisco Cloudlock Data Loss Prevention engine uses specific policy categories to identify PII/PCI data, and 'Data Exposure' is the correct category for monitoring sharing settings.

25
Multi-Selecthard

When configuring a Duo authentication policy for a SaaS app, which THREE device health indicators can be required?

Select 3 answers
A.Security software (AV) active
B.Monitor CPU utilization
C.Hard drive space capacity
D.OS version status
E.Full disk encryption enabled
AnswersA, D, E

Security software active is a Duo device health indicator, confirming antivirus or endpoint protection is running and up to date via the Device Health agent. Requiring it in the policy denies access from unprotected endpoints, satisfying the device health condition in the stem.

Why this answer

Duo's policy engine can require that endpoints have disk encryption enabled, up-to-date operating systems, and activated security software.

26
MCQmedium

In Cisco Umbrella, what is the primary purpose of defining a 'Cloud Application' in the 'App Discovery' dashboard?

A.To identify and govern Shadow IT usage across the enterprise.
B.To pre-authenticate users for that SaaS.
C.To increase bandwidth for authorized SaaS apps.
D.To bypass SSL inspection for the application.
AnswerA

Cloud Application definitions let App Discovery classify traffic to unsanctioned SaaS, exposing Shadow IT usage so it can be governed. This satisfies the requirement to identify and control applications users adopt without IT approval, rather than merely blocking domains.

Why this answer

In Cisco Umbrella's App Discovery dashboard, defining a Cloud Application lets you classify and monitor SaaS usage so you can identify unsanctioned (Shadow IT) apps and apply governance policies. It provides visibility into which cloud apps are being used, by whom, and with what risk, enabling allow/block decisions. It is fundamentally a discovery and governance function, not an authentication, bandwidth, or inspection-bypass feature.

Exam trap

SCAZT often tests confusion between App Discovery's governance/visibility role and enforcement features like SSL decryption or SSO, leading candidates to pick options that describe unrelated Umbrella capabilities.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because pre-authenticating users for a SaaS app is an SSO/IdP function (e.g., Duo SSO or SAML), not what App Discovery's Cloud Application definition does. Option C is wrong because Umbrella does not allocate or increase bandwidth for SaaS apps; it is a secure web gateway/DNS security platform, not a QoS appliance. Option D is wrong because bypassing SSL inspection is configured via decryption bypass lists or selective decryption policies, not by defining a Cloud Application in App Discovery.

27
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are primary functions of a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) regarding application and data security?

Select 3 answers
A.Physical access control for data centers.
B.Local area network traffic routing.
C.Automated threat protection for user sessions.
D.Visibility into Shadow IT usage.
E.Enforcement of DLP policies in the cloud.
AnswersC, D, E

A CASB inspects sessions inline or via API to detect malware, compromised accounts, and anomalous behaviour, then blocks or quarantines the activity. This satisfies the stem's application-security requirement by enforcing threat controls on cloud traffic in real time.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because a CASB provides automated threat protection by inspecting user sessions for malware, compromised accounts, and other threats in real time, often using inline proxies or API-based scanning. Option D is correct because CASB solutions discover and provide visibility into Shadow IT by identifying unsanctioned cloud applications and services in use across the organization. Option E is correct because a CASB enforces Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies in the cloud, inspecting data in motion and at rest to prevent sensitive information from leaving the organization's control.

Option A is incorrect because physical access control for data centers is a facility security function, not a CASB capability. Option B is incorrect because LAN traffic routing is handled by network devices such as routers and switches, not by a CASB.

28
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE items are included in a Cisco Cloudlock 'Incident' report?

Select 3 answers
A.BIOS version
B.Severity level
C.Policy name
D.User's home Wi-Fi SSID
E.User identity
AnswersB, C, E

Helps prioritize the response.

Why this answer

Cloudlock incidents provide detailed context including the user involved, the severity of the violation, and the specific file or resource affected.

