CRISC Timed Hard Questions — 25 Difficult Questions

Question 1

A multinational corporation is expanding its cloud infrastructure to include a new SaaS application that stores sensitive customer data. The vendor claims compliance with SOC 2 Type II and ISO 27001. The risk manager must determine if the remaining residual risk after vendor controls is within the company's risk appetite. Which of the following is the MOST critical next step?

Accepted Answer

Conduct a data classification and legal review to identify applicable regulatory obligations.. Option B is correct because understanding the data classification and regulatory requirements determines if additional controls are needed beyond the vendor's certifications. Option A is wrong because certifications alone do not guarantee all risks are addressed. Option C is wrong because the vendor's own risk assessment may not consider the company's specific requirements. Option D is wrong because a pilot does not assess regulatory compliance.

Answer

Request the vendor's latest risk assessment report.

Answer

Perform a pilot deployment and monitor for security incidents.

Answer

Accept the vendor's certifications as sufficient evidence of control effectiveness.

Question 2

Which THREE of the following are key components of an IT risk assessment report as per ISACA guidelines?

Accepted Answer

Identified risk scenarios and their risk levels. Option C is correct because an IT risk assessment report, per ISACA guidelines, must include identified risk scenarios and their associated risk levels. This is a core component that documents the specific threats, vulnerabilities, and the resulting inherent risk ratings (e.g., using a 5x5 risk matrix) to provide a clear picture of the risk landscape.

Answer

Detailed results of control testing

Answer

Cost-benefit analysis of risk responses

Question 3

You are the IT risk manager for a mid-sized e-commerce company that processes over 10,000 transactions per day. The company recently migrated its customer database from an on-premises SQL Server to a cloud-based PostgreSQL instance on AWS RDS. The database contains personally identifiable information (PII) including names, addresses, and credit card numbers (stored as encrypted tokens). The migration was performed by the DevOps team with minimal involvement from the security team. Two weeks after the migration, the company experienced a data breach where an attacker exfiltrated a subset of customer records. The forensic investigation revealed that the attacker exploited a misconfigured security group that allowed inbound traffic from the internet on port 5432 (PostgreSQL default port). Additionally, the database had a publicly accessible endpoint, and the master user password was weak (eight characters, no special characters). The attacker used a brute-force attack to guess the password. The security group has since been corrected, and the password has been changed to a strong one. The breach notification laws require reporting within 72 hours. The CEO wants to understand the root cause and prevent recurrence. As the risk manager, which of the following actions should you recommend as the MOST effective to prevent a similar incident?

Accepted Answer

Implement infrastructure-as-code (IaC) security scanning and policy enforcement in the CI/CD pipeline to prevent insecure configurations.. Option C is correct because the root cause is the misconfigured security group and weak password, both of which stem from insufficient security review and lack of automated controls. Implementing a policy-as-code tool that enforces security group rules (e.g., no public access to databases) and password policies during deployment would prevent such misconfigurations. Option A is wrong because while a dedicated DBA could help, it does not address the process gap for automated enforcement. Option B is wrong because quarterly reviews are too infrequent to catch misconfigurations quickly. Option D is wrong because IDS/IPS detects attacks but does not prevent misconfigurations.

Answer

Deploy an intrusion detection system (IDS) to monitor database traffic for brute-force attempts.

Answer

Hire a dedicated database administrator to review all database configurations weekly.

Answer

Conduct quarterly security audits of cloud infrastructure configurations.

Question 4

A company has implemented a risk mitigation plan that includes technical controls. However, six months later, the residual risk is still higher than expected. The risk practitioner suspects that the controls are not being followed. Which of the following is the BEST approach to verify this?

Accepted Answer

Conduct a control testing and audit review. Conducting a control testing and audit review directly assesses whether controls are operating as intended. Option A is indirect. Option C does not verify effectiveness. Option D is too broad.

Answer

Perform a new risk assessment

Answer

Interview control owners

Answer

Review risk register updates

Question 5

An organization uses a quantitative risk analysis method. The annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) for a specific threat is 0.5, and the single loss expectancy (SLE) is $200,000. What is the annualized loss expectancy (ALE)?

Accepted Answer

$100,000. The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is calculated as ARO × SLE = 0.5 × $200,000 = $100,000. This represents the expected annual financial loss from the threat, factoring in both the frequency of occurrence and the impact per incident.

Answer

$400,000

Answer

$100,000

Answer

$200,000

Question 6

Which THREE of the following are key components of an effective risk reporting framework?

Accepted Answer

Consistent risk metrics across the organization.. Consistent risk metrics across the organization (Option B) are a key component of an effective risk reporting framework because they ensure that risk data is comparable and aggregated meaningfully across different business units and systems. Without standardized metrics, reports would be inconsistent, making it impossible to assess overall risk posture or identify trends reliably.

Answer

Automated collection of risk data from all sources.

Answer

Statistical models for predicting future risks.

Question 7

A company has a control that automatically rejects transactions over $10,000. During a review, it is found that 2% of transactions over $10,000 were approved due to a system glitch. The control owner says the glitch has been fixed. What should the risk practitioner do next?

