EC-Council · Free Practice Questions · Last reviewed May 2026
48real exam-style questions organised by domain, each with the correct answer highlighted and a plain-English explanation of why it's right — and why the others are wrong.
An Incident Responder analyzing a compromised Linux server suspects a rootkit has modified system binaries. The responder runs the package manager verification command on Debian/Ubuntu to check installed packages against the package database. Which command is appropriate?
dpkg --verify
dpkg --verify (or dpkg -V) checks files installed by packages against the database to detect modifications.
rpm -Va
debsums -ac
apt-get check-integrity
An organization's Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) platform flags a suspicious PowerShell command line executing an encoded script block. Which Windows logging subsystem should the security analyst inspect for the decoded script contents?
Windows PowerShell Operational Log (Event ID 4104)
Event ID 4104 records script block logging, capturing pipeline and script contents regardless of how they were obfuscated.
System Event Log (Event ID 7045)
Security Event Log (Event ID 4688)
Windows Defender Operational Log (Event ID 1116)
A security engineer is configuring mobile device management (MDM) for corporate-owned iOS devices. To prevent users from installing unauthorized apps while still allowing access to enterprise applications, which feature should be deployed?
Apple Configurator tethered supervision only
Managed Open In restriction
Volume Purchase Program (VPP) with Managed Distribution
VPP with managed distribution allows silent installation and revocation of app licenses without user Apple IDs.
Enterprise App Sideloading via Developer Profiles
A security analyst is preparing to harden a fleet of corporate Windows 10 endpoints against pass-the-hash attacks. Which built-in Windows feature should be enabled and configured to isolate LSASS memory using virtualization?
Windows Defender Application Control (WDAC)
User Account Control (UAC)
BitLocker Drive Encryption
Windows Defender Credential Guard
Credential Guard isolates LSASS memory using virtualization-based security (VBS) to prevent credential theft.
An enterprise environment uses Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager (MECM) for patch management. An administrator needs to ensure that critical patches are installed on workstations with minimal user disruption outside of active hours. Which MECM feature should be configured?
Software Update Groups
Maintenance Windows
Maintenance windows restrict when changes like software updates can be applied to collection resources.
Automatic Deployment Rules (ADR)
Client Settings - Computer Restart
An administrator needs to enforce mandatory password complexity, minimum length, and account lockout policies for local user accounts on standalone Windows Server endpoints that are not joined to an Active Directory domain. Which tool should be used?
Local Users and Groups (lusrmgr.msc)
Local Security Policy (secpol.msc)
secpol.msc controls account policies (password and lockout settings) for local computer environments.
Group Policy Management Console (gpmc.msc)
System Configuration (msconfig.exe)
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Practice this domainAn enterprise cloud architect is designing multi-region disaster recovery for Azure Virtual Machines. The requirement is to replicate virtual machine disks asynchronously across regions without keeping secondary VMs running constantly. Which Azure service feature should be utilized?
Azure Backup Vault with geo-redundant storage (GRS)
Azure ExpressRoute Global Reach
Azure Site Recovery (ASR)
Azure Site Recovery replicates VMs to another region for disaster recovery failover without running active secondary compute instances.
Azure Traffic Manager with priority routing
A network administrator suspects that an unauthorized rogue access point is operating within the enterprise office environment, spoofing the corporate SSID to capture user credentials. Which tool or technique should be used to detect and locate the physical source of the rogue AP?
Running regular traceroute commands from endpoints
Deploying a Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (WIPS) with triangulation
WIPS continuously monitors RF spectrums and uses signal strength (RSSI) triangulation to pinpoint rogue AP locations.
Enabling port security on enterprise access layer switches
Configuring static ARP entries on enterprise switches
A security administrator is deploying a Microsoft Azure Virtual Network and needs to ensure that all outbound traffic from a specific subnet to the public internet is filtered using fully qualified domain name (FQDN) rules rather than IP addresses. Which Azure resource should be deployed to achieve this?
Azure Firewall with Application Rules
Azure Firewall allows creating application rules using FQDNs for outbound HTTP/HTTPS traffic filtering.
Azure Application Gateway with Web Application Firewall
Network Security Group (NSG) with custom service tags
User Defined Routes (UDR) pointing to a load balancer
An organization is utilizing Google Cloud Platform (GCP) and needs to restrict network traffic between specific Google Kubernetes Engine (GKE) pods based on labels rather than IP addresses. Which GCP security feature should be configured?
