200-901 Practice Test 19 — 15 Questions

Question 1

A network engineer is configuring a wireless network for a new office. To maximize performance and minimize interference, the engineer decides to use the 5 GHz band. Which of the following is a key advantage of 5 GHz over 2.4 GHz?

Choose an answer to begin — your selection is scored in the full session.

Accepted Answer

Less interference and more channels. 5 GHz offers more non-overlapping channels and less interference from common devices like microwaves and Bluetooth.

Answer

Better range through walls

Answer

Larger coverage area

Answer

Higher compatibility with older devices

Question 2

A DevOps team wants to version control their network configurations. Which tool should they use?

Accepted Answer

Git. Git is a distributed version control system that tracks changes in source code and configuration files, making it the ideal tool for version controlling network configurations. Unlike configuration management tools, Git provides commit history, branching, and rollback capabilities specifically designed for version control.

Answer

Puppet

Answer

Jenkins

Answer

Docker

Question 3

Which THREE steps are essential in a typical CI/CD pipeline for a containerized application? (Choose THREE.)

Accepted Answer

Build the Docker image. Option B (Build the Docker image) is correct because a containerized CI/CD pipeline must compile the application and package it into an immutable Docker image artifact (e.g., via docker build) that can be versioned and promoted through environments. Option C (Push the image to a container registry) is correct because the built image must be stored in a registry such as Docker Hub, Amazon ECR, or Harbor so that downstream deployment stages and orchestrators like Kubernetes can pull the exact tested artifact. Option D (Run unit and integration tests) is correct because automated testing is a core CI gate that validates the code and image before promotion, catching regressions and ensuring quality prior to deployment. Option A (Perform code review) is a valuable practice but is a human/process step typically handled in pull requests rather than an essential automated pipeline stage, and Option E (Deploy directly to production without testing) is incorrect because it bypasses the testing and validation gates that define a proper CI/CD pipeline.

Answer

Perform code review

Answer

Deploy directly to production without testing

Question 4

Which TWO of the following are commonly used HTTP methods for a RESTful API to retrieve and update a resource? (Select TWO)

Accepted Answer

GET. Option A (GET) is correct because GET is the standard HTTP method used to retrieve a representation of a resource from a RESTful API, and it is defined as safe and idempotent, meaning it should not modify server state. Option C (PUT) is correct because PUT is commonly used to update a resource by replacing it at a known URI, and it is idempotent, so repeated identical requests produce the same result. POST (B) is not selected because it is typically used to create a new resource or submit data for processing, not primarily to retrieve or update an existing resource. DELETE (D) is not selected because it removes a resource rather than retrieving or updating it. HEAD (E) is not selected because it only returns response headers without a body, so it is not used to retrieve or update resource content.

Answer

POST

Answer

DELETE

Answer

HEAD

Question 5

Which TWO of the following HTTP methods are considered safe (idempotent and not modifying server state)? (Select two.)

Accepted Answer

GET. GET (D) is safe because it is defined by RFC 7231 as a read-only method that retrieves a representation without altering server state, and repeating it yields the same result (idempotent). HEAD (E) is also safe because it returns only the response headers for the same resource a GET would target, performing no state change and being idempotent. PUT (A) is not safe because it creates or replaces the target resource, modifying server state, even though it is idempotent. DELETE (B) is not safe because it removes the target resource, changing server state (it is idempotent but not safe). POST (C) is neither safe nor idempotent, since it submits data that typically creates or processes a resource and can produce different results on each call.

Answer

PUT

Answer

DELETE

Answer

POST

Question 6

Which three configuration management tools can be used with Cisco devices for automation? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Puppet. Puppet is a configuration management tool that uses a declarative language to define system state. It can manage Cisco devices via the cisco_ios module, which uses SSH or NX-API to apply configurations, making it suitable for network automation.

Answer

Nagios

Answer

SaltStack

Question 7

Based on the exhibit, what is the frequency of the telemetry subscription?

Accepted Answer

Every 500 milliseconds. The exhibit shows a telemetry subscription with a 'period' of 500, which in Cisco model-driven telemetry (MDT) is expressed in milliseconds. Therefore, the frequency is every 500 milliseconds, making option B correct.

Answer

Every 500 seconds

Answer

When the management connection is re-established

Answer

On-change only

Question 8

When using the Meraki Dashboard API, what is the correct method to authenticate requests?