Accepted Answer

Request evidence of the fix and perform a sample test of recent transactions.. Option B is correct because the risk practitioner must independently verify that the system glitch has been resolved before closing the finding. Requesting evidence of the fix (e.g., change logs, patch notes) and performing a sample test of recent transactions provides objective assurance that the control is now operating effectively. This aligns with the CRISC principle that control owner assurances alone are insufficient without validation, especially for automated controls where residual risk from the glitch could persist.

Answer

Accept the control owner's assurance and close the finding.

Answer

Recommend a compensating control until the fix is confirmed.

Answer

Report the issue to the audit committee.

Question 8

Based on the risk register exhibit, which of the following is the MOST appropriate risk response for R-0042?

Accepted Answer

Accept the risk and continue monitoring. R-0042 is a low-likelihood, low-impact risk involving PII stored with AES-256 encryption and strict access controls. The residual risk is within the organization's risk appetite, making acceptance with continued monitoring the most appropriate response. Mitigation, transfer, or avoidance would introduce unnecessary cost or operational disruption for a risk already well-controlled.

Answer

Mitigate the risk by implementing additional encryption controls

Answer

Transfer the risk to a third-party insurer

Answer

Avoid the risk by discontinuing storage of PII

Question 9

A multinational organization is implementing a risk mitigation strategy for a critical system. The business impact analysis shows that downtime costs are extremely high. Which risk response strategy is MOST appropriate for this scenario?

Accepted Answer

Risk reduction by implementing redundant systems. Given the extremely high downtime costs, the most appropriate risk response is risk reduction through implementing redundant systems. This directly addresses the critical system's availability requirement by eliminating single points of failure, thereby reducing both the likelihood and impact of downtime. Decommissioning the system (avoidance) would eliminate the business function entirely, which is typically not viable for a critical system, while insurance (transfer) only provides financial compensation after the loss, not preventing the operational impact of downtime.

Answer

Risk avoidance by decommissioning the system

Answer

Risk transfer through cyber insurance

Answer

Risk acceptance because mitigation is too costly

Question 10

Which THREE of the following are key components of an effective risk treatment plan?

Accepted Answer

Assigned responsibilities. Assigned responsibilities are a key component of an effective risk treatment plan because they ensure accountability for implementing specific risk mitigation actions. Without clear ownership, tasks may be delayed or overlooked, undermining the plan's execution. This aligns with the CRISC framework's emphasis on defining roles to operationalize risk response.

Answer

The risk owner's signature

Answer

A detailed budget

Question 11

A multinational corporation has deployed a centralized log management system that collects security events from all subsidiaries. The CRO notices that the number of critical alerts from the Asia-Pacific region has dropped significantly over the past week. Upon investigation, the log source status shows that 30% of the devices in that region have not sent any logs in 48 hours. What is the MOST likely cause?

Accepted Answer

A configuration change was made to the log forwarder agent on the affected devices, causing it to stop sending logs.. Option C is correct because a configuration change to the log forwarder agent (e.g., syslog-ng, rsyslog, or a proprietary agent) is the most plausible cause for a sudden, sustained drop in log volume from a subset of devices. Unlike network segmentation (Option D), which would affect all traffic, or a DDoS (Option B), which would cause intermittent or total loss, an agent misconfiguration selectively stops log generation while the device remains online. The 48-hour window and 30% device impact align with a staged or partial rollout of a faulty agent configuration.

Answer

The security team applied a new log suppression rule that filters out low-severity events.

Answer

The region experienced a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack that overwhelmed the log collection infrastructure.

Answer

The network team recently implemented a segmentation change that blocked log traffic from those devices.

Question 12

During a risk assessment, an organization identifies that its legacy ERP system has a high likelihood of failure during peak transaction periods. The system supports critical financial operations. The risk owner proposes to upgrade the system, but the project would take 18 months and require significant capital investment. The CEO questions whether the risk can be reduced to an acceptable level more quickly. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate immediate risk response?

Accepted Answer

Implement enhanced monitoring and manual fallback procedures.. Enhanced monitoring and manual fallback procedures directly address the immediate risk of system failure during peak periods by providing early detection and a contingency plan to maintain critical financial operations. This response can be implemented quickly without the 18-month timeline and capital investment required for a full system upgrade, aligning with the CEO's request for a faster risk reduction.

Answer

Increase cyber insurance coverage.

Answer

Accept the risk and budget for potential losses.

Answer

Outsource the ERP hosting to a cloud provider.

Question 13

During a risk assessment, an organization identifies that its remote workforce uses personal devices for work. The risk manager is concerned about data leakage. The organization has a risk appetite that is 'moderate' and wants to treat the risk. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk treatment option?

Accepted Answer

Implement a Mobile Device Management (MDM) policy with containerization. Option C is the most effective because MDM with containerization creates a separate, encrypted work profile on the personal device, isolating corporate data from personal apps and data. This directly addresses data leakage by enforcing security policies (e.g., remote wipe of the work container only) without requiring full control over the entire device, aligning with a 'moderate' risk appetite that seeks a balance between security and usability.

