CompTIA · Free Practice Questions · Last reviewed May 2026

CS0-003 Exam Questions and Answers

24 real exam-style questions organised by domain, each with the correct answer highlighted and a plain-English explanation of why it's right — and why the others are wrong.

85 exam questions
165 min time limit
Pass at 750 / 1000
4 exam domains
1

Domain 1: Security Operations

All Security Operations questions

A SIEM correlation rule for impossible travel is creating noise from VPN users. Which refinements should improve fidelity? (Choose two.)

A

Disable all identity alerts

B

Require a second signal such as new device, failed MFA, or mailbox rule creation

Combining identity anomalies reduces false positives.

C

Add trusted VPN egress ranges as named/known locations

Known corporate VPN egress can explain apparent travel.

D

Treat every VPN login as malicious

Why: Impossible-travel detections work best when legitimate network paths are accounted for and multiple risk signals are correlated.

A SOC is onboarding endpoint logs into a SIEM. Which fields are most important for process-chain investigations? (Choose three.)

A

Parent process name and command line

Parent context shows how execution began.

B

Monitor refresh rate

C

User and host identifiers

Identity and asset context support scoping and response.

D

Child process command line

Command line arguments reveal suspicious execution behaviour.

Why: Endpoint process telemetry needs parent, child, user, and host context to reconstruct execution chains.

A threat hunter suspects data exfiltration over HTTPS from a database server. Which data sources are most useful? (Choose two.)

A

Database audit logs showing queried objects and accounts

Database logs reveal whether sensitive data was accessed before transfer.

B

Printer toner status

C

Building temperature logs

D

NetFlow or proxy logs showing destination, volume, and timing

Flow/proxy data establishes transfer pattern and destination.

Why: Exfiltration analysis needs both network movement and source-data access context.

A SOC wants to reduce alert fatigue without missing confirmed malicious activity. Which actions are appropriate? (Choose two.)

A

Suppress alerts only with documented criteria and expiry

Time-bound suppression preserves governance.

B

Delete noisy detections permanently without review

C

Route every alert directly to executives

D

Add enrichment such as asset criticality and threat-intel context

Enrichment helps analysts prioritize real risk.

Why: Noise reduction should be controlled, documented, and supported by better context.

Which signals strengthen an alert for Kerberoasting activity? (Choose two.)

A

Unusual volume of TGS requests for many service principals

Kerberoasting often generates broad service-ticket requests.

B

Requests from a workstation that does not normally administer services

Abnormal source context increases suspicion.

C

A user changing their desktop wallpaper

D

Successful DHCP lease renewal

Why: Kerberoasting detection depends on unusual Kerberos service-ticket behaviour and source context.

A detection engineer is writing a Sigma rule for suspicious rundll32 usage. Which fields should be included? (Choose two.)

A

Command line containing unusual DLL path or URL pattern

Command-line arguments distinguish abuse from normal use.

B

Desk phone extension

C

Laptop battery health

D

Image or process name matching rundll32.exe

The executed binary is central to the behaviour.

Why: Behavioural rules need executable identity and command-line context.

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2

Domain 2: Vulnerability Management

All Vulnerability Management questions

A vulnerability manager is prioritizing remediation. Which factors should influence risk-based priority? (Choose three.)

A

Internet exposure of the affected asset

External reachability increases likelihood of attack.

B

Alphabetical order of the CVE identifier

C

Known exploitation in the wild

Active exploitation increases urgency.

D

Business criticality of the affected service

Impact depends on the service supported by the asset.

Why: Risk-based vulnerability management weighs exploitability, exposure, and impact rather than using a single raw score.

Which conditions should push a vulnerability higher in the remediation queue? (Choose three.)

A

The asset supports a critical business process

Business impact increases priority.

B

The affected asset is internet-facing

External exposure increases attack opportunity.

C

Exploitation is observed in the wild

Active exploitation increases likelihood.

D

The CVE number is easy to remember

Why: Priority should reflect exploitability, exposure, and business impact.

A scanner reports a critical issue on a network device. Which steps help validate the finding before closure? (Choose two.)

A

Suppress all network-device findings permanently

B

Close it because the device is expensive

C

Confirm the firmware or software version on the device

Version evidence verifies whether the vulnerable build is present.

D

Check vendor advisory applicability and configuration requirements

Some findings depend on enabled features or specific configurations.

Why: Validation should confirm version, configuration, and vendor applicability.

Which items belong in a vulnerability exception request? (Choose three.)

A

Business justification for delayed remediation

Justification explains why normal remediation cannot occur.

B

A request to remove the asset from inventory

C

Expiration or review date

Time limits prevent exceptions becoming permanent by default.

D

Compensating controls

Controls reduce risk while the vulnerability remains.

Why: Exception governance requires justification, controls, ownership, and review.

A web application DAST scan reports stored XSS. Which evidence helps confirm exploitability? (Choose two.)

A

Payload persists and executes when another user views the affected page

Stored execution against another user validates impact.

B

The vulnerable parameter and output encoding context are identified

Context shows why the payload executes.

C

The server has a large disk

D

The application uses HTTPS

Why: Stored XSS validation depends on persistence, execution context, and affected users.

Which pipeline controls help prevent vulnerable dependencies reaching production? (Choose two.)

A

SBOM generation and review for released builds

SBOMs support dependency tracking and downstream risk review.

B

Manual badge checks at the office door

C

Software composition analysis with policy gates

SCA identifies dependency CVEs before deployment.

D

DNS MX record rotation

Why: Dependency risk is best managed through CI/CD visibility and enforceable gates.

