CompTIA · Free Practice Questions · Last reviewed May 2026
24real exam-style questions organised by domain, each with the correct answer highlighted and a plain-English explanation of why it's right — and why the others are wrong.
33% of exam · 6 sample questions below
An analyst is using AWS GuardDuty and sees a finding that an EC2 instance is communicating with a known command-and-control (C2) IP address. What type of alert is this?
CASB alert investigation
Vulnerability scan result
Cloud audit log analysis
Threat intelligence finding
AWS GuardDuty actively leverages continuously updated threat intelligence feeds, including lists of known malicious IP addresses, domains, and attack signatures, to identify suspicious activity. When an EC2 instance communicates with an IP address or domain identified as a known command and control (C2) server by these feeds, GuardDuty generates a finding, indicating a high probability of compromise and C2 communication.
A security analyst is tuning a SIEM rule that generates alerts for any failed login attempt. The rule produces too many alerts, overwhelming the team. Which TWO actions would most effectively reduce false positives while maintaining detection of actual brute-force attacks?
Exclude failed logins from known service accounts
Service accounts frequently generate legitimate failed-login noise from scheduled password rotations, expired credentials in automation scripts, or misconfigured connection strings, none of which represent an attacker probing for access. Suppressing these known, expected sources removes a large share of benign alert volume without weakening detection against genuine unauthorized login attempts from unexpected accounts or sources.
Disable the rule entirely
Increase the alert severity to critical for all failed logins
Add a correlation rule to trigger on successful login after multiple failures
Require a minimum threshold of 5 failed attempts from the same source IP within 10 minutes before alerting
Setting a threshold of multiple failures from the same source within a short window filters out the high-volume background noise of isolated typos, expired passwords, and one-off misclicks, since those rarely repeat five times from one IP in ten minutes. Genuine brute-force or password-spraying activity is characterized by exactly this kind of repeated rapid-fire failure pattern, so the threshold preserves detection of real attacks while suppressing the vast majority of harmless noise.
During a network traffic analysis, a security analyst observes repeated connections from an internal host to a known malicious IP on port 4444. The payload appears to be encrypted. Which type of activity is most likely indicated?
Port scanning activity
Command and control beaconing
Command and control (C2) beaconing involves an infected host periodically initiating outbound connections to a C2 server, often on a non-standard port like 4444, to check for new commands or upload data. These connections are typically regular, repetitive, and consistent in their destination and port, fitting the description of repeated connections to a single IP on port 4444. This behavior establishes a persistent communication channel for remote control of the compromised system.
Data exfiltration via DNS tunnelling
Lateral movement using SMB
A security analyst is configuring a vulnerability scanner for an internal network. Which two settings are most important for reducing false positives during the scan? (Choose two.)
Disabling unnecessary plug-ins
Disabling unnecessary plug-ins prevents the scanner from running checks that are not relevant to the environment, such as Windows-specific tests against Linux hosts. Each plug-in produces findings, and if it probes for software or services that are absent, it can generate false positives based on erroneous banner matches. By tailoring the active plug-in set to the actual asset inventory and exposed services, the analyst reduces meaningless alerts and focuses the scan on likely vulnerabilities. This is a core tuning step that directly reduces false positives while preserving comprehensive coverage.
Enabling credentialed scanning
Enabling credentialed scanning authenticates the scanner to target systems, allowing it to read local configuration data, installed patch levels, and registry settings. This eliminates the guesswork inherent in uncredentialed scans, where the scanner infers vulnerabilities fro remote banners and may flag correctly patched systems or miss actual issues. With credentials, the scanner can perform deeper checks, such as validating hotfixes or inspecting local security settings, producing more accurate results and dramatically fewer false positives. It also uncovers vulnerabilities only visible through authenticated access, such as weak password policies or misconfigured services.
Using a higher scan intensity
Scanning from multiple IP addresses
Scanning only during business hours
An analyst is creating a detection rule for lateral movement using SMB. Which two network indicators should be included in the rule? (Choose two.)