29
MCQeasy

What is the primary benefit of deploying a 'Managed' SaaS application configuration in Cisco Umbrella?

A.Faster internet speed.
B.Granular policy enforcement and visibility.
C.Reduced cloud storage costs.
D.Automatic software updates.
AnswerB

Managed configuration applies identity-based policies to the SaaS application itself, enabling granular policy enforcement and visibility into user activity and data. This satisfies the stem's focus on the primary benefit of the Managed SaaS deployment model.

Why this answer

Managed applications allow for granular visibility and enforcement policies to be applied specifically to those apps, as opposed to generic web traffic.

30
MCQhard

When configuring Cisco Umbrella for SaaS, how does SSL inspection impact the visibility of application traffic?

A.It blocks all encrypted traffic.
B.It decreases application performance.
C.It removes the need for DNS filtering.
D.It enables deep packet inspection of SaaS content.
AnswerD

SSL inspection decrypts TLS sessions between users and SaaS providers, letting Umbrella examine payload contents rather than just SNI and certificate metadata. This deep packet inspection exposes application-level activity, satisfying the requirement to see SaaS content beyond encrypted headers.

Why this answer

SSL inspection decrypts traffic, allowing the proxy to inspect the actual payload, which is essential for granular visibility and DLP enforcement within SaaS apps.

31
Multi-Selectmedium

When integrating Cisco Umbrella with a SaaS application, which TWO methods can be used to ensure secure user authentication?

Select 2 answers
A.SNMP monitoring
B.Local LDAP database
C.Duo MFA integration
D.WPA2-Enterprise
E.SAML integration with an IdP
AnswersC, E

Duo MFA adds a second authentication factor at the identity layer, satisfying the stem's requirement for secure user authentication. Umbrella's integration with Duo enforces push or passcode verification before SaaS access is granted, so compromised passwords alone cannot authenticate a user.

Why this answer

Duo MFA integration (C) is correct because Cisco Umbrella supports Duo as a multi-factor authentication provider, adding a second verification factor to user logins and thereby strengthening secure authentication for SaaS access. SAML integration with an IdP (E) is correct because Umbrella can federate authentication to an identity provider such as Okta, Azure AD, or OneLogin via SAML 2.0, enabling single sign-on and centralized, policy-based user authentication. SNMP monitoring (A) is only for collecting device and performance telemetry, not for authenticating users.

A local LDAP database (B) is a directory store, not an authentication integration method Umbrella uses for SaaS SSO, and WPA2-Enterprise (D) is a wireless LAN 802.1X security standard unrelated to SaaS user authentication.

Exam trap

SCAZT often tests the difference between authentication protocols and network protocols — candidates may select LDAP or WPA2-Enterprise because they sound secure, but the exam expects SAML and Duo MFA as the correct application-layer authentication methods for SaaS integration.

32
MCQeasy

Which Cisco technology provides visibility and control over SaaS applications using API-based integration to inspect data at rest?

A.Cisco Cloudlock
B.Cisco Secure Firewall
C.Cisco Stealthwatch
D.Cisco Umbrella
AnswerA

Cisco Cloudlock connects to SaaS platforms through their APIs, scanning stored objects and sharing settings to detect sensitive data, malicious apps and risky permissions. This API-based inspection of data at rest satisfies the stem's requirement for visibility and control over sanctioned and unsanctioned SaaS usage.

Why this answer

Cisco Cloudlock is an API-based CASB that monitors data at rest in SaaS applications by connecting directly to the cloud provider's APIs.

33
MCQhard

In a Cisco Secure Access environment, you are applying an application-layer policy to restrict access to a specific SaaS application based on the user's geolocation. Which tool is used to define this access control rule?

A.Cloudlock API Gateway.
B.Web Security Appliance (WSA) Filter.
C.Secure Access Policy rules.
D.Identity Services Engine (ISE) Policy Sets.
AnswerC

Secure Access Policy rules evaluate identity, device posture and geolocation at the application layer, letting you permit or block a named SaaS app per user location. This is the tool that enforces the geolocation-based restriction the scenario demands.

