ISC Practice Test 18 — 15 Questions

Question 1

An ISSE is defining the 'Security Architecture' for an enterprise network. Which concept should be prioritized to ensure that an attacker who gains access to one segment cannot easily pivot to others?

Accepted Answer

Network segmentation. Network segmentation and compartmentalization are essential for preventing lateral movement.

Answer

Unified authentication store

Answer

Centralized logging

Answer

Flat network topology

Question 2

In a Zero Trust architecture, what is the most critical function of a Policy Decision Point (PDP)?

Accepted Answer

Evaluate access requests based on context, identity, and policy to issue a decision.. The PDP is the central engine that evaluates requests against security policies and context to make an 'allow' or 'deny' decision.

Answer

Enforce the access decision on the network resource.

Answer

Monitor network traffic for anomalous behavior.

Answer

Store user authentication credentials.

Question 3

A systems security engineer is conducting a design review for a new web application that will handle sensitive customer data. The architecture includes a web server, application server, and database server. The engineer notices that the application server directly connects to the database using a hard-coded administrative account with full privileges. Which security principle is most directly violated by this design?

Accepted Answer

Least privilege. Least privilege is violated because the application server is using a hard-coded administrative account with full privileges, which exceeds the rights needed for its function. This creates a significant risk if the application server is compromised, as the attacker gains full database control. The design should instead use a service account with only the necessary permissions, adhering to the principle of least privilege.

Answer

Separation of duties

Answer

Fail-safe defaults

Answer

Defense in depth

Question 4

You are assessing an Engineered System that utilizes a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) for secure boot. A scan reveals that the firmware version is outdated and susceptible to a known key-injection vulnerability. Which action should the ISSEP prioritize?

Accepted Answer

Perform a firmware update using the manufacturer's signed secure update process.. Firmware vulnerabilities involving the TPM and secure boot chain represent a fundamental compromise of the root of trust. Remediation must prioritize the update of the firmware to restore the integrity of the secure boot sequence.

Answer

Update the security policy to include manual verification of boot logs.

Answer

Configure an IDS to block unauthorized firmware update attempts.

Answer

Disable TPM-based secure boot until the vendor releases a patch.

Question 5

What is the primary advantage of 'Defense in Depth'?

Accepted Answer

It provides multiple layers of security to mitigate single point failures. Defense in depth ensures that if one control fails, others are present to stop an attacker, creating a more robust overall system.

Answer

It makes the system faster

Answer

It simplifies system maintenance

Answer

It removes the need for firewalls

Question 6

An ISSEP is performing a system-level risk assessment for a new payroll application that will process employee bank account details. The system owner insists on using a proprietary, unpublished encryption algorithm because it is 'faster than AES.' Which risk response is MOST appropriate according to ISSEP risk management principles?

Accepted Answer

Reject the design and require the use of a NIST-approved, publicly vetted cryptographic algorithm such as AES-256 for data at rest and in transit.. The proprietary algorithm has no public cryptanalysis, so its vulnerability is unknown and cannot be reliably assessed. ISSEP risk management favors proven, standards-based controls. Mandating a NIST-approved algorithm such as AES-256 provides validated assurance, reduces likelihood of compromise, and meets regulatory expectations for PII protection. The other responses either accept unquantified risk, transfer only financial liability, or layer an unvetted cipher, none of which adequately mitigates the technical risk.

Answer

Accept the proprietary algorithm because performance is a valid risk trade-off if the system owner formally accepts the residual risk.

Answer

Transfer the cryptographic risk to the software vendor by requiring an indemnification clause in the procurement contract.

Answer

Mitigate the risk by adding a second layer of the same proprietary algorithm (double encryption) to increase the effective key strength.

Question 7

An ISSEP is conducting a risk assessment for a new system that will process Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) on a government contract. The system owner proposes a purely qualitative risk assessment using a 5x5 likelihood-impact matrix because it is faster and cheaper. The contract requires compliance with NIST SP 800-171 and a defensible risk determination. Which action should the ISSEP recommend?

Accepted Answer

Perform a hybrid assessment that uses the qualitative matrix for initial screening and a quantitative analysis for high-impact risks.. The hybrid method is appropriate because it balances efficiency with defensibility. Qualitative screening quickly categorizes risks, while quantitative analysis of the most consequential risks provides the numeric basis needed for cost-benefit decisions and risk acceptance. This satisfies both the practical constraints of the project and the requirement for a defensible determination supporting CUI protection.

Answer

Accept the qualitative matrix because it satisfies the risk assessment requirement in NIST SP 800-171.