Identity-Aware Proxy (IAP)
Kubernetes Network Policies
Kubernetes Network Policies enable label-based firewall rules for pods inside a GKE cluster.
Google Cloud Armor security policies
VPC Firewall Rules using subnet tags
A cloud security engineer is hardening an Amazon EC2 instance running in a private subnet. The instance needs to securely communicate with an Amazon S3 bucket without traffic traversing the public internet. Which VPC configuration must be implemented to meet this requirement?
A VPC Gateway Endpoint for Amazon S3 with associated route tables
Gateway Endpoints are targeted by route tables to route traffic destined for S3 privately within the AWS network backbone.
An AWS Client VPN Endpoint attached to the VPC
An interface VPC endpoint using AWS PrivateLink
A NAT Gateway deployed in the private subnet
An enterprise is hardening its enterprise wireless network and migrating legacy authentication protocols. To protect against offline dictionary attacks and provide forward secrecy during the 4-way handshake, which Wi-Fi standard must be deployed?
WPA2-Enterprise with TKIP
WEP with Shared Key Authentication
WPA3-Personal with SAE
WPA3-Personal uses Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) to secure the handshake and provide forward secrecy.
WPA-Enterprise with TKIP/AES mixed mode
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Practice this domainAn enterprise network uses an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) deployed in passive monitoring mode via a switch span port. The security operations center (SOC) notices that the IDS generates high volumes of alerts for internal vulnerability scanning activities, obscuring real attacks. Which network design modification should be implemented to reduce false positive alert fatigue without disabling the detection signatures?
Upgrade the IDS hardware to process higher bandwidth capacity
Convert the IDS into an inline IPS
Tune the IDS sensor signature policies to exclude the internal vulnerability scanner's source IP addresses
Excluding authorized scanning IPs or creating suppression rules for known administrative scans is the correct tuning method to reduce alert fatigue.
Move the IDS from a switch SPAN port to an inline routing position
An organization's security policy requires that all remote workers connect to the corporate network via a VPN that routes all client internet traffic through the corporate data center security stack. Which type of VPN architecture must the remote client be configured to use?
Clientless SSL VPN
Full-tunnel VPN
A full-tunnel VPN forces all user traffic through the corporate security gateway, satisfying the requirement to inspect all internet traffic.
Split-tunnel VPN
Transport mode IPsec VPN
A security analyst is troubleshooting an IPsec site-to-site VPN tunnel failure on a Linux-based StrongSwan gateway. The logs indicate an 'ESP packet decryption failed' error. Upon reviewing the security association parameters, the analyst notices a mismatch in the cryptographic checksum algorithm. Which IPsec protocol component is responsible for providing data integrity and authentication for the inner packet?
Security Association Database (SAD)
Authentication Header (AH)
Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
ESP provides integrity, authentication, and encryption services for IPsec, and its cryptographic parameters must match on both peers to avoid decryption failures.
An organization is configuring an IPsec VPN tunnel between two branch offices using Cisco IOS routers. The engineering team requires the use of a secure key exchange method that provides perfect forward secrecy (PFS) during the Phase 1 Internet Key Exchange (IKEv1) negotiation. Which Phase 1 mode must be selected?
Transport Mode
Aggressive Mode
Main Mode
Main Mode uses a six-message exchange that protects identity and incorporates a Diffie-Hellman exchange, ensuring PFS for the IPsec security associations.
Quick Mode
A corporate network is segmented into multiple zones. The security policy dictates that the Finance department subnet must be completely isolated from the Guest Wi-Fi subnet, and traffic between them must pass through a security device enforcing access control lists. Where should this security device be placed?
On the internal network boundary between the Finance and Guest VLANs
An internal firewall or routing boundary placed between distinct internal zones enforces security controls on east-west traffic.
At the perimeter boundary directly connected to the ISP modem
On the local loopback interface of each end-user workstation
Inside the ISP core routing infrastructure
A security architect is designing a high-security DMZ architecture. Public-facing web servers must be isolated from the internal database servers, and an intermediary inspection zone is required. Which design pattern should the architect implement?