Why this answer

Cisco Secure Access uses Access Policies that integrate with Identity and Context-Aware settings to enforce location-based access to SaaS applications.

34
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE types of information are typically displayed in the Cisco Umbrella 'App Discovery' report?

Select 3 answers
A.Risk Score
B.User's home address
C.Application Name
D.Traffic Volume
E.Application's source code
AnswersA, C, D

App Discovery assigns each discovered cloud application a risk score derived from Cisco's cloud security intelligence, letting administrators rank shadow IT by threat level. This satisfies the stem's requirement for information typically shown in that report.

Why this answer

The Cisco Umbrella App Discovery report is designed to give visibility into the SaaS and cloud applications in use across the environment, and it surfaces three key data points per application: the Application Name (C), which identifies the discovered app; the Traffic Volume (D), which shows how much bandwidth or request activity that app generates; and the Risk Score (A), which rates the app's security/privacy risk based on Cisco's Cloudlock/Umbrella intelligence. These three fields let administrators quickly triage shadow IT by knowing what the app is, how much it is used, and how risky it is. The other options do not belong: a User's home address (B) is personal data never shown in this report, and an Application's source code (E) is proprietary code that Umbrella has no access to and does not display.

Exam trap

SCAZT often tests whether candidates know the specific fields in Umbrella reports, tempting them with plausible-sounding but non-existent data like user home address or application source code.

35
MCQhard

When integrating Cisco Cloudlock with O365, which authentication mechanism is required to allow the CASB to perform administrative actions, such as removing a malicious file share?

A.LDAP over TLS.
B.SAML 2.0 with manual certificate import.
C.Basic Authentication over SSL.
D.OAuth 2.0 delegated permissions.
AnswerD

Cisco Cloudlock needs OAuth 2.0 delegated permissions so it acts on behalf of an authorised administrator within Microsoft Entra ID, obtaining scoped tokens to enumerate and remediate content such as removing malicious file shares, without storing privileged credentials.

Why this answer

Cisco Cloudlock (now part of Cisco Umbrella/Cloudlock CASB) integrates with Microsoft 365 via OAuth 2.0 delegated permissions so the CASB can act on behalf of an authorized admin to enumerate files, inspect shares, and perform remediation such as removing a malicious file share. OAuth 2.0 delegated permissions grant scoped, revocable API access without storing user credentials, which is required for administrative actions against the Microsoft Graph and Office 365 APIs.

Exam trap

SCAZT often tests the confusion between authentication protocols (SAML, LDAP, Basic Auth) and API authorization, tricking candidates into choosing SAML or LDAP when the CASB actually needs OAuth 2.0 delegated permissions to perform administrative actions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because LDAP over TLS is a directory authentication protocol and does not provide the Microsoft Graph/Office 365 API permissions Cloudlock needs to remediate files. Option B is wrong because SAML 2.0 is a federated authentication/SSO protocol for user sign-in, not an API authorization mechanism for a CASB to perform administrative actions. Option C is wrong because Basic Authentication over SSL only transmits credentials and does not grant the scoped, delegated API permissions required for Cloudlock to remove a file share, and Microsoft has deprecated basic auth for many O365 APIs.

36
MCQmedium

You notice an employee is accessing a cloud app that is not approved by IT. Which Umbrella feature allows you to see this activity?

A.App Discovery
B.Activity Search
C.DNS Policy
D.SSL Inspection
AnswerA

App Discovery analyses traffic logs to identify cloud applications in use, including unsanctioned ones, without requiring agents or proxies on endpoints. It satisfies the stem's requirement to detect an employee accessing a non-approved cloud app, reporting that activity through the Umbrella dashboard's discovered apps inventory.