Repeated failed logins to multiple hosts
High volume of DNS queries
SMB traffic between workstations
SMB traffic between workstations is a strong lateral movement indicator because in a well-managed environment, peer-to-peer file sharing or remote administration between endpoints is uncommon; most SMB flows are client-to-server (e.g., accessing a domain controller or file server). Attackers commonly use tools like PsExec or WMIC that create SMB connections from one compromised workstation to another to copy malicious payloads, execute remote services, or access shared resources, making this traffic a precise behavioral signature for lateral spread.
SMB traffic to administrative shares (e.g., IPC$)
SMB traffic to administrative shares such as IPC$, ADMIN$, or C$ is a recognized lateral movement technique because these hidden shares are designed for remote administration. Tools like PsExec, WMI, and other post-exploitation frameworks connect to IPC$ and named pipes (e.g., \pipe\svcctl) to launch services or execute commands on a remote host, while C$ and ADMIN$ provide full filesystem access. Such connections from an unexpected workstation strongly indicate an attacker actively moving laterally, as standard users rarely need to access these shares directly.
Unusual outbound connections on port 443
A security analyst is investigating a potential data exfiltration using DNS. Which TWO indicators are most consistent with DNS tunneling?
Frequent NXDOMAIN responses
DNS responses with unusually large payload sizes
Normal DNS responses are typically small, often under 512 bytes when using traditional UDP limits. During DNS tunneling, attackers encode exfiltrated data into TXT records or other response fields, causing responses to be several kilobytes or larger. Such unusually large payloads are a direct and strong indicator that DNS is being used to transfer unauthorized data, making this the correct sign of data exfiltration.
Unusually high volume of DNS queries to a single domain
DNS tunneling tools often embed data into subdomain labels of queries, which are limited to 63 characters per label. To transfer a meaningful amount of data, an attacker must send thousands of queries to a single malicious domain, creating a distinctive high-volume spike in DNS traffic. This query-frequency pattern is a classic behavioral signature of DNS tunneling and should raise immediate suspicion.
Queries for domains with unusual top-level domains (e.g., .tk)
Multiple queries from different hosts to the same legitimate domain
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Practice this domain30% of exam · 6 sample questions below
A security analyst is prioritizing vulnerabilities for a critical internet-facing application server. The analyst has CVSS scores, EPSS scores, and access to the CISA KEV catalog. Which TWO factors should the analyst consider as the most important for determining remediation priority? (Select TWO)
Asset criticality and business context
Asset criticality and business context are central to vulnerability prioritization because they determine the potential impact on operations, data confidentiality, and compliance. A critical internet-facing server, for example, represents a higher risk to the organization if compromised, even when the vulnerability's severity is moderate. Contextual factors such as exposure, sensitive data, and required availability turn a generic technical finding into a prioritized business risk.
CVSS base score
Number of plugins detecting the vulnerability
EPSS score
CISA Known Exploited Vulnerabilities (KEV) catalog
The CISA Known Exploited Vulnerabilities catalog is a curated, authoritative list of vulnerabilities with confirmed evidence of active exploitation in the wild, removing the guesswork from vulnerability prioritization. This ground-truth intelligence, coupled with asset criticality, directly supports urgent remediation because the attack is ongoing and organizations must act immediately. It is a leading element in federal vulnerability management directives and modern risk-based decision-making.
A security team is implementing container security scanning in their CI/CD pipeline. They want to scan container images for vulnerabilities and Kubernetes misconfigurations. Which THREE tools from the following list are best suited for this purpose? (Select THREE)
Burp Suite
Trivy
Trivy is an open-source, fast, and comprehensive vulnerability scanner designed specifically for container images. It scans both OS packages (e.g., Alpine, Debian) and application dependencies (e.g., Python, Node.js) by comparing against a continuously updated CVE database, and it can be easily embedded into CI/CD pipelines with a simple CLI without requiring a separate server. Its low false-positive rate and support for multiple input formats (e.g., Docker, Podman, OCI) make it the most straightforward and effective choice among these options for the security team's container scanning need.