Three-legged firewall architecture creating separate internal, external, and DMZ zones
A three-legged firewall uses three distinct physical or logical interfaces to isolate the internal network, external network, and DMZ into separate security zones.
Placing all web and database servers on the same internal VLAN protected by host firewalls
Single-firewall dual-homed architecture with a software loopback filter
Direct flat bridging between the external router and the internal core switch
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Practice this domainA network defender is configuring an enterprise SIEM using Splunk to alert on abnormal outbound data volumes. Which Splunk processing command should be used to aggregate total outbound bytes grouped by destination IP address?
stats sum(bytes) by dest_ip
The stats command correctly aggregates the sum of bytes grouped by the dest_ip field.
rex field=bytes max_match=1
table dest_ip, bytes
eval bytes_sum = sum(bytes)
An organization is establishing forensic readiness for critical database servers. Which technical control directly supports forensic readiness by ensuring volatile RAM contents can be preserved during a suspected live kernel attack?
Ensuring kernel crash dumps are enabled and a trusted memory acquisition utility like LiME is pre-staged
Pre-staging memory acquisition ensures volatile system state can be captured forensically.
Configuring automatic disk encryption using BitLocker with a TPM chip
Deploying a Host-Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) for file integrity monitoring
Enabling centralized syslog forwarding over encrypted TLS channels
An incident handler receives an alert from Snort regarding a potential SQL injection attack against a web application. The alert shows a signature matching 'SELECT * FROM users WHERE'. Which type of detection methodology is Snort primarily utilizing in this scenario?
Heuristic detection
Behavioral analytics detection
Signature-based detection
Signature-based detection compares network payloads against a database of known malicious rules.
Anomaly-based detection
A network security analyst is investigating an intrusion where an attacker used living-off-the-land binaries (LotLBeins). The analyst needs to inspect Windows PowerShell script block logging events. Which Windows Event Log channel and Event ID contain the full text of executed script blocks?
Microsoft-Windows-PowerShell/Operational, Event ID 4104
Event ID 4104 in the PowerShell Operational log records detailed script block execution text.
Security log, Event ID 4688
System log, Event ID 7045
Microsoft-Windows-PowerShell/Operational, Event ID 4103
An organization's Threat Intelligence platform ingests STIX/TAXII feeds to track Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) groups. An analyst needs to query indicators of compromise using the TAXII 2.1 protocol. Which HTTP method and endpoint structure is standard for retrieving collections in TAXII 2.1?
GET /taxii2/collections/
GET /taxii2/collections/ is the standard TAXII 2.1 endpoint to retrieve the list of collections.
PUT /taxii2/objects/
POST /taxii2/collections/
DELETE /taxii2/status/
During containment of a worm outbreak, an incident response team decides to isolate an infected subnet from the rest of the corporate network. Which containment strategy does this represent?
Host-level containment
Network-level containment
Network-level containment involves altering routing tables, VLANs, or firewall rules to isolate entire network segments.
Full enterprise quarantine
Application-level containment
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Practice this domainDuring an incident response engagement, a security analyst discovers that an attacker executed a Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) vulnerability on an internal web application to access cloud instance metadata services (IMDS). Which remediation step should be applied immediately to the cloud application architecture to prevent future SSRF exploitation against IMDS?
Upgrade the web server operating system and apply all vendor-supplied kernel patches.
Implement a traditional Layer 3 network firewall rule to block all outbound TCP traffic on port 80.
Install a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) to monitor web application log directories.
Enforce Instance Metadata Service Version 2 (IMDSv2) requiring session tokens and configure strict URL parsing libraries on the web application.
IMDSv2 uses session tokens that cannot be easily spoofed via standard SSRF web request vectors.
A wireless security audit reveals that an unauthorized rogue access point has been deployed within the corporate perimeter, configured with the exact same SSID as the corporate enterprise network to perform an evil twin attack. Which enterprise wireless feature should the network administrator configure on the Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) to automatically detect and contain this rogue AP?
Enable Rogue AP Detection and Automated Containment on the Wireless LAN Controller (WLC).
WLC rogue detection and containment automatically identifies and neutralizes evil twin access points.
Migrate the enterprise wireless network from WPA2-Personal to WPA3-Enterprise (SAE).
Disable SSID broadcasting (hidden SSID) across all corporate wireless access points.
Configure MAC filtering to allow only corporate-approved wireless client hardware addresses.
