CLO-002 Multiple Select — 10 Questions

Question 1

Which TWO advantages does a 'Community Cloud' offer over a 'Public Cloud'?

Accepted Answer

Higher level of security or compliance for a shared industry. Option A is correct because a community cloud is provisioned for a specific group of organizations with shared concerns (e.g., banks, healthcare, government), so the provider can implement industry-specific security controls and compliance frameworks (such as PCI DSS, HIPAA, or FedRAMP) that a generic public cloud may not enforce by default. Option D is correct because the cloud infrastructure and its operational costs are pooled among the community members, so each participant pays only a fraction of the total cost rather than bearing the full expense alone. Options B, C, and E do not belong: physical data center power grid control is not a defining community cloud advantage (and is typically retained by the provider, not the tenants), global region access is a characteristic of large public clouds rather than a community cloud benefit, and community clouds generally have higher initial setup costs than public clouds because the infrastructure is dedicated to a narrower group.

Answer

Total control over the physical data center power grid

Answer

Unlimited access to all global regions

Answer

Lower initial setup cost than public cloud

Question 2

Which TWO cloud service models are most appropriate for a developer who wants to focus solely on code?

Accepted Answer

PaaS. PaaS (A) is correct because it abstracts the underlying infrastructure—servers, OS, runtime, and middleware—so the developer only deploys and manages application code and configuration. Serverless/FaaS (B) is correct because it goes even further, letting the developer write individual functions while the provider fully manages scaling, patching, and server provisioning, leaving only code as the concern. Bare Metal (C) is not appropriate because it exposes raw hardware, requiring the developer to manage the OS and everything above it. IaaS (D) is not appropriate because it still requires managing VMs, operating systems, and runtime environments. SaaS (E) is not appropriate because it delivers a finished application, not a platform for writing and deploying custom code.

Answer

Bare Metal

Answer

IaaS

Answer

SaaS

Question 3

A company is planning to migrate its on-premises workloads to a public cloud. The IT director asks which factors are key considerations when evaluating the cloud provider's service level agreement (SLA). (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

The scope of services covered and any exclusions.. The two key SLA factors are the guaranteed uptime percentage and remedies, and the scope of services covered with exclusions. These define what the provider commits to and what happens if commitments are missed. They directly affect availability expectations and risk management for the migration.

Answer

The provider's data center locations and their proximity to the company's offices.

Answer

The provider's process for handling customer support tickets.

Answer

The maximum number of virtual machines the company can deploy.

Question 4

Which THREE items should be included in an incident response plan?

Accepted Answer

Monitoring and alerting thresholds. A monitoring and alerting thresholds are correct because an incident response plan must specify the detection criteria and severity triggers that determine when an alert escalates into a declared incident, enabling consistent triage and response. B communication plan is correct because it defines who notifies whom, via which channels, and in what timeframe, including internal stakeholders, legal, and external parties, which is essential for coordinated response and regulatory notification. C defined roles and responsibilities is correct because the plan must assign clear ownership such as incident commander, communications lead, and technical responders so actions are not duplicated or missed during an event. D employee training manuals are not a core component of the plan itself; training is a supporting program that socializes the plan, not an item included within it. E budget approval workflows concern financial governance and procurement, not the detection, containment, eradication, and recovery activities that an incident response plan must document.

Answer

Employee training manuals

Answer

Budget approval workflows

Question 5

A multinational enterprise is migrating a latency-sensitive trading application to a public cloud. The architecture team must select deployment characteristics that minimize network round-trip time for users in multiple regions while maintaining high availability. Which TWO characteristics should the team prioritize? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Deploy the application in multiple regions close to major user concentrations.. Minimizing latency for a globally distributed user base requires bringing compute closer to users and steering each user to the nearest healthy endpoint. Deploying across multiple regions near user concentrations reduces physical distance, and latency-based or geolocation DNS routing ensures traffic reaches the optimal region while enabling failover. Together these deliver both low round-trip time and high availability.

Answer

Use a content delivery network to cache dynamic API responses at edge locations.

Answer

Increase the size of the database instance to handle more concurrent connections.

Answer

Consolidate all application instances into a single region with the lowest average latency to all users.

Question 6

Which THREE cloud management tools should be utilized to control costs?