OpenSCAP
Clair
Clair is an open-source project originally from CoreOS that performs static analysis of security vulnerabilities in container images. It ingests images from registries, breaks them into layers, and correlates installed OS packages with CVE data via a PostgreSQL-backed API, enabling tools like Quay or custom queries to retrieve results. As a registry-integrated scanner, it is a valid option for continuous vulnerability assessment, though it requires more operational overhead—namely a database and backend services—compared to more modern single-binary scanners.
Snyk
Snyk is a developer-first security platform that offers container scanning for known vulnerabilities, license compliance, and configuration drift, with robust integrations into IDE plugins, Git repositories, and CI/CD systems. Unlike purely image-layer scanners, Snyk also performs deep dependency analysis and provides actionable fix advice, patching recommendations, and continuous monitoring through both free and commercial tiers. It is a correct tool for container security scanning, particularly when the team wants developer-friendly policy enforcement in addition to CVE detection.
A security analyst is reviewing a vulnerability scan report and notices a plugin that identifies a critical vulnerability with a CVSS v3.1 base score of 9.8. The CVSS vector string is AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H. Which attack vector is indicated?
Network
AV:N (Attack Vector: Network) means the vulnerable component is bound to the network stack and the attacker's path to exploit lies through a routable network connection, potentially even across the internet, rather than requiring physical or local access. This is the highest-severity attack vector value because it maximizes the pool of potential attackers, contributing to this vulnerability's near-maximum CVSS base score of 9.8 alongside low complexity and no required privileges or user interaction.
Adjacent network
Local
Physical
A vulnerability scanner reports a finding with a CVSS v3.1 base score of 7.5 and vector AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:N/I:N/A:H. What does this indicate about the vulnerability?
It has high impact on integrity
It requires authentication to exploit
It has high impact on confidentiality
It has high impact on availability
The A component of the CVSS v3.1 vector is H, which is the Availability Impact metric and indicates that the exploit can cause a total loss of availability, such as a denial of service. Unlike the C and I metrics, which are both N, the A metric is the only one rated high, so this option correctly identifies the finding's high impact on availability.
Which of the following is the BEST description of configuration drift?
A planned change to a system's configuration
The process of reverting a system to its baseline configuration
The gradual deviation of a system's configuration from the intended baseline
Configuration drift is the gradual and often unnoticed deviation of a system's current configuration from its intended, documented baseline. It results from incremental changes such as manual edits, emergency fixes, unpatchable workarounds, or inconsistent patch deployments that accumulate over time without change-control approval. This divergence can lead to security weaknesses, compliance violations, and unpredictable behavior, making it a central concern for configuration management.
A vulnerability that is patched and then reappears
A vulnerability management team is evaluating whether to apply a patch immediately or implement a compensating control. The patch is for a vulnerability in a legacy system that cannot be taken offline during business hours. The compensating control would involve restricting network access to the system. Which decision is MOST appropriate?
Ignore the vulnerability since it affects a legacy system
Remove the system from the network
Implement a compensating control and schedule patching during a maintenance window
This approach aligns with best-practice vulnerability management by balancing the need for security against operational availability. A compensating control, such as an internal network access control list (ACL) or an updated intrusion prevention system (IPS) signature, reduces the likelihood or impact of exploitation until the patch can be installed during a scheduled maintenance window. This ensures that the system remains functional and that the patch is tested and deployed in a controlled manner, minimizing downtime and the risk of unexpected failures. It is the correct decision because it addresses the vulnerability without disproportionate disruption to the business.
Apply the patch immediately despite the outage risk
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Practice this domain20% of exam · 6 sample questions below
A security analyst is responding to a potential data exfiltration incident. As part of the containment strategy, the analyst must preserve evidence. Which TWO actions should the analyst take before containment? (Select two.)