Accepted Answer

Include an API key in the X-Cisco-Meraki-API-Key header. The Meraki Dashboard API uses a unique API key for authentication, which must be included in the `X-Cisco-Meraki-API-Key` header. This key is generated per user in the Meraki Dashboard and identifies the request without requiring a session or password. Option D correctly specifies this custom header, which is the only supported method for authenticating requests to the Meraki API.

Answer

Include an API key in the Authorization header as a Bearer token

Answer

Use a session token obtained from a login endpoint

Answer

Use Basic authentication with username and password

Question 9

In version control with Git, which command creates a new branch and switches to it in one step?

Accepted Answer

git checkout -b . git checkout -b creates and switches. git branch creates but does not switch. git switch -c is also valid but not listed.

Answer

git checkout

Answer

git branch <branch>

Answer

git switch <branch>

Question 10

Which OAuth 2.0 grant type is most appropriate for a server-to-server integration where no user interaction is required, such as a backend service calling Cisco API?

Accepted Answer

Client credentials grant. Client credentials grant is designed for server-to-server scenarios without user consent. Authorization code requires user interaction. Device code is for devices with limited UI.

Answer

Authorization code grant

Answer

Password grant

Answer

Device code grant

Question 11

A network administrator is configuring subnetting for a new branch office that requires 50 usable host addresses per subnet. The available network is 192.168.10.0/24. What subnet mask should be used to meet the requirement with minimal waste?

Accepted Answer

255.255.255.192 (/26). A /26 mask provides 62 usable hosts (2^(32-26)-2=62), which is the smallest subnet that supports 50 hosts.

Answer

255.255.255.128 (/25)

Answer

255.255.255.224 (/27)

Answer

255.255.255.240 (/28)

Question 12

A CI/CD pipeline using GitHub Actions needs to build a Docker image and push it to Docker Hub. Which event trigger should be used to run the workflow only when code is pushed to the main branch?

Accepted Answer

on: push: branches: [ main ]. The 'push' event with branch filter triggers on pushes to main. 'pull_request' triggers on PRs, 'release' on releases, 'workflow_dispatch' manual trigger.

Answer

on: workflow_dispatch

Answer

on: release: types: [ published ]

Answer

on: pull_request: branches: [ main ]

Question 13

In a network automation workflow, a developer needs to ensure idempotency. What does idempotency mean in this context?

Accepted Answer

Running the script once produces the same result as running it multiple times. Idempotency in network automation means that executing an operation multiple times results in the same network state as executing it once. For example, using a REST API PUT request to set a VLAN configuration will leave the device in the same state whether the request is sent once or repeatedly, because PUT is inherently idempotent. This prevents unintended side effects like duplicate VLANs or interface misconfigurations when a script is retried due to network failures or timeouts.

Answer

The script uses a single API call

Answer

The script can recover from failures

Answer

The script can run on multiple devices simultaneously

Question 14

Which THREE are valid reasons to use Cisco DNA Center's Assurance APIs in an enterprise network?

Accepted Answer

Proactively detect client connectivity issues.. Option B is correct because DNA Center Assurance APIs expose health and issue data (via endpoints like /dna/intent/api/v1/health and /issues) that let you proactively detect client connectivity problems such as onboarding, authentication, or RF failures before users report them. Option D is correct because Assurance correlates application telemetry and client/device health to surface application performance bottlenecks, including per-application experience metrics and Application Experience scores. Option E is correct because Assurance stores historical telemetry and provides trend/analytics APIs that support capacity planning and long-term network trend analysis. Option A is not correct because QoS policy enforcement is a configuration task handled by DNA Center's policy/intent configuration workflows, not the Assurance APIs, which are read/analytics-oriented. Option C is not correct because Assurance does not collect NetFlow from all devices; flow collection is typically done via NetFlow/IPFIX exporters and a flow collector, not through DNA Center Assurance APIs.

Answer

Automatically enforce QoS policies on switches.

Answer

Collect NetFlow data from all network devices.

Question 15

A developer is deploying a containerized application to a Kubernetes cluster. The application must be accessible from outside the cluster on a stable IP address that does not change if the underlying pods are rescheduled. Which Kubernetes Service type should be used?

Accepted Answer

LoadBalancer. A LoadBalancer Service integrates with the underlying cloud provider to provision an external load balancer with a stable IP address. This IP persists independently of pod or node lifecycle events, ensuring consistent external access. ClusterIP, NodePort, and ExternalName each fail to provide a stable external IP for the application.

Answer

ExternalName

Answer

NodePort

Answer

ClusterIP