Answer

Implement a VPN for remote access

Answer

Require full disk encryption on all personal devices

Answer

Ban the use of personal devices for work

Question 14

A multinational corporation uses a common identity management system (IdM) across all subsidiaries. During a risk assessment, it is discovered that the IdM system has a critical vulnerability that could allow privilege escalation. The patch requires a 4-hour downtime. The risk manager must decide the best course of action considering the organization's risk appetite of 'low' and the fact that the IdM system is critical for business operations. Which of the following is the BEST approach?

Accepted Answer

Schedule the patch during the next maintenance window.. Option B is correct because scheduling the patch during the next maintenance window aligns with the organization's low risk appetite by addressing the critical vulnerability in a controlled manner, while minimizing operational disruption. The IdM system is critical for business operations, so applying the patch immediately during business hours (Option C) would cause unacceptable downtime, and delaying indefinitely (Option D) would violate the low risk appetite. A 4-hour downtime is typical for identity management systems like Active Directory or LDAP, where patching requires a reboot or service restart, and a planned maintenance window allows for proper testing and rollback procedures.

Answer

Implement a compensating control and delay patching.

Answer

Apply the patch immediately during business hours.

Answer

Accept the risk and postpone patching indefinitely.

Question 15

Which THREE of the following are valid risk identification methods according to ISACA's Risk IT Framework? (Select exactly 3.)

Accepted Answer

Scenario analysis. Scenario analysis is a valid risk identification method under ISACA's Risk IT Framework because it involves developing hypothetical scenarios to identify potential threats and vulnerabilities that could lead to risk events. This technique helps organizations anticipate and prepare for plausible adverse situations by analyzing their impact on IT assets and business objectives.

Answer

Segregation of duties

Answer

Risk acceptance

Question 16

A financial institution is assessing the risk of a new real-time payment system. The risk manager calculates that the annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for a potential fraud scenario is $500,000. The cost to implement a fraud detection solution is $200,000 initially with $50,000 annual maintenance. The solution is expected to reduce the ALE by 80%. What is the net benefit of implementing the solution over three years?

Accepted Answer

$850,000. The correct answer is D because the net benefit over three years is calculated as the reduction in ALE minus the total cost of the solution. The original ALE is $500,000 per year, and an 80% reduction saves $400,000 annually. Over three years, total savings are $1,200,000. The total cost includes the initial $200,000 plus three years of maintenance at $50,000 each ($150,000), totaling $350,000. Net benefit = $1,200,000 - $350,000 = $850,000.

Answer

$1,000,000

Answer

$950,000

Answer

$800,000

Question 17

Which TWO of the following are valid techniques for identifying risk in IT risk assessment?

Accepted Answer

SWOT analysis. SWOT analysis (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats) is a structured technique used to identify both internal and external risk factors during IT risk assessment. It helps uncover threats that could exploit weaknesses, as well as opportunities that might mitigate risks, making it a valid identification method.

Answer

Residual risk assessment

Answer

Risk aggregation

Answer

Monte Carlo simulation

Question 18

A financial institution is implementing a new risk monitoring tool that aggregates data from multiple sources. The tool is expected to provide real-time dashboards for risk committees. However, during user acceptance testing, the dashboards show inconsistent data due to time zone differences across sources. What is the best approach to resolve this?

Accepted Answer

Standardize all timestamps to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) during data ingestion.. Option C is correct because standardizing all timestamps to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) during data ingestion ensures a single, unambiguous reference point for all aggregated data. This eliminates the root cause of inconsistency—differing local time zones—at the point of data entry, allowing the real-time dashboards to display consistent, comparable metrics regardless of the source's geographic location. This approach aligns with the principle of normalizing data at the earliest stage of the data pipeline, which is a fundamental practice in risk monitoring and reporting.

Answer

Modify the dashboard to display each source's local time separately.

Answer

Ask each source to adjust their time zone to the corporate headquarters time zone.

Answer

Use the time zone of the majority of sources and convert others.

Question 19

Which THREE of the following are common challenges when implementing a risk monitoring dashboard? (Select exactly three.)

Accepted Answer

Data quality and consistency issues. Data quality and consistency issues (A) are a common challenge because risk monitoring dashboards aggregate data from multiple sources, each with its own format, timeliness, and accuracy. Inconsistent data leads to unreliable metrics and false alarms, undermining the dashboard's purpose of providing a single source of truth for risk posture.

Answer

Reduced need for manual controls

Answer

Improved decision-making

Question 20

A risk assessment for a healthcare organization reveals a high likelihood of data breaches due to weak encryption on portable devices. The organization decides to deploy full-disk encryption and enforce multi-factor authentication. Which risk response strategy is being applied?

Accepted Answer

Mitigation. Deploying full-disk encryption and multi-factor authentication directly reduces the likelihood and/or impact of data breaches from weak encryption on portable devices. This is the definition of risk mitigation — applying controls to lower risk to an acceptable level. The organization is actively reducing the vulnerability, not transferring, accepting, or avoiding the risk.

Answer

Transfer

Answer

Acceptance

Answer

Avoidance