Why this answer

App Discovery in Cisco Umbrella provides visibility into all cloud applications being accessed by users on the network, including those not sanctioned by IT. It uses DNS traffic analysis to identify and categorize thousands of SaaS applications, highlighting shadow IT. This feature allows administrators to see which unapproved apps are in use, assess risk, and take action.

Thus, App Discovery directly answers the need to see the employee's activity.

Exam trap

SCAZT often tests the distinction between visibility features (App Discovery) and enforcement features (DNS Policy) or general reporting (Activity Search), so candidates may confuse App Discovery with Activity Search because both provide visibility, but only App Discovery categorizes and highlights unsanctioned apps.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Activity Search is a reporting tool that allows you to search historical DNS activity for specific domains or identities, but it does not automatically identify or categorize cloud apps as approved or unapproved. Option C is wrong because DNS Policy is used to enforce security policies by blocking or allowing domains based on categories or custom lists, not for discovering app usage. Option D is wrong because SSL Inspection is a technique to decrypt and inspect encrypted traffic for threats, not a feature for identifying cloud app usage.

37
MCQhard

If you configure an API-based connector for a new SaaS app in Cisco Cloudlock, when does the initial scan typically begin?

A.At midnight, based on the system clock.
B.Only when the first user logs in.
C.After an administrator manually clicks 'Start'.
D.Immediately upon saving the configuration.
AnswerD

API-based connectors in Cisco Cloudlock begin scanning as soon as the configuration is saved, satisfying the stem's "initial scan" timing. Unlike proxy or log-based connectors, which rely on traffic or ingested events, API connectors pull data directly, so no waiting period or scheduled trigger delays the first scan.

Why this answer

In Cisco Cloudlock, when you configure an API-based connector for a SaaS application and save the configuration, the initial scan of the tenant's data begins immediately. Cloudlock does not wait for a scheduled window or manual trigger; the scan is initiated as soon as the connector is successfully saved and authenticated.

Exam trap

SCAZT often tests whether candidates assume scans are scheduled or manual; the trap is selecting 'At midnight' or 'After administrator clicks Start' instead of recognizing that saving the connector triggers an immediate scan.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Cloudlock does not defer the initial scan to a midnight schedule; scheduled scans apply to subsequent recurring scans, not the first one. Option B is wrong because the scan is not dependent on user login activity; it is a tenant-wide API pull. Option C is wrong because no manual 'Start' button is required — saving the configuration triggers the scan automatically.

38
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE mechanisms are commonly used by a CASB to enforce access control to SaaS applications?

Select 3 answers
A.Local host firewall rules.
B.Direct switch-to-server connection.
C.API-based integration.
D.Reverse Proxy.
E.Forward Proxy.
AnswersC, D, E

API-based integration lets a CASB reach directly into the SaaS tenant via published APIs, applying policy to data at rest and to activities that bypass the proxy entirely. This satisfies the stem's enforcement requirement for managed cloud apps, complementing inline mechanisms by governing sanctioned-app content and user actions out-of-band.

Why this answer

A CASB commonly enforces access control to SaaS applications through three primary deployment modes. API-based integration (C) connects directly to the SaaS provider's REST APIs to scan content, apply DLP policies, and enforce access rules without inline traffic inspection. Reverse Proxy (D) sits between users and the SaaS app, intercepting sessions so the CASB can apply authentication, authorization, and policy controls inline.

Forward Proxy (E) routes user traffic from the endpoint through the CASB, enabling inline enforcement of access policies for SaaS sessions. Local host firewall rules (A) operate at the OS/network layer and cannot inspect SaaS application context or user identity, so they are not a CASB enforcement mechanism. Direct switch-to-server connection (B) is a network topology concept, not an access-control mechanism used by a CASB.

39
MCQmedium

Which Cisco Cloudlock policy type should be used to detect when a user logs in from an unusual geographic location?