Capture a forensic image of the affected systems
Capturing a forensic image of affected systems is the correct first step because it creates a bit-for-bit copy of the storage media while preserving file slack, unallocated space, and metadata. Using a hardware write-blocker and cryptographic hashing ensures the evidence remains intact and tamper-proof for later analysis. This action is essential for identifying how the data exfiltration occurred, which files were accessed, and what remnants remain, all without altering the original source.
Change passwords for affected accounts
Disconnect the system from the network
Record current active network connections
Recording current active network connections is a critical evidence preservation technique because this volatile data disappears the moment the system is rebooted, disconnected, or the attacker cleans up. Documenting netstat output, established connections, remote IPs, ports, and associated process IDs provides a snapshot of potential command-and-control or exfiltration channels. This is a low-impact, non-destructive step that must occur before any containment action that would disrupt the network stack.
Kill malicious processes
A CSIRT is investigating a ransomware incident that encrypted files on multiple servers. The team needs to determine the initial infection vector. Which THREE pieces of evidence should the team prioritize collecting? (Select three.)
Email gateway logs for the week prior to the incident
Email gateway logs are the primary source for identifying phishing payloads because ransomware often arrives via malicious attachments or embedded URLs. These logs capture sender metadata, subject lines, message IDs, and any verdicts (e.g., quarantined, spam, clean), so reviewing the week prior to the incident lets investigators trace the exact message that delivered the initial dropper and recover the full email thread for IoC extraction.
Endpoint detection and response (EDR) logs from affected servers
EDR logs are crucial because they record the execution sequence on the affected servers, including process creation with command-line arguments, file creation/modification events, registry changes, and parent-child process relationships. Analysts can pinpoint the exact executable or script that initiated the encryption, determine whether it used a known LOLBin or PowerShell, and observe post-execution behavior such as privilege escalation or credential dumping before the ransomware ran.
Network traffic logs from the perimeter firewall
Perimeter firewall logs reveal the network-level indicators of compromise, such as initial outbound HTTP/HTTPS connections to attacker-controlled domains or IPs, DNS queries for malicious hostnames, and protocol anomalies that may correspond to command-and-control beaconing. Even if the initial payload was delivered by email, firewall egress logs help map the ransomware's callback infrastructure and may expose the original C2 channel used for key exchange or data staging.
Physical access logs to the data center
Firewall configuration backups
A security analyst is reviewing IOCs from a threat intelligence feed. The analyst wants to enrich the IOCs using open-source tools. Which THREE tools are commonly used for IOC enrichment? (Select three.)
WHOIS
WHOIS queries domain registration databases, returning registrar, registrant contact, creation and expiration dates, and nameserver records. For an IOC like a known malicious domain, WHOIS enables analysts to pivot on registration metadata, identify shared infrastructure, or detect typosquatting and recently registered domains. It is a read-only lookup service, not a traffic analysis tool, making it a first-line passive enrichment source.
Wireshark
VirusTotal
VirusTotal aggregates results from over 70 antivirus engines and other sandboxing services; an analyst can submit a file hash, URL, or domain to see detection ratios, threat classifications, and community comments. It also provides related samples, vendor-specific detection labels, and a visual relationship graph, which helps determine the breadth of an indicator's maliciousness. Using its API, security teams can automate bulk IOC reputation checks, making it a key triage tool.
Shodan
Shodan is a search engine for internet-facing devices, indexing banners, open ports, SSL certificates, and service fingerprints such as HTTP or FTP headers. When an IOC is an IP address, Shodan can reveal the organization, hosting provider, geographic location, and exposed services, letting analysts spot compromised infrastructure or vulnerable industrial controls. It does not analyze packet captures or run AV checks, but it is vital for understanding device-level exposure tied to an IP.
Nmap
A security analyst is investigating a phishing incident that resulted in credential theft. Which TWO actions should the analyst take as part of short-term containment? (Choose two.)