Accepted Answer

Cost Explorer or similar visualization tool. Cost Explorer (A) is correct because it provides visualization and analysis of historical cloud spend by service, account, and tag, enabling teams to identify cost drivers and trends. Budgeting and forecasting alerts (B) are correct because they proactively notify stakeholders when actual or forecasted spend approaches or exceeds defined thresholds, allowing corrective action before overruns occur. Resource tagging policies (E) are correct because consistent tags (e.g., cost center, owner, environment) enable accurate cost allocation, chargeback, and filtering in billing reports, which is foundational to cost control. Option C, a physical server monitoring camera, is irrelevant to cloud financial management since it addresses physical security, not billing or usage. Option D, the company's external marketing agency, does not manage cloud infrastructure or billing and therefore cannot control cloud costs.

Answer

A physical server monitoring camera

Answer

The company's external marketing agency

Question 7

Which THREE of the following are necessary to manage multi-cloud deployments effectively?

Accepted Answer

Unified monitoring tools. Unified monitoring tools (B) are necessary because multi-cloud deployments span AWS, Azure, and GCP, so a single pane of glass aggregating metrics, logs, and traces across providers is required to detect issues and maintain consistent observability. Infrastructure as Code (D) is essential because declarative templates (e.g., Terraform, CloudFormation, ARM/Bicep) let you provision and version identical, repeatable environments across heterogeneous clouds, avoiding manual drift. Centralized identity management (E) is required to federate authentication and authorization across providers using standards like SAML 2.0 or OIDC, so users and service accounts have one consistent identity and RBAC policy set rather than per-cloud silos. Ignoring one cloud provider (A) is wrong because it defeats the purpose of multi-cloud management and leaves resources ungoverned, while printing physical logs (C) is neither scalable nor a real management practice compared with centralized log aggregation.

Answer

Ignoring one cloud provider

Answer

Printing physical logs

Question 8

When evaluating a cloud service provider (CSP), which TWO of the following business-focused documentation should be requested to verify the vendor's reliability and security posture?

Accepted Answer

SOC 2 Type II reports. Option C, SOC 2 Type II reports, is correct because they are independent audit attestations covering the Trust Services Criteria (security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy) over a defined review period, giving direct evidence of the vendor's security controls and operational reliability. Option E, Service Level Agreement (SLA) documentation, is correct because it contractually defines measurable commitments such as uptime percentage, availability targets, performance metrics, and remedies or credits for failures, which is exactly what a business needs to assess vendor reliability. The unmarked options do not belong: A, the quarterly stock earnings report, reflects financial market performance rather than security posture or service reliability; B, employee payroll records, is confidential HR data irrelevant to security evaluation and would raise privacy concerns; and D, internal office floor plans, is physical layout information with no bearing on the CSP's security or reliability assurances.

Answer

The provider's quarterly stock earnings report

Answer

Employee payroll records

Answer

Internal office floor plans

Question 9

Which THREE of the following tools or methods are used to secure data in transit in the cloud?

Accepted Answer

TLS 1.2/1.3. TLS 1.2/1.3 (A) is correct because it encrypts application-layer traffic such as HTTPS, securing data as it moves between clients and cloud services. Direct Connect with MACsec (B) is correct because MACsec provides IEEE 802.1AE link-layer encryption on dedicated AWS Direct Connect connections, protecting data in transit over the private network path. VPN Tunnels using IPsec (E) are correct because IPsec encrypts and authenticates IP packets across untrusted networks, securing site-to-site or client-to-cloud transit. Server-side encryption at rest (C) is incorrect because it protects stored data on disks, not data moving across a network. User access logs (D) are incorrect because they record activity for auditing and monitoring but do not encrypt or otherwise secure data in transit.

Answer

Server-side encryption at rest

Answer

User access logs

Question 10

Which THREE are key characteristics of cloud computing?

Accepted Answer

Measured service. A. Measured service is correct because cloud providers meter resource usage (compute, storage, bandwidth) and bill customers based on consumption, enabling pay-as-you-go pricing. B. Broad network access is correct because cloud services are delivered over the network via standard mechanisms (e.g., HTTP/HTTPS, APIs) and accessible from diverse client devices such as laptops, phones, and tablets. E. Rapid elasticity is correct because cloud resources can scale out and in automatically or on demand to match workload changes, appearing nearly unlimited to the consumer. C. Static hardware provisioning is incorrect because cloud computing emphasizes dynamic, on-demand provisioning rather than fixed, pre-allocated hardware. D. Physical media access is incorrect because cloud services are accessed remotely over networks, not through physical media such as tapes, disks, or direct hardware connections.

Answer

Static hardware provisioning

Answer

Physical media access