A.Data Exposure
B.Cross-platform threat
C.Application firewall
D.User Behavior Analytics
AnswerD

User Behaviour Analytics baselines each user's normal sign-in patterns and flags logins from unusual geographic locations, satisfying the requirement to detect anomalous access. Unlike content-based policies, which inspect data at rest or in transit, UBA evaluates identity and session context, making it the appropriate Cisco Cloudlock policy type for geographic anomaly detection.

Why this answer

Cisco Cloudlock's User Behavior Analytics (UBA) policy type is designed to detect anomalous user activity, including logins from unusual geographic locations. UBA builds a behavioral baseline for each user and flags deviations such as impossible travel, atypical login times, or access from new countries. This is distinct from data exposure or threat policies, which focus on content and malware rather than user behavior patterns.

Exam trap

SCAZT often tests the distinction between Cloudlock policy types, and candidates confuse UBA (behavioral/geolocation anomalies) with Data Exposure (content-based DLP) or Cross-platform threat (malware/IOC) policies.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Data Exposure policies focus on detecting sensitive data (PII, PCI, credentials) being shared or stored in cloud applications, not on login geolocation anomalies. Option B is wrong because Cross-platform threat policies detect indicators of compromise such as malicious files or known bad actors across SaaS platforms, not user login behavior. Option C is wrong because Application firewall policies control which apps are allowed or blocked based on risk and category, not user login geography.

40
MCQmedium

Which component of Cisco's secure cloud access architecture is responsible for performing URL filtering and malware scanning on traffic destined for SaaS applications?

A.Cisco Secure Endpoint
B.Cisco Umbrella
C.Cisco Cloudlock
D.Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance
AnswerB

Cisco Umbrella enforces DNS-layer and secure web gateway controls, performing URL filtering and malware scanning inline for SaaS-bound traffic. It satisfies the stem's requirement for a dedicated cloud security component, unlike identity brokers or CASB-only offerings, because inspection occurs at the DNS and web proxy layers before sessions reach the SaaS application.

Why this answer

Cisco Umbrella is the secure internet gateway component that performs DNS-layer security, URL filtering, and malware/file inspection on traffic destined for SaaS and internet applications. It is the cloud-delivered secure web gateway in Cisco's secure cloud access architecture.

Exam trap

SCAZT often tests whether candidates confuse Umbrella (cloud SWG/SIG) with Cloudlock (CASB) or Secure Endpoint (EDR), so the trap is picking the wrong Cisco security product for the specific function described.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Cisco Secure Endpoint is an endpoint detection and response (EDR) agent that protects hosts, not a cloud gateway performing URL filtering on SaaS traffic. Option C is wrong because Cisco Cloudlock is a cloud access security broker (CASB) focused on API-based SaaS data protection and DLP, not inline URL filtering and malware scanning of web traffic. Option D is wrong because Cisco ASA is an on-premises firewall, not the cloud-delivered component responsible for SaaS URL filtering in the secure cloud access architecture.

41
MCQhard

You are utilizing Cisco Umbrella to block access to unsanctioned SaaS apps. You want to allow access to O365 but restrict users to only your corporate tenant. Which feature should you enable?

A.URL filtering
B.DNS Layer Security
C.SSL Decryption
D.Tenant Restrictions
AnswerD

Tenant Restrictions inspects the OAuth token's tenant identifier, blocking sign-ins to any Microsoft 365 tenant other than your corporate one. This satisfies the stem's constraint of permitting O365 access while confining users to the sanctioned tenant, unlike blanket category blocking.

Why this answer

Tenant Restrictions in Cisco Umbrella prevents users from authenticating to non-corporate O365 tenants by injecting HTTP headers that tell Microsoft which tenant IDs are allowed. This allows access to O365 while restricting users to only the organization's tenant, blocking personal or third-party tenants. It is the specific feature designed for this tenant-scoping use case.