An enterprise network utilizes 802.1X port-based authentication with a RADIUS server. An attacker performs a port-stealing attack by spoofing the MAC address of an authenticated, active wired client to gain network access on a different switch port. Which switch security feature should be enabled to prevent this attack?
Implement Private VLANs (PVLANs) to isolate user switch ports from communicating with one another.
Configure Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) using the trusted DHCP snooping binding database.
Enable BPDU Guard and Root Guard on all designated edge switch ports.
Enable Port Security on access switch ports with a maximum MAC address limit of one and sticky learning.
Port security restricts port access to a single learned MAC address, preventing port stealing.
A security analyst suspects that an internal host has been compromised and is communicating via an encrypted Command and Control (C2) channel utilizing DNS tunneling. Which Wireshark filter and analysis technique should the analyst employ to definitively identify this anomaly?
Filter for 'http.request.method == POST' and look for binary attachments.
Filter for 'tcp.port == 443' and inspect the TLS Server Name Indication (SNI) extension.
Filter for 'dns' and inspect query strings for abnormally high length, high entropy, or encoded character patterns.
DNS tunneling manifests as unusually long and complex query names destined for recursive resolvers.
Filter for 'icmp' and examine the payload size of Echo Request packets.
An organization's Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system alerts on suspicious Active Directory enumeration activity. An internal workstation is executing frequent unauthenticated LDAP queries requesting large numbers of user and group attributes. Which protocol mechanism and defensive configuration should be implemented to mitigate this reconnaissance technique?
Enable Kerberos pre-authentication enforcement on all Domain Controller service principal accounts.
Configure SMB packet signing globally and disable SMBv1 across all domain member servers.
Enforce LDAP signing and channel binding while disabling anonymous LDAP enumeration via Group Policy.
Enforcing LDAP signing and disabling anonymous binds prevents unauthorized harvesting of directory objects.
Implement NT LAN Manager (NTLM) v2 exclusive authentication and disable NTLM fallback.
A security team receives alerts indicating that an attacker is performing ARP cache poisoning on the local subnet to conduct a Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack. Which switch feature should the network administrator enable to mitigate this threat?
Enable Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) bound to the DHCP snooping database.
DAI validates ARP packets against the DHCP snooping table to drop spoofed ARP frames.
Activate Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (uRPF) on the default gateway router.
Deploy IEEE 802.1Q VLAN trunking with native VLAN mismatch remediation.
Configure Port Fast and BPDU Guard on all access-layer switch interfaces.
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Practice this domainAn enterprise network defense team is establishing the first phase of the Network Defense Lifecycle Management process. Which primary activity must occur during the initial 'Assessment and Analysis' phase?
Identifying and cataloging all network assets, data flows, and current vulnerabilities
Asset discovery and vulnerability identification form the baseline of security analysis.
Conducting incident containment following a zero-day breach
Deploying next-generation firewalls across core network segments
Decommissioning obsolete routers and end-of-life switches
A CND engineer is preparing for an external PCI-DSS v4.0 compliance audit for the cardholder data environment (CDE). To satisfy Requirement 11.3 regarding penetration testing, how frequently must external network penetration testing be conducted according to the standard?
Every 30 days continuously across all internal subnets
Annually following the completion of the fiscal budget review
At least every 6 months and after any significant infrastructure modification
PCI-DSS mandates semi-annual external penetration testing for the CDE.
Only upon the initial deployment of the cardholder data environment
A security manager is updating the corporate Acceptable Use Policy (AUP). To address emerging cloud collaboration tools, which specific section should be revised to regulate employee data sharing on external platforms?
Physical Security Controls
User Responsibilities and Data Sharing
This section governs how employees handle and transfer corporate data to external platforms.
Disaster Recovery Protocols
Network Infrastructure Redundancy
An organization is adopting the NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF) v2.0. The security team is executing activities under the 'Govern (GV)' function, specifically establishing cybersecurity supply chain risk management processes. Which NIST SP 800-53 revision 5 control family primarily addresses this governance requirement?
PL (Planning)
SR (Supply Chain Risk Management)
The SR family covers supplier relationships, assessments, and acquisition strategies.
CA (Assessment, Authorization, and Monitoring)
SC (System and Communications Protection)
During an internal network security audit, an auditor needs to verify that administrative accounts are not sharing credentials. Which compliance artifact should the auditor inspect to validate individual accountability?