Block the phishing domain at the email gateway
Blocking the phishing domain at the email gateway is immediate containment because it prevents subsequent emails carrying the same malicious payload from reaching other recipients, thereby reducing the number of users exposed to the lure. This email gateway control is fast, reversible, and can also block outbound traffic if needed, but it does not remediate credentials that have already been stolen.
Rebuild the affected workstations from a clean image
Conduct a full vulnerability scan of the network
Change all user passwords in the domain
Disable the compromised user accounts
Disabling the specific compromised user accounts denies the attacker continued authentication with valid credentials and blocks any active sessions from being reused, cutting off lateral movement and data exfiltration while the investigation proceeds. This targeted control minimizes disruption to the rest of the organization and preserves the account's domain-joined state for forensic analysis. It is a correct and immediate containment step.
During a forensic investigation, an analyst must acquire digital evidence while maintaining forensic soundness. Which THREE practices should the analyst follow? (Choose three.)
Use the suspect's operating system to copy files
Power on the system to capture volatile data first
Verify the hash of the image against the original
Verifying the hash of the acquired image against the original evidence is a critical step because it provides cryptographic proof that the image is an exact bit-for-bit replica. Using algorithms like SHA-256, any change to even a single bit in the image produces a completely different hash, so the match confirms no data was altered during acquisition. This verification is recorded and matched against the hash of the original, establishing the integrity and authenticity of the evidence for the chain of custody and courtroom admissibility.
Use a write blocker when imaging the hard drive
Using a write blocker when imaging the hard drive is essential because it prevents the acquisition workstation from sending any write commands to the suspect drive, guaranteeing that the original evidence remains byte-for-byte unchanged. A hardware write blocker physically intercepts and blocks writes, while a software write blocker does the same at the driver level; both allow read-only access to the source. This safeguards the evidence from accidental modifications, OS artifacts, or malware, ensuring the image is a true and admissible copy of the original.
Document every action taken during the acquisition
Documenting every action taken during the acquisition is essential because it creates a complete, auditable chain of custody that allows another examiner to independently reproduce the process. Detailed notes on the tools used, timestamps, commands issued, and any anomalies observed establish the evidence's integrity and demonstrate that proper forensic protocols were followed. Without this documentation, the opposing counsel can successfully challenge the evidence's reliability, even if the technical acquisition was flawless.
A company has experienced a ransomware attack that encrypted critical servers. The incident response team is in the containment, eradication, and recovery phase. Which THREE actions are part of long-term containment? (Choose three.)
Apply security patches to vulnerable systems
Apply security patches to vulnerable systems is the definitive root-cause remediation for a ransomware outbreak. If the initial infection exploited a known software flaw, patching closes the exact vulnerability the attacker used, preventing the same binary from reinfecting hosts after cleanup. This action breaks the kill chain at the exploitation stage and is mandatory before restored systems are placed back on the production network. Without patching, any unpatched host still exposed to the same entry vector will likely be re-encrypted within hours.
Rotate all privileged account credentials
Rotating all privileged account credentials is critical because ransomware operators frequently steal administrator, domain admin, or service account hashes to move laterally and disable backups. Once credentials are compromised, the attacker can maintain persistence even if files are quarantined, using Scheduled Tasks or remote management tools backed by those valid accounts. Immediate rotation of every privileged password, including local admin accounts and Kerberos service tickets, invalidates the attacker's existing access. This must be done before restoring systems, not after, or the attacker will simply re-encrypt the rebuilt servers.
Isolate the infected systems from the network
Block the ransomware's C2 domain at the firewall
Rebuild affected servers from clean backups
Rebuilding affected servers from clean backups is the most reliable way to recover encrypted data while ensuring the ransomware is completely eradicated. The backup must be verified malware-free and ideally restored from offline or immutable storage, because many ransomware strains delete or encrypt backup copies. Clean restoration eliminates malicious files, registry entries, and persistence mechanisms that might survive a simple antivirus scan. For fully successful recovery, this step must be combined with patching vulnerabilities and resetting compromised credentials to prevent a repeat infection.
