CCOA Practice Test 3 — 10 Questions

Question 1

While using Microsoft Sentinel, you observe that incidents are not triggering for brute force attempts despite a KQL rule being enabled. What is the most likely cause related to the 'Incident Settings' configuration?

Choose an answer to begin — your selection is scored in the full session.

Accepted Answer

Incident creation is toggled off in the rule configuration. If 'Incident creation' is disabled in the Microsoft Sentinel analytics rule settings, the rule will generate logs but will not group them into an incident for investigation.

Answer

The KQL query lacks a 'summarize' operator

Answer

Log Analytics workspace ingestion limit reached

Answer

The analytics rule is set to 'Disabled' instead of 'Enabled'

Question 2

While investigating a web server breach, you find malicious PHP web shells. What is the most effective way to identify the source of the upload?

Accepted Answer

Analyze web server access logs. Web server access logs record every HTTP request, including the method, URI, source IP, user agent, and response code, so they reveal exactly when and from where the web shell was uploaded or accessed. Analyzing these logs is the most effective way to trace the upload source and identify the attacker's entry point. This is the primary forensic artifact for web-based intrusions.

Answer

Check the file metadata (MACE)

Answer

Scan the server for viruses

Answer

Check system boot logs

Question 3

A CCOA analyst receives an alert that the account 'svc_backup' performed an interactive logon (Type 2) to a domain controller at 02:17. The account is normally used only for scheduled backup jobs. The analyst needs to determine whether this is a credential misuse incident. Which Windows event should the analyst examine first to confirm the logon type and source workstation?

Accepted Answer

Event ID 4624 in the Security log. The analyst needs to confirm an interactive logon by a service account and identify its source. Successful logon events in the Security log capture logon type and source network address, which directly supports this determination. Other events describe process, Kerberos, or share activity and would require additional correlation without answering the core question.

Answer

Event ID 4769 in the Security log

Answer

Event ID 5140 in the Security log

Answer

Event ID 4688 in the Security log

Question 4

During a forensic investigation, you find an entry in the Windows Registry under 'Run' keys. How can you determine if this entry is malicious?

Accepted Answer

Verify the digital signature of the referenced executable.. Run keys in the Windows Registry are a common persistence mechanism, and the most reliable way to determine whether an entry is malicious is to verify the digital signature of the referenced executable. A valid signature from a trusted publisher strongly suggests legitimacy, while an unsigned, invalid, or revoked signature is a red flag. This is a non-destructive, evidence-preserving step appropriate for forensic analysis.

Answer

Delete the registry key.

Answer

Reboot the server.

Answer

Rename the file to .txt.

Question 5

A CCOA analyst is reviewing a vulnerability scan report for a web server that hosts a public-facing application. The scan identified several vulnerabilities, including a critical remote code execution (RCE) flaw in a web framework, a medium-severity cross-site scripting (XSS) issue, and a low-severity information disclosure in an HTTP header. The RCE vulnerability has a known exploit available in the wild, but the web framework is only used for an internal administrative interface that is not accessible from the internet. The XSS vulnerability is on a public login page. Which vulnerability should the analyst prioritize for immediate remediation based on risk?

Accepted Answer

The medium-severity XSS on the public login page, because it is accessible to unauthenticated users and could lead to credential theft.. The XSS on the public login page is the top priority because it is exploitable by unauthenticated attackers and can lead to credential theft, which could result in full compromise. Although the RCE is critical, its internal-only exposure reduces its immediate risk. Risk-based prioritization considers both severity and context, such as network accessibility and exploit availability.

Answer

All three vulnerabilities should be remediated simultaneously with equal priority, because any vulnerability could be exploited.

Answer

The critical RCE vulnerability, because it has a known exploit and critical severity rating, regardless of network accessibility.

Answer

The low-severity information disclosure, because it could reveal sensitive information about the server that aids further attacks.

Question 6

A security analyst is reviewing firewall logs and notices a large number of outbound connection attempts to various external IP addresses on port 445. The analyst suspects a compromised host is attempting to spread laterally or exfiltrate data. Which protocol is associated with port 445, and what is the primary security concern?

Accepted Answer

SMB; it can be used for file sharing and remote code execution, and outbound traffic may indicate data exfiltration or worm propagation.. Port 445 is the standard port for SMB, which is used for file sharing and can be exploited for remote code execution, data exfiltration, and worm propagation. Outbound SMB traffic to external IPs is a red flag and should be blocked at the perimeter to prevent data loss and lateral movement.

Answer

NetBIOS; it is used for legacy Windows networking and outbound traffic is normal.

Answer

LDAP; it is used for directory services and outbound traffic may indicate directory enumeration.

Answer

RDP; it allows remote desktop access and outbound traffic may indicate unauthorized remote control.

Question 7

You are auditing a Linux server for persistence mechanisms. Which file is commonly used by attackers to hide malicious code that executes upon every user login?

Accepted Answer

~/.bashrc. ~/.bashrc is a per-user shell initialization file executed every time an interactive Bash shell starts, including on login for many configurations. Attackers commonly append reverse shells, aliases, or environment variable exports to it so malicious code runs silently each time the user opens a terminal. Because it lives in the user's home directory and is user-writable, it is a low-privilege, high-persistence target.

Answer

/bin/sh

Answer

/var/log/syslog

Answer

/etc/passwd

Question 8

What is the primary difference between a Red Team and a Blue Team in a security simulation?

Accepted Answer

Red Team acts as the adversary, Blue Team performs incident response. In security simulations, the Red Team emulates adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) to test defenses, while the Blue Team defends, detects, and responds to those attacks. This adversarial/defensive split is the defining characteristic of red vs. blue teaming. Option C captures both roles accurately.

Answer

Red Team creates policy, Blue Team audits it

Answer

Red Team handles infrastructure, Blue Team handles software

Answer

Red Team identifies vulnerabilities, Blue Team remediates them

Question 9

A user reports they cannot access a shared drive. You find the 'Effective Access' is 'Deny'. What is the most likely cause?

Accepted Answer

An explicit Deny entry is present.. In Windows ACL evaluation, an explicit Deny entry always overrides any Allow entries, regardless of group membership or inheritance. If Effective Access shows Deny, the most direct explanation is that an explicit Deny ACE exists on the resource or a parent object. This is deterministic behavior in the Windows access check algorithm.

Answer

The server is offline.

Answer

The drive is full.

Answer

They are not in the correct group.

Question 10

During an incident response engagement involving a ransomware attack, the team decides to isolate the affected endpoint using an EDR solution. What is the expected behavior of the EDR tool during the 'network isolation' process?

Accepted Answer

The EDR applies a restrictive host-based firewall policy. EDR network isolation works by applying a restrictive host-based firewall policy on the endpoint that blocks all network traffic except the EDR agent's own management channel. This allows the SOC to continue communicating with and controlling the endpoint while severing its connections to the attacker, lateral movement targets, and C2 infrastructure. The network interface remains up so the agent can receive commands and push telemetry.

Answer

The EDR clears the local ARP cache

Answer

The EDR shuts down the network interface completely

Answer

The EDR triggers a BIOS-level shutdown of the NIC