BGP Routing Table Summaries
Active Directory Account Access Logs and Group Memberships
Inspecting AD confirms whether distinct named accounts are assigned instead of shared generic logins.
Network Switch Port VLAN Assignments
DNS Zone File Configurations
A security architect is designing a defense-in-depth strategy for a multi-tier web application. To adhere to the principle of least privilege within network defense lifecycle management, how should firewall rules be structured between the DMZ and the internal application tier?
Implicit deny all traffic by default, explicitly permitting only necessary destination ports and IPs
An explicit allow list with a terminal deny rule enforces strict least privilege.
Implement stateful inspection only on inbound perimeter traffic, trusting all outbound traffic
Disable firewall packet filtering on internal interfaces to maximize application throughput
Permit all internal traffic by default, blocking only known malicious signatures
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Practice this domainAn enterprise network administrator needs to enforce data loss prevention rules across corporate endpoints. They deploy McAfee Data Loss Prevention Endpoint. Which client component inspects and blocks data movement to USB mass storage devices locally on the workstation?
McAfee DLP Endpoint Client
The McAfee DLP Endpoint Client runs on workstations to enforce policies on local actions like USB transfers and clipboard usage.
McAfee DLP Prevent
McAfee ePolicy Orchestrator (ePO) Relay Server
McAfee DLP Discover
An application security team is performing static code analysis on a Java Spring Boot web application. The scanner flags a potential SQL injection vulnerability in a JDBC template query. Which remediation method should the developer implement to secure the database interaction?
Invoke the java.net.URLEncoder.encode() method on all parameters
Wrap all input strings inside single quotes and strip out semicolon characters
Use parameterized queries and PreparedStatement objects with placeholder parameters
Parameterized queries separate query structure from user data, safely neutralizing SQL injection attacks.
Sanitize all input characters using HTML entity encoding before passing them to the database driver
A security engineer is configuring a Symantec Data Loss Prevention (DLP) Network Monitor policy to intercept outgoing HTTP traffic containing credit card numbers. Which detection technology should be selected to match standard credit card formats using Luhn algorithm validation?
Exact Data Matching (EDM)
Described Content Matching (DCM) with a Data Identifier utilizing Luhn algorithm validation
Data Identifiers in Symantec DLP use regular expressions combined with algorithmic validation like the Luhn check for credit cards.
Indexed Document Matching (IDM)
Vector Machine Learning (VML)
A security administrator is hardening an Apache HTTP Server 2.4 configuration on Ubuntu to protect web applications against Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) and clickjacking. Which directives should be added to the httpd.conf file to enforce a Content Security Policy (CSP) and prevent framing?
LoadModule headers_module modules/mod_headers.so followed by Header set X-Frame-Options 'DENY' and Header set Content-Security-Policy "default-src 'self'"
mod_headers must be loaded to set HTTP security response headers such as X-Frame-Options and Content-Security-Policy.
TraceEnable Off and ServerTokens Prod
FileETag None and Options -Indexes
SecurityHeadersEngine On followed by SetFrameOptions DENY
A developer is configuring TLS 1.3 encryption on an Nginx web server. To ensure maximum cryptographic strength and forward secrecy, which cipher suite configuration should be specified for TLS 1.3?
ssl_ciphers 'ECDHE-ECDSA-AES256-GCM-SHA384:ECDHE-RSA-AES256-GCM-SHA384';
ssl_protocols TLSv1.3; and relying on the protocol's mandated secure cipher suites (e.g., TLS_AES_256_GCM_SHA384)
TLS 1.3 eliminates vulnerable legacy ciphers entirely and mandates secure AEAD ciphers automatically when TLSv1.3 is enabled.
ssl_prefer_server_ciphers off; combined with MD5
ssl_cipher_suites 'TLS_RSA_WITH_AES_128_CBC_SHA';
A security analyst is deploying Snort IDS to inspect incoming web traffic and needs to write a rule that triggers when the HTTP URI contains the exact string 'admin_login.php' regardless of case. Which Snort rule option modifier accomplishes this?
nocase
The nocase option makes the pattern matching case-insensitive for the preceding content rule.