Answer

Replace the matrix with a full quantitative Monte Carlo simulation for every identified risk, regardless of severity.

Answer

Defer the risk assessment until the system is operational so that real incident data can be used instead of estimates.

Question 8

Which THREE components are necessary to define a complete 'Security Policy' for an enterprise system?

Accepted Answer

Standards and procedures. Policies must define the 'what' (High-level), the 'how' (Standards/Procedures), and the 'how-to' (Guidelines).

Answer

Office cleaning schedule

Answer

Employee salary structure

Question 9

When designing a secure system architecture, which TWO of the following are primary considerations for achieving the principle of 'Defense in Depth'?

Accepted Answer

Applying security controls at multiple architectural layers. Defense in depth relies on layering security controls so that a single failure does not result in a total system compromise.

Answer

Relying solely on perimeter authentication

Answer

Maximizing system throughput by minimizing encryption

Answer

Implementing a single high-availability firewall

Question 10

What is the first step when preparing a system for secure disposal?

Accepted Answer

Inventory the assets. Creating an inventory ensures that all components, including peripherals and secondary storage, are accounted for prior to sanitization.

Answer

Run a virus scan

Answer

Physically destroy the hardware

Answer

Send it to recycling

Question 11

You are the security lead for a financial institution that is decommissioning a legacy server that processed credit card transactions. The server contains encrypted cardholder data. Legal requires that all data be irretrievably destroyed. The server has multiple hard drives that are still functional. Which disposal method best meets the requirement while also allowing for potential reuse of the drives?

Accepted Answer

Purge the drives using cryptographic erase by destroying the encryption keys.. Cryptographic erase is a Purge-level sanitization method that destroys the encryption keys, making the encrypted data unrecoverable. It is suitable for functional drives that may be reused because the media itself is not destroyed. This meets the legal requirement for irretrievable destruction while preserving the drives for potential reuse, unlike degaussing or shredding.

Answer

Clear the drives using a single-pass overwrite of all addressable sectors.

Answer

Physically destroy the drives by shredding them.

Answer

Degauss the drives to remove all magnetic traces.

Question 12

An ISSEP is briefing a program manager on the purpose of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) as defined in NIST SP 800-37. The program manager asks which statement best describes the fundamental goal of applying RMF to a new information system. Which response should the ISSEP give?

Accepted Answer

To integrate security and risk management activities into the system development life cycle. The RMF's core purpose is to integrate security, privacy, and risk management into every phase of the system development life cycle. It provides a structured process for categorizing systems, selecting and implementing controls, assessing them, authorizing operation, and monitoring continuously. It manages rather than eliminates risk and does not transfer accountability.

Answer

To transfer all system risk to the cloud service provider or integrator

Answer

To certify that a system meets a fixed security baseline regardless of mission needs

Answer

To eliminate all residual risk before the system is authorized to operate

Question 13

You are an ISSEP working on a system that uses a service-oriented architecture. The system must enforce access control decisions based on multiple attributes, including user role, clearance level, and time of day. The policy is centrally managed and may change dynamically. Which access control model best fits these requirements?

Accepted Answer

Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC). Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) is designed to evaluate multiple attributes, including subject, object, and environmental conditions, to make access decisions. It supports dynamic policies that can be centrally managed and updated in real time. This makes it ideal for a service-oriented architecture where access must depend on role, clearance, time of day, and other factors.

Answer

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

Answer

Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

Answer

Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Question 14

You are engineering the disposal process for a system that stores Top Secret information on magnetic tape. The tapes are at end-of-life and will be transported to an offsite facility for destruction. Which combination of activities BEST ensures the media cannot be reconstructed and that the disposal is auditable?

Accepted Answer

Degauss the tapes onsite, then transport them to the offsite facility for incineration, and retain the degausser certification and destruction certificates.. For Top Secret magnetic media, degaussing followed by incineration provides both logical and physical destruction. Retaining the degausser certification and the destruction certificate creates the audit trail required for accountability. This combination ensures the data cannot be reconstructed and that the disposal process can be verified by auditors.

Answer

Transport the tapes to the offsite facility and have them shredded, then record the serial numbers in the disposal log.

Answer

Store the tapes in a secure container until they can be incinerated onsite, and have the container custodian sign a hand receipt.

Answer

Overwrite the tapes with a single pass of random data, then transport them for incineration and keep the overwrite log.

Question 15

What is the primary benefit of modularity in secure systems design?

Accepted Answer

Facilitates security analysis and component isolation. Modularity allows for fault isolation and easier security verification of individual components.

Answer

Reduces the total number of lines of code

Answer

Eliminates the need for API gateways

Answer

Guarantees the system cannot be hacked