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Practice this domain17% of exam · 6 sample questions below
During an incident response, the SOC team identifies a data breach involving customer PII. Under GDPR, what is the maximum time frame to notify the supervisory authority?
96 hours
72 hours
72 hours is the correct timeframe under GDPR Article 33(1), which states that a data breach notification must be made to the competent supervisory authority 'without undue delay' and, where feasible, no later than 72 hours after the controller becomes aware of the breach. This period is a fixed regulatory deadline, and failure to meet it without a documented justification (e.g., complexity of investigation) can result in significant administrative fines.
24 hours
48 hours
After a security incident, which component of the incident report provides a chronological sequence of events from detection to recovery?
Timeline
The timeline is the chronological reconstruction of every observable event leading up to, during, and after the security incident. It consolidates artifacts like log entries, file system changes, network flows, and user actions into a coherent sequence. This component is foundational because it enables analysts to map the attack lifecycle and determine the exact order of compromise, which is essential for effective containment and eradication.
Lessons learned
Root cause
Impact assessment
An analyst is creating a compliance dashboard for management. Which of the following is the most relevant metric to include regarding patch management?
Number of antivirus alerts
Phishing simulation click rate
Mean time to detect incidents
Patch SLA compliance %
Patch SLA compliance percentage directly measures whether systems are being patched within the timeframes the organization has committed to, for example critical patches within 14 days, which is precisely what a management-facing compliance dashboard needs to show for the patch management program. It ties directly to the process being audited rather than to an adjacent security function.
Which of the following is the primary audience for a strategic threat intelligence report?
System administrators
SOC analysts
Executive leadership
Executive leadership is the primary audience for strategic intelligence because it informs high-level decisions about risk tolerance, resource allocation, and business continuity. This type of intelligence is written in non-technical language, summarizing geopolitical threats, industry-level trends, and potential impacts to the enterprise in a way that supports governance and investment choices. It helps the C-suite align cybersecurity with organizational objectives, not with day-to-day tactics.
Incident responders
After a ransomware incident, the incident report includes lessons learned. Which of the following is the BEST example of a lesson learned?
The ransomware encrypted 500 files.
The incident started at 2:00 AM.
The root cause was a phishing email.
Implement multi-factor authentication for remote access to reduce risk.
This is a concrete, actionable recommendation that directly addresses a common attack vector used in ransomware incidents, such as compromised VPN credentials. It specifies the control (MFA), the scope (remote access), and the goal (risk reduction), making it a proper lesson learned. Unlike observations or causes, it provides a clear implementation step that stakeholders can act on to harden their environment.
A security analyst needs to present the risk of an unpatched critical vulnerability to the board of directors. Which of the following is the most effective way to communicate the risk?
Explain the potential financial loss and reputational damage.
Quantifying the unpatched vulnerability in terms of potential financial loss—such as breach response costs, regulatory fines, or lost revenue from downtime—and reputational damage, like customer churn or erosion of brand trust, directly aligns the technical risk with the board's fiduciary responsibilities. This translation reassures executives that their decision allocates resources to protect shareholder value and market standing, not just IT infrastructure.
Show the CVSS score and exploit complexity.
Recommend immediate patching without details.
Describe the vulnerability in technical terms.
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Practice this domainThe CS0-004 exam has 85 questions and must be completed in 165 minutes. The passing score is 750/1000.
Multiple-choice and performance-based questions covering threat intelligence, vulnerability management, incident response, and security operations. Some questions are performance-based (PBQs), asking you to complete tasks in a simulated environment.
The exam covers 4 domains: Security Operations, Vulnerability Management, Incident Response and Management, Reporting and Communication. Questions are weighted by domain — higher-weight domains appear more on your actual exam.
No. These are original exam-style practice questions written against the official CompTIA CS0-004 exam objectives. They are not copied from the real exam. Courseiva focuses on genuine understanding, not memorisation of braindumps.
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