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3

Domain 3: Incident Response and Management

All Incident Response and Management questions

A host is suspected of running fileless malware. Which artefacts should be collected quickly? (Choose two.)

A

Memory image or live response data

Fileless activity may exist mainly in memory.

B

Active network connections and running processes

Live state helps reconstruct behaviour.

C

A list of cafeteria purchases

D

A printed office map

Why: Volatile evidence should be prioritized when fileless malware is suspected.

A phishing incident led to credential theft. Which containment actions are appropriate? (Choose two.)

A

Reset affected credentials and revoke active sessions

This cuts off stolen-session and password access.

B

Delete all user mailboxes

C

Disable DNS for the entire company indefinitely

D

Search for mailbox rules or OAuth grants created after compromise

Attackers often create persistence in mailbox or app permissions.

Why: Credential-theft response should remove access and check for persistence.

Which actions belong in eradication after a confirmed web-shell compromise? (Choose two.)

A

Remove the web shell and close the exploited vulnerability

Both malicious artefact and entry path must be addressed.

B

Reconnect the server before checking persistence

C

Rotate credentials exposed to the compromised web server

Server compromise may expose application or service credentials.

D

Only block the analyst's IP address

Why: Eradication removes malicious artefacts, closes entry paths, and addresses exposed credentials.

What should be included in incident scoping for ransomware? (Choose three.)

A

Initial infected host and user context

The starting point helps identify root cause.

B

The brand of office chairs near the server room

C

Backup integrity and last known clean restore point

Recovery depends on clean backups.

D

Shares or systems touched by the compromised account

Access path shows spread.

Why: Ransomware scoping must identify origin, spread, and recoverability.

A legal hold is issued during an investigation. Which actions support it? (Choose two.)

A

Preserve relevant logs, mailboxes, images, and tickets

Potential evidence must be retained.

B

Let each team decide informally what to delete

C

Purge audit logs to save storage

D

Suspend routine deletion for in-scope evidence

Retention controls prevent accidental loss.

Why: Legal hold requires controlled preservation of relevant evidence.

A tabletop exercise reveals that no one knows who can approve public statements. What should be updated? (Choose two.)

A

The office seating plan only

B

Contact list and escalation matrix

Responders need current contacts and escalation paths.

C

The malware signature database only

D

Incident communication plan with named approval roles

Communication authority must be explicit.

Why: Tabletop findings should improve playbooks, contacts, and decision authority.

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4

Domain 4: Reporting and Communication

All Reporting and Communication questions

A CISO wants a concise incident update during active containment. Which elements should be included? (Choose three.)

A

Every raw log line collected so far

B

Containment actions completed and pending

Status shows risk reduction progress.

C

Known decisions or approvals needed

Escalation points help leadership act.

D

Current impact and affected services

Leadership needs business impact.

Why: Executive incident updates should be brief, factual, and decision-oriented.

A vulnerability dashboard for executives should avoid raw technical overload. Which views are useful? (Choose two.)

A

A list of scanner process IDs

B

Unfiltered plugin-output text

C

Critical exposure trend by business service

Trends show whether risk is moving.

D

SLA compliance and overdue remediation by owner

This supports accountability.

Why: Executive vulnerability reporting should summarize trend, accountability, and business risk.

When briefing legal and privacy teams after a suspected data exposure, which details matter? (Choose two.)

A

Data types and jurisdictions potentially affected

Notification duties depend on data and jurisdiction.

B

A complete list of unrelated server patches

C

Speculation about attacker identity without evidence

D

Timeline of discovery, containment, and known access

Timing and scope affect legal obligations.

Why: Legal/privacy briefings should be evidence-based and focused on notification-relevant facts.

A remediation report shows repeated SLA breaches by one business unit. Which recommendations are appropriate? (Choose two.)

A

Automatically accept all future risk permanently

B

Review ownership, resourcing, and change-window constraints

Persistent breaches often reflect operational blockers.

C

Hide the business unit from future reports

D

Create an agreed corrective action plan with dates

Action plans turn reporting into improvement.

Why: Recurring SLA failures require blocker analysis and accountable corrective action.

Which items help make a post-incident report useful for technical teams? (Choose two.)

A

Generic motivational slogans

B

Unrelated financial forecasts

C

Root cause and exploited control gaps

Technical teams need to know what failed.

D

Specific remediation tasks with owners and validation steps

Actionable tasks enable closure.

Why: Post-incident reports should translate findings into precise technical remediation.

A third-party supplier needs incident information to fix an integration. What should be shared? (Choose two.)

A

Internal blame discussions

B

Credentials for unrelated systems

C

Required remediation outcome and deadline

Clear expectations support accountability.

D

Relevant timeline and technical evidence tied to the integration

The supplier needs facts that support troubleshooting.

Why: Supplier communication should be factual, scoped, and action-oriented.

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Frequently asked questions

How many questions are on the CS0-003 exam?

The CS0-003 exam has up to 85 questions and must be completed in 165 minutes. The passing score is 750/1000.

What types of questions appear on the CS0-003 exam?

The CS0-003 exam uses multiple-choice, multiple-select, drag-and-drop, and exhibit-based questions. Exhibit questions show CLI output, network diagrams, or routing tables and ask you to interpret them — exactly the format Courseiva uses.

How are CS0-003 questions organised by domain?

The exam covers 4 domains: Security Operations, Vulnerability Management, Incident Response and Management, Reporting and Communication. Questions are weighted by domain — higher-weight domains appear more on your actual exam.

Are these the actual CS0-003 exam questions?

No. These are original exam-style practice questions written against the official CompTIA CS0-003 exam objectives. They are not copied from the real exam. Courseiva focuses on genuine understanding, not memorisation of braindumps.

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