PMI-RMP Multiple Select — 10 Questions

Question 1

Which THREE criteria are commonly used to prioritize risks for reporting in a dashboard?

Accepted Answer

Probability of occurrence. Option C (Probability of occurrence) is correct because risk prioritization typically begins with assessing how likely a risk is to happen, often expressed as a likelihood rating or percentage, so that more probable risks receive higher reporting priority. Option D (Impact on project objectives) is correct because the severity of consequences on scope, schedule, cost, or quality determines how damaging a risk would be, and high-impact risks warrant prominent dashboard visibility. Option E (Urgency of the risk event) is correct because the time frame in which a risk must be addressed affects prioritization; near-term risks require immediate attention and are ranked higher than those with longer horizons. Option A (The name of the software used for tracking) is not a prioritization criterion because the tracking tool is merely an administrative detail and does not reflect risk severity or likelihood. Option B (The birth date of the risk owner) is irrelevant personal information and has no bearing on how a risk should be ranked for reporting.

Answer

The name of the software used for tracking

Answer

The birth date of the risk owner

Question 2

Which THREE factors should be considered when assessing the impact of a risk?

Accepted Answer

Technical performance degradation. When assessing the impact of a risk, three key dimensions are technical performance degradation (A), financial cost (B), and schedule delay (D). Technical performance degradation (A) matters because a risk can reduce system functionality, reliability, or quality below required specifications, directly affecting whether the deliverable meets its technical objectives. Financial cost (B) is a core impact factor since risks can trigger budget overruns through rework, penalties, or additional resources, which must be quantified against the approved budget baseline. Schedule delay (D) is equally essential because risks can push critical-path activities past milestones, delaying delivery and potentially incurring contractual penalties or lost business value. By contrast, personnel vacation schedule (C) is a resource-planning or staffing consideration rather than a direct impact dimension, and office supply availability (E) is a trivial operational detail with no meaningful bearing on risk impact assessment.

Answer

Personnel vacation schedule

Answer

Office supply availability

Question 3

Which THREE criteria are commonly used to score risks during qualitative analysis?

Accepted Answer

Probability of occurrence.. Qualitative risk analysis scores each identified risk by combining two core dimensions: the likelihood that the risk event will happen, which is option C, probability of occurrence, and the severity of its effect on scope, schedule, cost, or quality, which is option D, impact on project objectives. These two factors are typically multiplied on a probability-impact matrix to produce a relative risk score that drives prioritization. Option E, urgency of the response required, is also a common qualitative scoring criterion because risks needing near-term action (for example, those with short response windows or imminent triggers) are rated higher so they can be escalated and addressed first. Options A and B are not risk-scoring criteria: an office address is irrelevant to the likelihood or consequence of a project risk, and the project manager's age has no bearing on risk exposure or prioritization.

Answer

The office address.

Answer

The age of the project manager.

Question 4

Which TWO of the following are essential components of a well-maintained risk register?

Accepted Answer

Risk owner. A well-maintained risk register must include a risk owner (B), because every identified risk needs an assigned individual accountable for monitoring, mitigating, and reporting on it throughout the risk management lifecycle. It must also include a risk description (D), since documenting the nature of the risk — its cause, potential impact, and likelihood — is the core purpose of the register and enables proper analysis and response planning. Options A, C, and E are not essential components: meeting minutes, team member CVs, and vendor contact information are unrelated administrative artifacts that do not describe or manage risks, even if they may be stored elsewhere in project documentation.

Answer

Detailed historical log of all meeting minutes

Answer

Project team member CVs

Answer

Vendor contact information

Question 5

Which THREE categories are typically found in a standard Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)?

Accepted Answer

External risk category.. In a standard Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS), risks are organized into hierarchical categories, and the External risk category (A) is correct because it captures risks originating outside the project team's control, such as regulatory, market, weather, or supplier-related risks. The Technical risk category (C) is correct because it covers risks tied to requirements, technology, design, interfaces, and performance, which are core technical sources of project uncertainty. The Management risk category (D) is correct because it addresses risks from project management processes such as estimating, planning, resourcing, communication, and control. The color preference category (B) and the lunch break category (E) are not recognized RBS risk categories; they are irrelevant to standard risk classification and do not represent sources of project risk.

Answer

The color preference category.

Answer

The lunch break category.

Question 6

Which TWO of the following are common types of probability distributions used in risk simulation?