Exam trap

SCAZT often tests whether candidates confuse enabling SSL decryption (a prerequisite) with the actual tenant-restriction enforcement feature, causing them to select SSL Decryption instead of Tenant Restrictions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because URL filtering blocks or allows based on URL categories/domains, but cannot distinguish between different O365 tenants sharing the same domains (e.g., login.microsoftonline.com). Option B is wrong because DNS Layer Security operates at the DNS level and cannot enforce tenant-level restrictions within a SaaS app. Option C is wrong because SSL Decryption only enables visibility into encrypted traffic; it does not itself enforce tenant restrictions — it is a prerequisite enabler, not the feature that restricts tenants.

42
MCQeasy

Which term describes the unauthorized use of cloud applications by employees within an organization?

A.Zero Trust
B.Cloud-Native
C.Shadow IT
D.BYOD
AnswerC

Shadow IT precisely names unsanctioned cloud application use by employees, satisfying the stem's requirement for the term describing unauthorised cloud usage. It covers any application procured or used without IT approval, including SaaS tools, distinguishing it from sanctioned deployments governed through Microsoft Entra ID and organisational security policy.

Why this answer

Shadow IT refers to applications or software used within an organization without explicit IT department approval.

43
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE data types are commonly supported by the Cisco Cloudlock DLP engine for pattern matching?

Select 3 answers
A.Unencrypted binary firmware images
B.Passport Numbers
C.System BIOS versions
D.Credit Card Numbers
E.Social Security Numbers
AnswersB, D, E

Passport numbers are structured, country-specific identifiers that Cloudlock's DLP engine detects through predefined regex patterns and checksum validation, satisfying the stem's pattern-matching requirement. Unlike free-text fields, their predictable alphanumeric format enables reliable classification across cloud traffic, making them a commonly supported data type.

Why this answer

Cisco Cloudlock's DLP engine is designed to detect and classify sensitive data in cloud applications, and it commonly supports structured personal and financial identifiers for pattern matching, including Passport Numbers (B), Credit Card Numbers (D), and Social Security Numbers (E). These data types have well-defined formats (for example, credit cards validated via the Luhn algorithm and SSNs matching the NNN-NN-NNNN pattern), which makes them ideal for regex- and checksum-based detection. Passport numbers are also included because Cloudlock maintains country-specific patterns for government-issued identity documents.

The unmarked options do not belong: Unencrypted binary firmware images (A) and System BIOS versions (C) are not personal or sensitive data categories that Cloudlock's DLP engine targets for pattern matching, as they lack the structured, regulated formats the engine is built to identify.

Exam trap

SCAZT often tests whether candidates can distinguish structured PII/PCI data types (which DLP engines pattern-match) from arbitrary technical artifacts like firmware or BIOS versions.

44
MCQeasy

An administrator notices that sensitive data is being shared via Microsoft Teams. Where in the Cloudlock dashboard should they navigate to identify which specific users are sharing the files?

A.Platform > Users > Provisioning.
B.Platform > Settings > API Configuration.
C.Platform > Threat Intelligence.
D.Platform > Incidents dashboard.
AnswerD

The Incidents dashboard under Platform surfaces policy violations with the offending user and file details, so the administrator can pinpoint exactly who shared the sensitive data. It satisfies the stem's need to identify specific users rather than just viewing aggregate activity.

Why this answer

The Cloudlock Incidents dashboard is where DLP and other policy violations are surfaced, showing details such as the offending file, the policy matched, and the users involved. To identify which specific users are sharing sensitive files via Teams, the administrator reviews the incident details in Platform > Incidents. This is the central triage view for policy violations.

Exam trap

SCAZT often tests whether candidates know the correct Cloudlock navigation path for incident triage versus administrative settings, so distractors point to provisioning, API config, or threat intel menus.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Platform > Users > Provisioning deals with user account lifecycle and directory sync, not incident investigation. Option B is wrong because Platform > Settings > API Configuration is for configuring API tokens and integrations, not for viewing DLP incidents. Option C is wrong because Platform > Threat Intelligence focuses on threat-related intelligence feeds and indicators, not on DLP file-sharing incidents.

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