350-601 Practice Test 11 — 15 Questions

Question 1

A data center spine-leaf architecture is designed to ensure low latency and high bandwidth. Which of the following best describes the role of the leaf switches in this topology?

Accepted Answer

Leaf switches connect to servers and provide access to the network, while spine switches provide the aggregation and routing fabric.. In a spine-leaf architecture, leaf switches serve as the access layer that connects directly to servers, storage, and other endpoints. They forward traffic to spine switches, which provide the Layer 3 routing fabric and ensure any-to-any connectivity with predictable latency. This design eliminates the need for Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) and allows for efficient east-west traffic flow.

Answer

Leaf switches are used only for management traffic and do not forward data-plane traffic.

Answer

Leaf switches provide the Layer 3 routing core and connect to external networks.

Answer

Leaf switches interconnect all spine switches to provide any-to-any connectivity.

Question 2

In a UCS service profile, which configuration allows a blade server to boot from a SAN LUN without local storage?

Accepted Answer

Define a SAN boot policy and assign it to the service profile with the boot order set to SAN.. Boot from SAN is configured in the service profile by specifying a SAN boot policy that defines the WWPN, LUN ID, and target details. This enables stateless boot from a SAN-attached LUN.

Answer

Enable PXE boot in the service profile.

Answer

Configure local disk as RAID and use it for boot.

Answer

Set the boot order to local disk first, then SAN.

Question 3

A storage administrator is configuring synchronous replication between two storage arrays over a Fibre Channel link. Which characteristic best describes synchronous replication?

Accepted Answer

The write is acknowledged to the host only after data is written to both primary and secondary.. Synchronous replication requires that the host write be acknowledged only after the data has been committed to both the primary and secondary arrays. This guarantees zero data loss (RPO=0) at the cost of added write latency proportional to the round-trip time between arrays. The Fibre Channel link provides the low-latency transport needed to keep that latency acceptable.

Answer

Data is written to the primary and then asynchronously to the secondary, reducing latency.

Answer

The secondary storage is used only for backup and is not actively updated.

Answer

Data is written to the primary and later replicated based on a schedule.

Question 4

An engineer is troubleshooting a BGP EVPN session between a leaf and a spine. The 'show bgp l2vpn evpn summary' output shows the peer state as 'Active'. What does this indicate?

Accepted Answer

The TCP connection is not established.. In BGP EVPN, the 'Active' state indicates that the BGP speaker is actively trying to establish a TCP connection with the peer but has not yet completed the three-way handshake. This means the TCP session is not established, which is a prerequisite for BGP session establishment. The peer remains in 'Active' until the TCP connection is successfully formed.

Answer

The session is in the process of being established.

Answer

The session is up and exchanging prefixes.

Answer

There is a configuration mismatch.

Question 5

During iSCSI configuration, the storage administrator requires authentication between initiator and target. Which method uses a bidirectional secret to verify both ends?

Accepted Answer

CHAP. CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) supports bidirectional authentication, where both the initiator and target authenticate each other using a shared secret. This is known as mutual CHAP or bidirectional CHAP, and it verifies both ends of the iSCSI connection.

Answer

RADIUS

Answer

IPsec

Answer

Kerberos

Question 6

A storage engineer is planning a disaster recovery solution that requires zero data loss in the event of a site failure. The storage arrays support both synchronous and asynchronous replication. Which replication type should be chosen to meet the requirement?

Accepted Answer

Synchronous replication. Synchronous replication writes data to both the primary and secondary arrays before acknowledging the write to the host, guaranteeing an RPO of zero. If the primary site fails, the secondary already holds every committed write, so no data is lost. This is the only replication type among the options that can meet a strict zero-data-loss requirement.

Answer

Asynchronous replication

Answer

Snapshot-based replication

Answer

Thin provisioning

Question 7

Which statement about Fibre Channel buffer credits is true?

Accepted Answer

They control the flow of frames between directly connected ports.. Fibre Channel buffer credits implement a credit-based flow control mechanism between directly connected ports (Nx_Port to Fx_Port or E_Port to E_Port). Each port advertises its available buffer credits (BB_Credit) to the directly attached peer, and the sender can only transmit a frame when it has a positive credit count. This prevents frame loss due to buffer overflow at the receiver, ensuring lossless transmission over the link.

Answer

They are used for load balancing across multiple paths.

Answer

They are allocated per VSAN.

Answer

They detect CRC errors in frames.

Question 8

A data center team is automating network changes and wants to ensure that only validated configurations are deployed to production. Which CI/CD practice specifically addresses this?

Accepted Answer

Automated testing. Automated testing in CI/CD pipelines validates configurations against predefined tests (e.g., syntax checks, policy compliance, unit tests) before deployment. This ensures only configurations that pass all tests are promoted to production, directly addressing the requirement to deploy only validated configurations. Infrastructure as Code (IaC) defines infrastructure in code but does not inherently validate it; continuous deployment automates release but doesn't validate; version control tracks changes but doesn't validate.