Accepted Answer

Triangular distribution.. The Triangular distribution (A) is correct because it is a standard probability distribution in risk simulation (e.g., Monte Carlo analysis), defined by minimum, most likely, and maximum values, making it ideal for modeling expert estimates when limited data is available. The Beta distribution (D) is also correct because it is widely used in risk simulation to model uncertainty bounded between 0 and 1, such as probabilities or percentages, and can take many shapes (including uniform, U-shaped, or J-shaped) based on its two shape parameters. The other options are not recognized probability distributions: 'Square distribution' (B) is not a standard statistical distribution, 'Linear distribution' (C) is not a formal probability distribution (though a linear density could be constructed, it is not a common named type), and 'Circular distribution' (E) is not a standard probability distribution used in risk simulation.

Answer

Square distribution.

Answer

Linear distribution.

Answer

Circular distribution.

Question 7

Which TWO behaviors demonstrate strong risk management leadership?

Accepted Answer

Always being the first to report a risk they have identified.. Option A is correct because proactively and promptly reporting a risk you have identified models transparency and psychological safety, which are core to strong risk management leadership; leaders who surface risks early enable faster mitigation and prevent small issues from becoming incidents. Option D is correct because encouraging team members to challenge assumptions during risk assessments directly strengthens risk identification and analysis by surfacing blind spots, biases, and unvalidated premises before they lead to failures. Option B is incorrect because hoarding risk information suppresses visibility and prevents the organization from making informed decisions, which is the opposite of good risk leadership. Option C is incorrect because blaming team members after a risk event destroys trust and discourages honest reporting, undermining a healthy risk culture. Option E is incorrect because taking responsibility for risks assigned to others is not leadership but a failure of accountability delegation; strong leaders ensure ownership is clear and empower others to manage their assigned risks.

Answer

Keeping all risk information to themselves to avoid unnecessary noise.

Answer

Blaming team members when a risk event happens.

Answer

Taking full responsibility for all risks, even those assigned to others.

Question 8

Which THREE data inputs are required to model a risk event in a quantitative simulation?

Accepted Answer

Impact (duration or cost) if the risk occurs.. Option A (Impact, duration or cost, if the risk occurs) is correct because a quantitative risk simulation needs a quantified consequence—such as a monetary cost or schedule duration—to compute the effect of the risk on the project's cost or schedule distribution. Option D (Task linkage or scope of impact) is correct because the simulation must know which tasks, activities, or WBS elements the risk affects so the impact can be propagated through the schedule or cost model. Option E (Probability of occurrence) is correct because the likelihood of the risk event drives how often it is sampled in a Monte Carlo simulation, directly shaping the resulting probability distribution. Option B (current market inflation rate) is not a required per-risk input; inflation is typically handled as a global estimating or escalation factor, not as a risk-event parameter. Option C (the risk owner's contact information) is irrelevant to the mathematical modeling of a risk event, since ownership is a response/management detail rather than a simulation input.

Answer

The current market inflation rate.

Answer

The risk owner's contact information.

Question 9

Which THREE actions should a practitioner take when a risk response plan is failing?

Accepted Answer

Immediately inform stakeholders about the situation and the plan to address it.. Option A is correct because transparent, timely communication with stakeholders is a core risk-management responsibility; stakeholders must be informed of the failing response and the corrective plan so they can make informed decisions and provide support. Option B is correct because the risk owner is accountable for managing the risk, so the practitioner should collaborate with that owner to reassess and revise the response strategy based on current conditions. Option D is correct because root-cause analysis of why the response is failing is essential before developing a corrective action plan, ensuring the new approach addresses the actual problem rather than symptoms. Option C is incorrect because hiding a failing response violates ethical and professional risk-management practices and allows the risk to escalate unchecked. Option E is incorrect because immediately firing the risk owner is a punitive, premature reaction that ignores the need for analysis, collaboration, and corrective planning.

Answer

Try to hide the failure until the project ends.

Answer

Fire the risk owner immediately.

Question 10

Which TWO approaches are recommended when a stakeholder is hesitant to participate in risk management activities?

Accepted Answer

Showing the stakeholder how risk management will help their area succeed.. Option B is correct because framing risk management in terms of the stakeholder's own goals and success demonstrates tangible value, which is the recommended way to overcome hesitancy and build buy-in. Option D is correct because engaging the stakeholder in a two-way discussion to uncover the root cause of their concerns (e.g., fear of blame, time burden, or unclear benefit) allows the risk manager to address those specific issues and adapt the approach accordingly. Options A and E are incorrect because ignoring or excluding a stakeholder damages communication and eliminates their input, which can leave risks unidentified and unmanaged. Option C is incorrect because coercion and threats undermine trust and collaboration, violating the constructive, transparent spirit of risk management and stakeholder engagement.

Answer

Ignoring the stakeholder and working around them.

Answer

Threatening to lower their performance rating if they do not participate.

Answer

Removing the stakeholder from all future project communications.