uricontent
depth
offset
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Practice this domainAn administrator needs to configure a Linux firewall using UFW (Uncomplicated Firewall) to allow incoming SSH traffic from a specific subnet (192.168.100.0/24). Which command should be executed?
ufw enable 192.168.100.0/24
ufw allow from 192.168.100.0/24 to any port 22 proto tcp
This command correctly restricts SSH access to the specified subnet.
ufw deny ssh
ufw route allow 22
A security analyst configuring a Linux-based iptables firewall wants to ensure that any established or related incoming TCP connections are automatically allowed through without hitting subsequent rule checks. Which target and match extension combination should be used?
iptables -A INPUT -m conntrack --ctstate ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT
This rule correctly matches existing connection states and accepts them.
iptables -A INPUT -m limit --limit 5/min -j LOG
iptables -A FORWARD -p tcp --dport 80 -j REJECT
iptables -A INPUT -m state --state NEW -j DROP
A security architect is designing a high-security perimeter utilizing a dual-firewall DMZ architecture (back-to-back firewalls). Which traffic flow configuration best implements security best practices between the external router, perimeter firewall, DMZ, and internal firewall?
External Firewall acts as a transparent bridge; Internal Firewall performs NAT for all internet-bound traffic.
External Firewall routes internal traffic; Internal Firewall acts as a honeypot gateway.
External Firewall permits all traffic to DMZ; Internal Firewall blocks all traffic from DMZ to internal network.
External Firewall inspects and restricts traffic from internet to DMZ; Internal Firewall restricts traffic from DMZ to internal network to only required service ports.
This represents the standard defense-in-depth approach for a dual-firewall DMZ topology.
An enterprise security team needs to deploy a Snort rule that detects an HTTP GET request containing a specific directory traversal string (../../etc/passwd). Which rule header and options structure correctly formats this signature?
log icmp any any -> any any (msg:"ICMP Ping Detected"; itype:8; sid:1000003;)
drop udp external any -> $HOME_NET 53 (content:"passwd"; sid:1000002;)
alert tcp any any -> any 80 (msg:"Directory Traversal Attempt"; content:"../../etc/passwd"; sid:1000001; rev:1;)
This rule correctly specifies the alert action, TCP protocol, HTTP port, and signature content.
pass ip any any -> any any (content:"GET /index.html"; sid:1000004;)
An administrator is configuring a Cisco ASA firewall and needs to allow internal users to initiate outbound HTTP/HTTPS sessions while ensuring that return traffic is permitted through the stateful inspection engine without opening explicit inbound rules. Which object-group and access-list construct properly permits outbound web traffic?
access-list OUTBOUND extended permit tcp any any eq 80 and access-group OUTBOUND in interface outside
static (inside,outside) tcp interface 80 192.168.1.10 80 netmask 255.255.255.255
object network WEB_PORTS; range 80 443; nat (inside,outside) dynamic interface
access-list INSIDE_IN extended permit tcp any any eq www and access-list INSIDE_IN extended permit tcp any any eq 443, applied via access-group INSIDE_IN in interface inside
This correctly permits outbound web traffic originating from the inside interface.
A network engineer is troubleshooting an enterprise Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) and notices that encrypted HTTPS traffic is bypassing Deep Packet Inspection (DPI) signatures. What feature must be configured on the NGFW to inspect the payload of these encrypted sessions?
SSL/TLS Decryption (Inspection)
Decryption allows the firewall to analyze encrypted payloads for malware and policy violations.
Layer 2 Bridging
Port Forwarding
Static NAT
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Practice this domainThe CND exam has 200 questions and must be completed in 120 minutes. The passing score is 700/1000.
Scenario-based questions covering exam objectives with detailed answer explanations.
The exam covers 8 domains: Endpoint Protection, Enterprise Cloud Virtual And Wireless Network Protection, Network Security Controls Protocols And Devices, Incident Detection Response And Threat Prediction, Network Attacks And Defense Strategies, Network Defense Management, Application And Data Protection, Network Perimeter Protection. Questions are weighted by domain — higher-weight domains appear more on your actual exam.
No. These are original exam-style practice questions written against the official EC-Council CND exam objectives. They are not copied from the real exam. Courseiva focuses on genuine understanding, not memorisation of braindumps.
Courseiva tracks your accuracy per domain and routes you toward weak areas automatically. Free, no account required.