Answer

Infrastructure as Code

Answer

Continuous deployment

Answer

Version control

Question 9

A data center team is troubleshooting an automation script that uses REST API to configure a Cisco Nexus 9000 switch. The script fails with a '401 Unauthorized' error. What is the most likely cause?

Accepted Answer

Invalid or expired authentication token. A 401 Unauthorized error in REST API communication indicates that the request lacks valid authentication credentials. For Cisco Nexus 9000 switches, REST API access typically requires a token-based authentication (e.g., using HTTP Basic Auth to obtain a session token or cookie). If the token is invalid or expired, the API server rejects the request with a 401 status code, as the script cannot prove its identity.

Answer

API rate limiting has been exceeded

Answer

Network connectivity issue between the script and the switch

Answer

The user account does not have admin privileges

Question 10

In a Cisco ACI fabric, which object represents a collection of endpoints that share the same forwarding behavior and security policies?

Accepted Answer

Endpoint Group (EPG). In Cisco ACI, an Endpoint Group (EPG) is a logical object that groups endpoints (e.g., servers, VMs) with identical forwarding behavior and security policies. EPGs are the fundamental unit for applying contracts (security policies) and defining communication rules within the fabric, ensuring consistent traffic handling across all members.

Answer

VRF

Answer

Tenant

Answer

Bridge Domain (BD)

Question 11

Which TWO components are required in a HyperFlex cluster to provide both compute and storage functionality?

Accepted Answer

Storage Controller VM (SCVM). The Storage Controller VM (SCVM) is correct because it is the software-defined storage controller that runs on each HyperFlex node, aggregates local disks into the distributed HX Data Platform datastore, and delivers the storage functionality of the cluster. The Hypervisor (e.g., VMware ESXi) is correct because it runs on each node and hosts both the SCVM and the user VMs, providing the compute functionality alongside storage. Together, the hypervisor plus SCVM on every node are what make HyperFlex a converged compute-and-storage platform. UCS Manager is not required, since HyperFlex is managed through HyperFlex Connect and the HX Data Platform rather than UCSM. CIMC is only the out-of-band management interface on the servers and does not provide compute or storage services. The Witness VM is only used in stretched/edge deployments for quorum and does not supply compute or storage functionality.

Answer

UCS Manager

Answer

CIMC

Answer

Witness VM

Question 12

Which THREE of the following are required for a successful FCoE deployment on a Cisco MDS switch?

Accepted Answer

Enable the FCoE feature globally. The FCoE feature must be enabled globally on the Cisco MDS switch using the 'feature fcoe' command. This activates the FCoE protocol stack and allows the switch to process FCoE frames, which is a prerequisite for any FCoE deployment.

Answer

Enable FIP snooping on the FCoE VLAN

Answer

Set the MTU to 9216 bytes on all FCoE interfaces

Question 13

Which TWO statements about NPV configuration on a Cisco MDS switch are true? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

NPV mode is enabled globally with the 'npv enable' command.. NPV (N-Port Virtualization) mode is enabled globally on a Cisco MDS switch using the 'npv enable' command. This command places the entire switch into NPV mode, allowing it to function as an NPV proxy that forwards FLOGI requests from downstream F ports to the core Fibre Channel switch. NPV mode is not a per-VSAN configuration; it is a global switch-level setting.

Answer

The core switch must have NPV enabled as well.

Answer

All downstream interfaces must be F ports.

Answer

NPV mode is configured per VSAN.

Question 14

Which THREE factors should be considered when designing an FCoE SAN to avoid traffic loss? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Enable priority flow control (PFC) on all FCoE-enabled interfaces.. Priority Flow Control (PFC) is essential in an FCoE SAN because it provides a lossless Ethernet fabric by pausing traffic on a per-priority basis. Without PFC, standard Ethernet congestion mechanisms would drop FCoE frames, which violates the lossless requirement of Fibre Channel traffic. Enabling PFC on all FCoE-enabled interfaces ensures that buffer credits are managed correctly and no frames are discarded due to congestion.

Answer

Use standard Ethernet cut-through switching for all FCoE traffic.

Answer

Disable the FIP snooping feature to reduce latency.

Question 15

Which NX-OS command is used to display the current OSPF neighbor states?

Accepted Answer

show ip ospf neighbors. The 'show ip ospf neighbors' command is the correct NX-OS command to display the current OSPF neighbor states, including the neighbor ID, interface, state (e.g., FULL, 2WAY, DOWN), and adjacency details. This command directly queries the OSPF process for the neighbor state machine, which is essential for verifying OSPF adjacency formation and troubleshooting Layer 3 connectivity.

Answer

show ip route ospf

Answer

show ospf database

Answer

show ip ospf interface